Final (Exams I Questions) – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
A(n) _______ inhibitor will bind to an enzyme's _______ site, changing the enzymes conformation so that substrate molecules can no longer bind to the active site.
A. competitive; actice
B. noncompetitive; allosteric
C. allosteric; active
D. competitive; allosteric
E. noncompetitive; active
answer
B. noncompetitive; allosteric
question
Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is false?
a. an enzymes amino acid composition will determine its conformation and active site structure
b. at temperatures above or below an enzymes temperature optimum, the active site will change shape, allowing for recognition of alternative substrates
c. enzymes may be denatured by increasing or lowering the ionic strength of its environment
d. enzymes lower the energy necessary to reach a reaction's transition state, thereby enhancing the rate of the reaction but not altering the equilibrium
e. enzymes act as catalysts in that they participate in the reaction but are not consumed by the reaction
answer
b. at temperatures above or below an enzymes temperature optimum, the active will change shape, allowing for recognition of alternative substrates
question
Which of the following can be the final electron receptor in anaerobic respiration by chemolithotrophic bacteria?
a. ethanol
b. pyruvate
c. oxygen
d. both nitrate and sulfate
e. both pyruvate and nitrate
answer
d. both nitrate and sulfate
question
4) Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as
a. antagonistic inhibition.
b. competitive inhibition.
c. repulsive inhibition.
d. uncompetitive inhibition.
e. feedforward inhibition.
answer
b. competitive inhibition.
question
5) A Gram-negative opportunistic pathogen often associated with nosocomial infections that synthesizes a blue-green pigment and is commonly found in the environment is
a. Escherichia coli.
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
e. None of the above.
answer
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
question
6) You have isolated a bacterium from the sputum of a patient who has a bacterial infection of the lung.
You have detected the presence of mycolic acids and other waxy lipids. Which of the following statements apply?
a. The Gram stain should be used for diagnosis.
b. You will need to use the Acid-fast stain for diagnosis.
c. The bacterium is likely to be Mycoplasma
d. You should use the negative stain technique for diagnosis.
e. None of the above.
answer
b. You will need to use the Acid-fast stain for diagnosis.
question
7) Compact compartments that protect RuBisCo from the oxygen produced during noncyclic photosynthesis are called
a. chloroplasts.
b. Calvin bodies.
c. lysozomes.
d. carboxysomes.
e. rubiscomers.
answer
d. carboxysomes.
question
8) Which of the following is FALSE about the bacterial cell wall?
a. The peptidoglycan chain is made of alternating units of glucose-based N-acetylglucosamine and N acetylmuramic acid sugars.
b. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are attached to the outer portion of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.
c. The O-antigen is the membrane component that is often used to characterize Gram-positive bacteria.
d. Differences in cell wall structures are the basis of the Gram stain.
e. The integrity of the cell wall (and, by extension, the shape of the cell) is due, in part, to the peptidoglycan layer.
answer
c. The O-antigen is the membrane component that is often used to characterize Gram-positive bacteria.
question
9) Which of the following statements concerning microbial cellular metabolism is FALSE?
a. Enzymes are essential for catabolic and anabolic reactions.
b. Metabolic precursors are transformed into macromolecules by anabolism.
c. Reducing power from nutrients is captured by the hydrolysis of ATP.
d. The main purpose of metabolism is reproduction of the organism.
e. ATP is used in the formation of macromolecules.
answer
c. Reducing power from nutrients is captured by the hydrolysis of ATP.
question
10) Which of the following was NOT an aspect of Pasteur's experiments to disprove Spontaneous Generation?
a. Starting with a liquid that contained microorganisms.
b. Microbes only grew when the sterile broth contacted microorganisms from air.
c. Only flasks open to air had microbial growth in them.
d. The broths were boiled to sterilize them.
e. Broths in the swan-necked flasks remained sterile for long periods of time even though air could get in
answer
a. Starting with a liquid that contained microorganisms.
question
11) In the figure below, which picture represents the Gram-positive cell wall?
a. a
b. b
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
e. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
answer
a. a
question
12) The atypical bacterium Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes a form of pneumonia. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Penicillin would be a good choice to treat a Mycoplasma infection.
b. It forms endospores, which is only characteristic of atypical bacteria.
c. Its shape is variable.
d. It requires the Acid-Fast stain for identification, like all atypical bacteria.
e. Lysozyme would affect actively growing Mycoplasma cells.
answer
c. Its shape is variable.
question
13) The bacterium shown below has no apparent nucleus and is purple after a Gram stain. This bacterium was also observed to move toward a carbon source for food. You could conclude all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is a Gram-negative bacillus.
b. It has polar flagella.
c. It exhibits chemotaxis.
d. It has a cell wall.
e. It is a Gram-positive bacillus.
answer
a. It is a Gram-negative bacillus.
question
14) The anabolism of sugars and other complex carbohydrates from fatty acids, amino acids, C02 or simple carbohydrates is accomplished by
a. protease activity and amino group removal (by deaminases).
b. gluconeogenesis.
c. fermentation.
d. the Calvin cycle.
e. glycolysis.
answer
b. gluconeogenesis.
question
For each of the cell structures specify whether it is true for: Most Sensitive to Penicillin
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
d. Neither Gram-negative nor Gram-positive bacteria
answer
a. Gram-positive bacteria
question
For each of the cell structures specify whether it is true for: ATP synthetase
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
d. Neither Gram-negative nor Gram-positive bacteria
answer
c. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive
question
For each of the cell structures specify whether it is true for: Outer Membrane
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
d. Neither Gram-negative nor Gram-positive bacteria
answer
b. Gram-negative bacteria
question
18) For each of the cell structures specify whether it is true for: Golgi bodies
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
d. Neither Gram-negative nor Gram-positive bacteria
answer
d. Neither Gram-negative nor Gram-positive bacteria
question
19) For each of the cell structures specify whether it is true for: Thick layer of peptidoglycan
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
d. Neither Gram-negative nor Gram-positive bacteria
answer
a. Gram-positive bacteria
question
20) Fermentation is a metabolic process that
a. requires the Krebs cycle for its energy and reducing power.
b. is an alternative to the Calvin cycle.
c. may use ribose and glucose as final electron acceptors.
d. occurs only when oxygen is readily available.
e. is dependent on reducing power that is generated by glucose oxidation.
answer
e. is dependent on reducing power that is generated by glucose oxidation.
question
21) Anabolic reactions
a. are exergonic.
b. require reducing power and ATP.
c. include cyclic pathways that release C02 .
d. generate reducing power in the form of FADH2 and coenzyme QH2.
e. produce small precursor molecules from large molecules
answer
b. require reducing power and ATP.
question
22) For the name Staphylococcus aureus, "aureus" is the
a. genus.
b. domain name.
c. species.
d. kingdom.
e. family name.
answer
c. species.
question
23) A cancer-causing bacterial pathogen that avoids the acidic pH of the stomach by burrowing through the mucous layer and into epithelial cells that line the stomach is
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b. Escherichia coli.
c. Bacillus anthracis.
d. Helicobacter pylori.
e. None of the above
answer
d. Helicobacter pylori.
question
24) Carl Woese
a. discovered 16S and 18S rRNA sequences.
b. proposed three Domains to classify all organisms based on their 16S and 18S rRNA sequences.
c. proposed breaking eukaryotes into Domains Eukarya, Archaea, and Bacteria.
d. was involved in refining the Gram stain for classification purposes.
e. All of the above.
answer
b. proposed three Domains to classify all organisms based on their 16S and 1BS rRNA sequences.
question
25) Which of the following statements concerning reduction reactions is FALSE?
a. An electron acceptor gains an electron.
b.They are coupled with oxidation reactions.
c. They frequently involve electron carrier molecules.
d. An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged.
e. A molecule gains a hydrogen atom.
answer
d. An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged.
question
26) Which of the following statements about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is NOT true?
a. Production of ATP requires the participation of chlorophyll a and other light harvesting pigments.
b. Cyanobacteria rely on photosystems I and II for reducing power and ATP.
c. They are responsible for the production of reduced NADP.
d. They provide the reducing power necessary for carbon fixation.
e. Oxygenic photosystem 2 reactions may use hydrogen (H2) gas or hydrogen sulfide (H2S) as electron donors in place of water.
answer
e. Oxygenic photosystem 2 reactions may use hydrogen (H2) gas or hydrogen sulfide (H2S) as electron donors in place of water.
question
27) Which is NOT a function(s) of the cytoplasmic membrane in prokaryotes?
a. It functions as a permeability barrier.
b. It is a site for many proteins involved in transport.
c. It is a major site of energy transformations.
d. It plays a significant role in the generation of energy by substrate level phosphorylation.
e. it is the location of the electron transport chain in most prokaryotes.
answer
d. It plays a significant role in the generation of energy by substrate level phosphorylation.
question
28 The following statements about oxidative phosphorylation are true, EXCEPT:
a. Blocking the flow of protons and electrons through the chain will stop ATP synthesis.
b. ATP synthesis utilizes the energy derived from the electron transport chain as well as the proton gradient.
c. The final acceptor may be oxygen, with the formation of water.
d. The protonmotive force generated by the electron transport chain may be used to power flagella and
transport solutes (active transport).
e. The process is a primary mechanism for regenerating reduced coenzymes for use in metabolic pathways.
answer
e. The process is a primary mechanism for regenerating reduced coenzymes for use in metabolic pathways.
question
29) In the figure below, which shows a sarcinae arrangement?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. Not shown.
answer
b. B (cube)
question
30) Starting with an inoculum of 10 cells, how many bacteria would there be after 3 hours with a doubling time of 30 minutes?
a. 640
b. 160
c. 120
d. 900
e. 320
answer
a. 640
question
31) If a microbiology lab technician left the decolorizer out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the most likely result?
a. All cells would be purple.
b. Gram-positive cells would be purple and Gram-negative cells would be colorless
c. All cells would be pink.
d. Gram-positive cells would be pink and Gram-negative cells would be purple.
e. Gram-positive cells would be colorless and Gram-negative cells would be pink.
answer
a. All cells would be purple.
question
35) The portion of the bacterial growth curve that a culture is most sensitive to antibiotics is
a. lag phase
b. stationary phase
c. exponential phase
d. metaphase
e. prophase
answer
c. exponential phase
-or log phase, cells divide at a constant rate
a. lag phase: begin to make enzymes required for growth
b. stationary phase: low nutrient levels
question
33) The following statements about the pentose phosphate pathway are true, EXCEPT:
a. The pathway is an alternative route for glucose oxidation.
b. Reducing power is an important product of the pentose phosphate pathway
c. The pathway is a direct contributor of ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation reactions.
d. The pathway is necessary for the synthesis of ribose-5-phosphate, which is important for nucleic acid synthesis.
e. The pathway provides the cell with precursor molecules.
answer
c. The pathway is a direct contributor of ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation reactions.
question
36) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Prokaryotic flagella are anchored to the cell wall by means of the basal body.
b. Pili are involved in genetic exchange of DNA between prokaryotic cells.
c. The glycocalyx may function in the formation of a biofilm.
d. Fimbriae are generally longer and less numerous than flagella.
e. Fimbriae of a bacterium may be used for adhering to surfaces or other cells
answer
d. Fimbriae are generally longer and less numerous than flagella.
-glycocalyx: polysaccharide layer surrounding cells that can function as either protection or attachment
-Fimbriae: type of pilus that enables cells to attach to a specific surface; shorter and thinner than flagella
question
32) _______ is a member of the Actinomycetes- a group of bacteria that produce many of the antibiotics used today.
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Clostridium botulinum
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
answer
b. Streptomyces griseus
question
37) The scientist who contributed most to the development of pure culture techniques was
a. Alexander Fleming.
b. Louis Pasteur.
c. Selman Waksman .
d. Robert Koch.
e. None of the above.
answer
d. Robert Koch.
question
38) Carbon dioxide is a by-product of which of the following?
a. Calvin cycle
b. Photophosphorylation
c. Substrate-level phosphorylation
d. TCA cycle
e. None of the above
answer
d. TCA cycle
-pathway that uses acetyl-CoA and generates ATP (or GTP), CO2 and reducing power; aka krebs and citric acid cycle
-reducing power: reduced electron carriers (NADH, NADPH, FADH2)
question
34) Which of these scientist(s) coined the term animalcule when observing a drop of pond water through a microscope?
a. Redi
b. van Leeuwenhoek
c. Pasteur
d. Hooke
e. Koch
answer
b. van Leeuwenhoek
a. Redi: challenged Spontaneous Generation with flask and meat
c. Pasteur: "father" of microbiology; disproved Spontaneous Generation
d. Hooke: discovered microorganisms during the same time as van Leeuwenhoek
e. Koch: pure culture techniques; bacterium causes anthrax
question
39) The following statements about Escherichia coli are true, EXCEPT:
a. It possesses characteristic lophotrichous flagella.
b. It is a member of the gammaproteobacteria , which includes many pathogenic enterobacteria.
c. It is a Gram-negative facultative anaerobe.
d. It can be selectively grown on MacConkey agar, and is differentiated on this agar by its pink colony color.
e. It is commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded animals and provides its host with vitamins.
answer
a. It possesses characteristic lophotrichous flagella.
question
40) Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?
a. Glycolysis utilizes the NADH that is generated by the electron transport chain.
b. Glycolysis enzymes are located within the inner membrane of bacteria.
c. While glycolysis produces ATP, reducing power is generated by the TCA cycle.
d. The glycolysis pathway is an alternative to fermentation .
e. Glycolysis is an oxidation process that generates reduced coenzymes, ATP and metabolic intermediates used for biosynthesis.
answer
e. Glycolysis is an oxidation process that generates reduced coenzymes, ATP and metabolic intermediates used for biosynthesis.
question
41) What is NOT true about endospores?
a. They are reproductive structures.
b. They are resistant to extremes of temperature , UV irradiation, drying, and toxic chemicals .
c. They are a survival mechanism for certain bacteria.
d. They are produced by members of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium.
e. Germination results in the emergence of a growing, reproducing, vegetative cell.
answer
a. They are reproductive structures.
question
42) Which of the following substances are not produced by the TCA cycle?
a. ATP
b. Pyruvate
c. FADH2
d. NADH+H+
e. Carbon dioxide
answer
b. Pyruvate