Project Management EXAM REVIEW – Flashcards

. Which of the following is a difference between projects and operations? a. Projects are undertaken to sustain an organization's business whereas operations are not. b. Operations are undertaken to create unique products, services, or results whereas projects are not. c. Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization's operations are ongoing in nature. d. Operations have well-defined objectives whereas projects do not need to have a unique purpose.

2. Which of the following is true of projects? a. They have an indefinite beginning and end. b. They have a unique purpose. c. They are developed using regressive elaboration. d. They are permanent in nature.

3. The role of a _____ is to provide direction and funding for a project. a. project sponsor b. project manager c. support staff member d. project team

4. Galaxy, a construction company, buys a particular brand of tiles manufactured by Tiles and Floors, an eco-friendly tile manufacturing company. However, Tiles and Floors has declared bankruptcy and closed down. At present, Galaxy is facing a crisis because there are no other manufacturers in the market that supplies eco-friendly tiles. Which of the following constraints is Galaxy currently facing? a. Resources b. Time c. Scope d. Cost

5. Steve, an engineer in a construction company, is at present working on a home construction project. The home is being built for the Robinson family, the owners of the home. Steve is working with his project team and support staff to ensure the project is completed on time. In such a scenario, the project sponsor is _____. a. Steve b. the support staff c. the project team d. the Robinson family

6. Project _____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully. a. human resource b. scope c. time d. cost

7. Project _____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. cost b. time c. risk d. quality

8. Which of the following project management knowledge areas primarily involve generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information? a. Project cost management b. Project procurement management c. Project time management d. Project communications management

9. Project procurement management mainly involves: a. making effective use of the people involved with the project. b. buying goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization. c. generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. d. identifying and analyzing stakeholder needs while managing and controlling their engagement.

10. Which of the following project management knowledge areas is an overarching function that affects and is affected by the different knowledge areas? a. Project cost management b. Project stakeholder management c. Project integration management d. Project communications management

11. An important tool for project scope management is _____. a. fast tracking b. crashing c. a Gantt chart d. a work breakdown structure

12. Which of the following tools are most likely to be used in project time management? a. Payback analysis b. Impact matrices c. Gantt charts d. Fishbone diagrams

13. Fast tracking is an example of a tool used in _____ management. a. time b. quality c. communication d. risk

14. In which of the following areas of management is payback analysis most likely to be used? a. Human resource b. Communication c. Cost d. Quality

15. A _____ is a tool used in quality management. a. probability matrice proposal b. checklist c. request for d. critical path analysis

16. Team building exercises and motivation techniques are tools used in _____ management. a. procurement b. scope c. human resource d. cost

17. Which of the following tools can best help in efficient communication management? a. Kick-off meetings b. Impact matrices c. Requests for quotes d. Fast tracking

18. A _____ is a tool used in risk management. a. work breakdown structure analysis b. project organizational chart c. critical path d. probability matrice

19. Which of the following statements is true of project management? a. It is a simple discipline with a limited scope. b. It has specific tools which work universally across all kinds of projects. c. It does not guarantee successes for all projects. d. Its framework consists solely of project management knowledge areas.

20. Which of the following is true of program managers? a. They report to project managers who represent the next level in the hierarchy. b. They recognize that managing a program is simpler than managing a project. c. They provide leadership and direction for project managers heading the projects within a program. d. They are responsible solely for the delivery of project results.

21. Which of the following is a difference between project management and portfolio management? a. Project management involves making wise investment decisions whereas portfolio management does not. b. Portfolio management is an easy task whereas project management is a more difficult task. c. Portfolio management asks questions like, "Are we carrying out projects efficiently?" whereas project management asks questions such as "Are we investing in the right areas?" d. Project management addresses specific, short-term goals whereas portfolio management focuses on long-term goals.

22. A difference between strategic and tactical goals is that: a. strategic goals are more specific than tactical goals. b. tactical goals encompass broader dimensions than strategic goals. c. tactical goals are more important for a project than strategic goals. d. strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.

23. Which of the following questions reflect the strategic goals of project portfolio management? a. Are we carrying out projects well? b. Are projects on time and on budget? c. Are we investing in the right areas? d. Do stakeholders know what they should be doing?

24. Martha works as a project manager at a bank. Due to certain changes in external factors, Martha needs to make a few alterations in the tactical goals of her project. In such a scenario, which of the following will best help Martha cope with the change? a. Negotiation b. Project environment knowledge c. Motivation d. Soft skills

25. Joe is a project manager in an IT company and has over the years, gained substantial knowledge in his area of work. However, while managing his team, he often loses his temper. In addition, he fails to be an active listener when his team members approach him with work related challenges. In which of the following areas does Joe need to develop his skills in? a. Application area knowledge b. Project environment knowledge c. Standards and regulations d. Human relations skills

26. Which of the following best defines the role of leaders? a. They focus on short-term objectives. b. They work on achieving primarily tactical goals. c. They work solely toward day-to-day details of meeting specific tasks. d. They inspire people to reach goals.

27. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format. a. calendar b. line graph c. bar graph d. pie chart

28. A critical path: a. is the shortest path through a network diagram. b. represents schedule information in calendar form. c. determines the earliest completion date of a project. d. is a quality management tool to ensure a project meets the minimum quality standards.

29. A _____ is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization. a. Project Management Office b. Project Management Professional c. Project Management Center d. Portfolio Group

30. Which of the following provides certification as a Project Management Professional? a. PMS b. PMC c. PMI d. PMP

31. Which of the following refers to a set of principles that guides decision making based on personal values of what is considered right and wrong? a. Ethics b. Civics c. Laws d. Politics

32. Which of the following is true of low-end tools of the project management software? a. They are designed for especially large projects with multiple users. b. Their main advantage is that they have unlimited functionality. c. They provide basic project management features. d. They are referred to as an enterprise project management software.

33. Which of the following types of tools is usually recommended for small projects and single users? a. Low-end b. Midrange c. High-end d. Upper range

34. Enterprise project management softwares are also known as _____ tools of project management software. a. baseline b. midrange c. low-end d. high-end

35. Which of the following is a difference between low-end and midrange tools of the project management software? a. Low-end tools are designed to handle primarily multiple users whereas midrange tools are created to handle single users. b. Low-end tools provide robust capabilities to handle dispersed workgroups whereas midrange tools do not. c. Midrange tools provide basic project management features whereas low-end tools offer enterprise and portfolio management functions. d. Midrange tools are designed to handle larger projects than low-end tools.

Chapter 2:

1. Projects must operate in a broad organizational environment, and project managers need to consider projects within the greater organizational context. _____ describes this holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization. a. Linear analysis b. Systems thinking c. Reductionism d. The silo approach

2. _____ refers to a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of a system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs. a. Linear programming b. Independent component analysis c. Principal component analysis d. Systems analysis

3. The symbolic perspective of an organization: a. focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities to meet the goals and policies set by top management. b. views the organization as coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups. c. focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people. d. focuses on the meanings of the culture, language, traditions, and image of the organization.

4. The _____ perspective of an organization focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management. a. structural frame b. human resources frame c. political frame d. symbolic frame

5. The _____ frame of an organization focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people. a. structural b. human resources c. political d. symbolic

6. The _____ perspective on organizations assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups. a. political frame b. symbolic frame c. structural frame d. human resources frame

7. Grey's Infotech sells customized hardware and software solutions for businesses. The salespeople for Grey's have a strict dress code when meeting clients. They are required to wear dark business suits, in order to convey the company's dedication to quality. The meaning conveyed to the clients' through the salespeople's clothing is part of the _____ frame of the organization. a. political b. symbolic c. structural d. human resources

8. In Rizzati Corp, vice presidents in departments such as engineering, manufacturing, IT, and human resources report directly to the chief executive officer and undertake their tasks independently of each other. The staffs of these departments have specialized skills in their respective disciplines.Rizatti Corp can be said to have a _____ organizational structure. a. project b. symbolic c. matrix d. functional

9. In a _____organizational structure, program managers, rather than functional managers or vice presidents, report to the CEO. Their staffs have a variety of skills needed to complete all required tasks within their programs. a. project b. symbolic c. matrix d. functional

10. In a _____ organizational structure, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers. a. project b. symbolic c. matrix d. functional

11. Project managers have the most authority in a pure _____ organizational structure. a. functional b. project c. matrix d. circular

12. Project managers have the least amount of authority in a pure _____ organizational structure. a. functional b. project c. matrix d. circular

13. Which of the following is true of a matrix organizational structure? a. In a matrix organizational structure, employees are organized into departments according to their skills, and there is little interaction between employees from different departments. b. Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from only a single functional area working on their projects. c. In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority. d. A matrix organizational structure is hierarchical, but instead of functional managers reporting to the CEO, program managers report to the CEO.

14. _____ refers to a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization. a. Chain of command b. Line of control c. Organizational culture d. Organizational structure

15. The _____ characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. a. member identity b. group emphasis c. people focus d. unit integration

16. _____ refers to the degree to employees identify with the organization as a whole, rather than with their types of job or profession. a. Member identity b. People focus c. Group emphasis d. Unit integration

17. _____refers to the degree to which departments within an organization are encouraged to coordinate with each other. a. Member identity b. People focus c. Group emphasis d. Unit integration

18. In organizational culture, people focus refers to _____. a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior c. the degree to which management 's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking

19. In organizational culture, means-end orientation refers to _____. a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior c. the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking

20. _____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. a. Means-ends orientation b. Open-systems focus c. Conflict tolerance d. Risk tolerance

21. In organizational culture, control refers to _____. a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior c. the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking

22. _____ are an example of external stakeholders for an organization. a. Top managers b. Functional managers c. Employees d. Competitors

23. A(n) _____ refers to a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project. a. deliverable b. input c. system d. resource

24. Which of the following is true of the project life cycle? a. In the early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually lowest. b. In the later phases of the project life cycle, the level of uncertainty is usually the highest. c. It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during the earlier phases than the latter phases. d. More resources are usually needed during the initial phases of a project than during the middle or final phases.

25. The first two traditional project phases (concept and development) focus on planning, and are often referred to as _____. a. project feasibility b. project acquisition c. project implementation d. project close-out

26. A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the _____ phase of the project life cycle, and an overview of the work involved is created. a. implementation b. acquisition c. concept d. close-out

27. In the development phase of the project life cycle: a. the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS. b. the project team delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. c. managers develop a business case, which describes the need for the project and basic underlying concepts. d. managers prepare a preliminary or rough cost estimate for the required work.

28. In the _____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out

29. The _____ model of a systems development life cycle assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined. a. spiral life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. incremental build life cycle d. RAD life cycle

30. The _____ model of a systems development life cycle provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities. a. spiral life cycle b. RAD life cycle c. waterfall life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

31. In the _____ model, developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously. a. RAD life cycle b. prototyping life cycle c. spiral life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

32. The _____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype, using tools such as computer-aided software engineering, joint requirements planning, and joint application design to facilitate rapid prototyping and code generation. a. incremental build life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. RAD life cycle d. spiral life cycle

33. Which of the following best describes a kill point in the project life cycle? a. The period of time given to managers during the feasibility phases to decide on the cost, quality, and time constraints for the project b. A review of the status of a project at each phase of development to determine if it should be continued, redirected, or terminated c. The point of time in the project lifecycle after which it is impossible to terminate a running project d. The final submission of the project deliverables after which the project is terminated

34. Which of the following is a disadvantage of virtual teams as compared to traditional teams? a. Increased costs for office space and support b. Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information c. Limited flexibility in team working hours d. Reduced dependence on technology and processes for accomplishing work

35. Which of the following best describes outsourcing? a. An organization selling its products in a market outside its domestic market b. An organization's acquisition of goods and services from an outside source c. An organization setting up manufacturing and retailing facilities in a new country d. An organization's use of virtual teams with employees located in different countries

36. Which of the following is true of virtual teams? a. It is easier for a virtual team to build relationships and trust. b. Negative incentives do not impact virtual team members. c. It is important to select team members carefully. d. As they never meet, virtual teams do not have conflicts.

37. Which of the following is true of the agile approach to software development? a. In the agile method, requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration. b. An agile approach sets scope goals, but leaves time and cost goals flexible. c. Agile is a predictive model of software development. d. In the agile approach, requirements must be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.

Chapter 3:

1. _____ processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. a. Initiating c. Executing b. Planning d. Monitoring and controlling

2. _____ processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling

3. Examples of _____ processes include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements. a. monitoring and controlling b. executing c. planning d. initiating

4. A common _____ process is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track. a. executing b. closing c. monitoring and controlling d. planning

5. Administrative activities, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project, are often involved in _____ processes. a. monitoring and controlling b. executing c. initiating d. closing

6. During _____ processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition. a. initiating b. planning c. opening d. controlling

7. The project integration management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of developing project charters. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

8. The project scope management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of scope validation and scope control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

9. The project time management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activity of schedule control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

10. Developing a _____ is a planning process that occurs in the Project Integration Management knowledge area. a. schedule management plan b. project management plan c. WBS d. quality management

11. _____ is a planning process that is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development b. Developing a project c. Creation of a WBS management plan d. Quality planning

12. The project cost management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

13. The project stakeholder management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group by identifying stakeholders. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

14. _____ is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members. a. Agile Unified Process b. Dynamic Systems c. Rational Unified Process Development Method d. Six Sigma

15. Which of the following is a pre-initiation task? a. Drawing up a work breakdown structure b. Developing a business case for a project c. Drafting the project charter d. Identifying stakeholders

16. One of the main outputs of the initiation process is _____. a. creating the work breakdown structure b. selecting the project manager c. developing the project charter d. identifying the project sponsor

17. The project management plan is the output of the planning process of project _____. a. integration management b. quality management c. scope management d. procurement management

18. Which of the following is a planning process associated with project scope management? a. Collecting requirements b. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning schedule management d. Estimating costs

19. The _____ provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance. a. scope statement b. cost management plan c. work breakdown structure d. project charter

20. _____ are an output of the executing process of project integration management. a. Deliverables b. Issue logs c. Resource calendars d. Enterprise environmental factor updates

21. Enterprise environmental factors are an output of the executing process of _____. a. project integration management b. project quality management c. project human resource management d. project procurement management

22. The _____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end. a. executing b. closing c. planning d. monitoring

23. Organizational process assets update is the output of the closing process of _____. a. project integration management b. project quality management c. project procurement management d. project time management

24. Which of the following is true about the agile method? a. It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle. b. It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later. c. It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product. d. It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.

25. Which of the following project parameters would be compatible with the use of the agile approach? a. Projects with inexperienced and dispersed teams b. Projects that have a fairly rigid completion date c. Projects with clear-up front requirements d. Projects that have more flexible scheduling

26. Which of the following activities is a part of the planning process of the Scrum? a. Determining how many sprints will compose each release b. Demonstrating the product during a sprint review meeting c. Completing tasks each day during sprints d. Creating sprint backlog

27. The improvement of the product and process in the Scrum method is discussed at the _____. a. sprint reflection meeting b. sprint review meeting c. kick-off meeting d. daily Scrum meeting

28. A _____ is usually not necessary to the Scrum method. a. team contract b. velocity estimate c. Gantt chart d. product backlog

29. A _____ is an important Scrum artifact used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process. a. WBS b. sprint backlog c. burndown chart d. product backlog

Chapter 4:

1. _____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Performing integrated change control

2. _____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Developing the organizational process assets updates

3. The outputs of the _____ process include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

4. The first step in the planning process is _____. a. to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan b. to perform a business area analysis c. to start defining potential IT projects in terms of their scope, benefits, and constraints d. to choose which projects to do and assigning resources to work on them

5. The _____ stage of information technology planning outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology. a. project planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. information technology strategy planning

6. In the _____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations define project scope, benefits, and constraints. a. project planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. information technology strategy planning

7. In the _____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects. a. project planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. information technology strategy planning

8. _____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence. a. Opportunities b. Charters c. Problems d. Directives

9. _____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. a. Cost of capital b. Net present value c. Cash flow d. Payback

10. Benefits minus costs is known as the _____. a. cost of capital b. cash flow c. discount factor d. opportunity cost of capital

11. The first step in determining the NPV is to _____. a. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces b. determine the discount rate c. calculate the net present value d. determine the cash flow

12. Which of the following is true of return on investment or ROI? a. It is always a percentage. b. It is always a positive number. c. It is the result of adding the project costs to the profits. d. The lower it is, the better.

13. The _____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment. a. capitalization rate b. internal rate of return c. discount rate d. required rate of return

14. Payback occurs when: a. the net cumulative benefits minus costs equal one. b. the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs. c. the net costs are lower than the cumulative benefits. d. the cumulative benefits are double the cumulative costs.

15. A project's internal rate of return can be determined by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of _____ for the project. a. zero b. one c. a hundred percent d. fifty percent

16. In a weighted scoring model, the sum of the weights of all the criteria must total _____ percent. a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150

17. A _____ is a document that recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. stakeholder register b. risk register c. directive d. project charter

18. The business case includes information on _____. a. the business need for the project b. relevant government or industry standards c. the project objective, high-level requirements, and time and cost goals d. policies, procedures, guidelines, and systems that influence a project's success

19. Which of the following are organizational process assets? a. Management systems b. The organization's infrastructure c. Government standards d. Marketplace conditions

20. A _____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control. a. project management plan b. statement of work c. scope statement d. business case

21. The _____ section of the project plan should describe the major project functions and activities and identify those individuals who are in charge of them. a. organizational charts b. other organizational or process-related information c. project responsibilities d. management objectives

22. The _____ section of the project management plan describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes

23. The project schedule information section of the project management plan includes ____. a. a detailed budget b. a list of key deliverables c. an elaborate timetable d. a directory of staff involved in the project

24. The _____ section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes

25. The majority of time on a project is usually spent on _____, as is most of the project's budget. a. execution b. planning c. closing d. monitoring and controlling

26. _____ should result in improvements in project performance. a. Corrective actions b. Defect repairs c. Preventive actions d. Product acceptance plans

27. Which of the following is a proactive process undertaken to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks? a. Performance reports b. Preventive actions c. Defect repairs d. Corrective actions

28. An IT company revises its process parameters in response to complaints from vendors that products were not ready on time. This would be an example of _____. a. cost forecasting b. a preventive action c. defect repairs d. a corrective action

29. A(n) _____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be modified, the people authorized to make modifications, and the paperwork required for these changes. a. WBS b. project charter c. performance report d. change control system

30. _____ involves identifying and controlling the functional and physical design characteristics of products and their support documentation, and ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. NPV analysis b. Project management information systems c. Configuration management d. Project time management