CPT Anesthesia – Flashcards
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when the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient to receive anesthesia and is in constant attendance with the patient.
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When time is calculated for anesthesia services, the time begins when:
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Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetists(CRNA)
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What type of nurse can administer anesthesia under the direction of an anesthesiologist?
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indicate how many cases an anesthesiologist was performing or supervising at one time.
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Concurrent modifiers are used to describe:
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qualifying circumstances for anesthesia
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99100 is an example of a:
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anatomical site
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In th Anesthesia section of the CPT manual, the codes are usually divided first by which of the following?
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moderate or conscious sedation
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What is the type of sedation that allows a procedure to be performed without pain to the patient, but the patient is not completely asleep?
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american society of anesthesiologist
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The society that publishes the Relative Value Guide for anesthesia services is the:
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B+T+M
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The anesthesia formula is:
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adjunct codes (qualifying circumstances)
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Which codes begin with the number 99 and are used to indicate anesthesia services provided during situations that make the administration of the anesthesia more difficult?
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physical status modifiers
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The anesthesia status modifier that indicates the patient's condition at the time anesthesia was administered is:
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HCPCS modifiers
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The modifier "-AA" is an example of what type of modifier?
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P5
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If anesthesia was provided to a patient who is not expected to survive without the surgical procedure being performed, which physical status modifier would be appended to the anesthesia code?
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conscious
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Moderate or ___________ sedation is a type of sedation that may be provided by the physician performing the procedure.
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severe
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Physical status modifier P3 indicates a patient with _______ systemic disease.
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medicine
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Codes for Qualifying Circumstances are located in both the Anesthesia Guidelines and the __________ section of the CPT manual.
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manipulation
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Which term describes a reduction?
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open treatment
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Which treatment of a fracture requires the fracture to be exposed to view or opened at a remote site for nailing across the fracture?
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skin traction
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Which of the following terms describes traction by use of strapping, elastic wraps, or tape?
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basic exploration and repair, cleaning, enlargement of the wound but also debridement, removal of any foreign body(ies), ligation of minor blood vessel(s), and repair of subcutaneous tissues, muscle fascia, and muscle.
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Wound exploration codes have the following service(s) bundled into the codes:
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external fixaction
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The application of a cranial halo is a form of:
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fascia lata graft
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This type of graft is often taken from the upper thigh area.
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interstitial fluid pressure
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Insertion of a device into the muscle to measure the pressure within muscle is monitoring of:
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arthroscopy
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Fast becoming the treatment of choice for many orthopedic surgical procedures is what type of procedure?
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open, closed , and percutaneous treatments are all fracture treatments (replantation is not a fracture)
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Which of the following is not a fracture treatment?
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Free osteocutaneous flaps
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Which of the following flaps describes a bone graft that is taken along with the skin and tissue that overlies the bone?
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treatment type
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Fracture codes are based on:
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manipulation
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The restoration of a fracture or dislocation to its normal anatomic alignment by the application of manually applied force is known as:
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reasons of treatment.
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A hip replacement is coded based on the:
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surgery is performed in which the fracture is exposed by an incision made over the fracture and the fractured bone is visualized.
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Open treatment of a fracture is when the:
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ankle
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Where is the bimalleolar bone located?
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digital block, a splint, elevate limb and rotate while applying pressure or the patient might lie face down on a table with the arm hanging off the edge while a weight is attached to the hand.
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Which of the following is not a treatment method for dislocation?
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The codes in the Musculoskeletal System are mostly biopsies of deep subcutaneous tissue and the codes in the Integumentary System are of subcutaneous tissues and skin.
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What is the difference between the code for a soft tissue abscess in the Musculoskeletal System subsection and the codes for abscess in the Integumentary System subsection?
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is aspiration of a joint, puncture a joint, and inject a joint.
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Arthrocentesis is:
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open reduction with internal fixation
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The acronym ORIF stands for:
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segmental instrumentation
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_______ is the attachment of a spinal fixation device at each end of the area being repaired and at least one other attachment in the area being repaired.
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promote healing
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Electrical or ultrasound stimulation is used to:
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application and removal of the initial casts, splints, or strapping
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Surgical and fracture repair codes in the musculoskeletal subsection include _________ applied by the treating physician.
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valgus
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A bunionectomy is hallux __________ correction.
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the incisions are smaller, which decreases the risk of infection and speeds recovery time.
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Arthroscopy is a desirable treatment choice by physicians and patients because the:
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diagnostic
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A __________ arthroscopy is always included in a surgical arthroscopy.
