Biology Final Day 2 questions – Flashcards

47) The activation of the secondary immune response begins with which of the following? a. Antibodies b. Killer T-cells c. Memory cells d. Mast cells e. Suppressor T-cells

48) Many animal trainers give rewards to an animal when it performs a behavior correctly. This type of learning is called a. insight learning b. operant conditioning c. imprinting d. innate learning e. habituation

50) Activated by directly binding to GTP a. Adenylate cyclase b. G-protein c. Carrier protein d. cAMP e. Ion channel receptor protein

51) Catalyzes the formation of cytosolic second-messenger molecules a. Adenylate cyclase b. G-protein c. Carrier protein d. cAMP e. Ion channel receptor protein

52) Enhances the transport of lipophilic signals in the blood a. Adenylate cyclase b. G-protein c. Carrier protein d. cAMP e. Ion channel receptor protein

53) Serves as an intracellular second-messenger molecule a. Adenylate cyclase b. G-protein c. Carrier protein d. cAMP e. Ion channel receptor protein

54) This protein requires iron as a cofactor. a. Keratin b. Hemoglobin c. Actin d. Insulin e. Pepsin

55) This protein functions in muscle contraction. a. Keratin b. Hemoglobin c. Actin d. Insulin e. Pepsin

56) This is the principal protein component of skin. a. Keratin b. Hemoglobin c. Actin d. Insulin e. Pepsin

57) This protein functions optimally in high H+ concentrations. a. Keratin b. Hemoglobin c. Actin d. Insulin e. Pepsin

58) Part of a chromosome breaks away and then reattaches to the same chromosome in reverse orientation. a. Crossing-over b. Inversion c. Translocation d. Nondisjunction e. Deletion

59) Part of a chromosome breaks away and attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome a. Crossing-over b. Inversion c. Translocation d. Nondisjunction e. Deletion

60) Part of a chromosome lacking a centromere breaks away and does not reattach to another chromosome a. Crossing-over b. Inversion c. Translocation d. Nondisjunction e. Deletion

61) Tetrads fail to separate correctly during anaphase in this process. a. Crossing-over b. Inversion c. Translocation d. Nondisjunction e. Deletion

62) Broad, flat, deciduous leaves are fan shaped; ovules develop into naked seeds. (slide 4) a. Mosses b. Ferns c. Conifers d. Gingkos e. Angiosperms

63) Heart-shaped gametophytes produce swimming sperm; leaves of sporophytes develop from fiddleheads. (slide 4) a. Mosses b. Ferns c. Conifers d. Gingkos e. Angiosperms

64) The embryo sac with seven cells and eight nuclei undergoes double fertilization. (slide 4) a. Mosses b. Ferns c. Conifers d. Gingkos e. Angiosperms

65) Associated with inactivated DNA a. Methylation b. Enhancer activity c. RNA capping d. RNA spliceosome activity e. Reverse transcription

66) Protects RNA from hydrolysis a. Methylation b. Enhancer activity c. RNA capping d. RNA spliceosome activity e. Reverse transcription

67) Selectively removes RNA segments a. Methylation b. Enhancer activity c. RNA capping d. RNA spliceosome activity e. Reverse transcription

68) Increases RNA polymerase activity a. Methylation b. Enhancer activity c. RNA capping d. RNA spliceosome activity e. Reverse transcription

69) (slide 5) The banding patterns of the DNA fragments reveal that a. child 1 and child 2 cannot be biological siblings b. child 1 and child 3 probably look like the mother c. the mother cannot be the biological parent of all three children d. the mother's DNA has the same DNA sequence as the father's DNA e. child 2 and child 3 inherited all of their DNA from the father

70) (slide 5) All of the following made the separation of these DNA fragments possible EXCEPT a. the negative charge of the DNA b. the percentage of G + C bases c. the porous nature of the gel d. different fragment sizes e. positive electrode placement

71) (slide 5) Which of the following is the best explanation for the fragment pattern for individual X? a. She has only one member of this chromosome pair. b. She has only one living parent. c. She is homozygous for this particular DNA fragment. d. She is the mother's child from another marriage. e. She is not related to any member of the family being tested.

72) (slide 5) All of the following are likely steps that would lead to the production of these gel patterns EXCEPT a. isolating the DNA from each individual b. using a different restriction enzyme to treat the DNA of each individual c. loading the DNA into separate wells in an agarose gel d. separating the fragments in an electrical field e. probing the DNA with an oligonucleotide specific to the short repeating sequence

73) (slide 6) What is the most likely identity of protein X? a. An enzyme that is involved in transcription b. An electron transport protein that participates in respiration reactions c. A protein secreted from liver cells into the blood stream that permits proper capillary function d. An enzyme that participates in the degradation and recycling of cell components e. A building block of the microtubules that are part of the cytoskeleton

74) (slide 6) Which of the following correctly shows the order in which protein X moves through the cell? a. Endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> lysosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> nucleus -> cytoplasm -> lysosomes c. Extracellular space -> mitochondria -> cytoplasm d. Golgi apparatus -> cytoplasm -> lysosomes e. Cytoplasm -> mitochondria -> extracellular space

75) (slide 6) The same procedure was repeated with a second protein (protein Y). If the function of Y is protein processing and packaging, the most radioactivity would be found in the a. Golgi apparatus b. Nucleus c. Mitochondria d. Lysosomes e. Cytoplasm

76) (slide 6) In graphing the data from this experiment, the sampling time would be shown on the x-axis because a. cell components were shown on the y-axis b. radioactivity level shows the most variation c. time values are always located on the horizontal axis d. all quantitative values are represented on the x-axis e. sampling time is the independent variable

77) A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law. What is the frequency of the recessive allele? a. √0.75 b. 0.75 c. √0.50 d. √0.25 e. 0.25

78) A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law. Unlike most natural populations, this population is best characterized in which of the following ways? a. There is genetic equilibrium. b. There is gene flow. c. There is genetic drift. d. Mutations occur. e. Mating is nonrandom.

79) A survey reveals that 25 percent of a population of 1,000 individuals have attached earlobes (are homozygous recessive for the trait). For the following questions, assume that the population fits the parameters of the Hardy-Weinburg law. If p equals the frequency of the dominant allele and q equals the frequency of the recessive allele, which of the following terms represents the frequency of the individuals who show the dominant phenotype? a. pxp b. qxq c. 2pq d. pxp +2pq e. pxp + qxq

80) (slide 7) The fluctuation in blood pressure shown in section I is caused by the a. systole-diastole cycle b. the atrial contraction-atrial relaxation cycle c. comparison of pressure in the artery to pressure in the corresponding vein d. tidal breathing rate of the subject e. rhythmic contraction of the veins

81) (slide 7) The changes in velocity of blood flow seen in section II are most directly influenced by which of the following? a. The increasing blood pressure within the vessels b. the distances of the vessels from the heart c. The volume of blood pumped in one-systole-diastole cycle d. The cross-sectional area of vessels e. The thickness of the vessel walls

82) (slide 7) Given the very low pressure for the blood's return to the heart shown in section III, which of the following is NOT a mechanism for assisting blood's movement? a. The presence of one-way valves embedded in the vein's walls b. A thoracic pump powered by breathing movements c. A transpirational pull using hydrogen bonding d. Skeletal muscle assists e. The reduced pressure in the relaxing heart chambers after the blood is forced out

83) (slide 8) Which of the following is the most likely mode of inheritance for the disease? a. Codominance b. Autosomal dominant c. Autosomal recessive d. Sex-linked dominant e. Sex-linked recessive

84) (slide 8) If Individual 2 were to marry a woman with no family history of the disease, which of the following would most likely be true of their children? a. All of the children would have the disease. b. None of the children would have the disease. c. Only the sons would have the disease. d. All of the sons would be carriers of the disease. e. None of the daughters would be carriers of the disease.

85) (slide 8) If Individual 6 marries a woman with the disease, what is the probability that their first child will have the disease? a. 0 b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%

86) (slide 9) Based on the data shown, changes in the light intensity resulted in changes in the rate of which of the following processes? a. excretion b. photosynthesis c. respiration d. translation e. transcription

87) (slide 9) The rate of oxygen production equaled the rate of oxygen consumption during which of the following time periods? a. G to H b. H to I c. I to J d. J to K e. G to K

88) (slide 9) An increase in the rate of oxygen production by algae would be accompanied by a comparable increase in the rate of production of which of the following substances? a. C6H12O6 b. CO2 c. CH4 d. NH3 e. H2O

89) (slide 10) The population density at point Q indicates that a. exponential population growth is occurring b. predation is beginning to occur c. the reproductive rate equals the death rate d. the average age of individuals is decreasing e. the reproductive capacity for each individual is increasing

90) (slide 10) The population would be most likely to remain at the level shown at Q under which of the following conditions? a. All predators are eliminated. b. The population size is well below its carrying capacity. c. Euglena is a primary producer. d. Euglena is a primary consumer. e. Environmental conditions do not fluctuate.

91) (slide 11) From the data presented, which of the following can correctly be concluded about crayfish? a. Their diet contains no fat. b. Most digestive enzymes are produced in the stomach. c. Most digestive enzymes are found in the digestive gland. d. Amylase is produced in the esophagus. e. The primary function of the intestine is to digest proteins.

92) (slide 11) Based on the data presented, which of the following statements regarding crayfish digestion is consistent with the data? a. Little digestion occurs before food enters the stomach. b. Most digestion occurs in the stomach. c. Little digestion occurs in the intestine. d. Enzymes are used up as they catalyze. e. Digestion is optimal at 25 degrees C.

93) (slide 11) The experiment demonstrates which of the following about the digestive system of crayfish? a. Amylase is the most active digestive enzyme. b. Crayfish have only three kinds of digestive enzymes. c. Most enzyme activity occurs in the intestine. d. Different regions of the digestive system are specialized for different functions. e. The esophagus serves no real function.

94) (slide 11) Which of the following would be useful as a substrate to measure the activity of amylase in crayfish? a. Cellulose b. Starch c. Glucose d. An amino acid e. A nucleic acid

95) Researchers applied radioactive phosphorus and radioactive calcium to a freshly cut tree stump. Eight days later, they came back to measure the distribution of the radioisotopes. They found that nineteen different species of shrubs and trees within a seven-meter radius had taken up the radioactive elements. No radioactivity was detected in the air. Radioactive isotopes were never detected in any samples containing just soil taken during the experiment. The finding implies that the a. soil does not provide the ecosystem with minerals b. isotopes were undetectable in very small amounts c. isotopes were transported via vascular tissues d. plants quickly return minerals to the soil in which they grow e. soil speeds up radioactive decay

96) Researchers applied radioactive phosphorus and radioactive calcium to a freshly cut tree stump. Eight days later, they came back to measure the distribution of the radioisotopes. They found that nineteen different species of shrubs and trees within a seven-meter radius had taken up the radioactive elements. No radioactivity was detected in the air. Radioactively labeled starch was later added to the stump; in subsequent observations, no labeled starch molecules were ever detected in neighboring plants. Which of the following is the most logical explanation for the observation? a. During transport, the radioactive atoms are removed from the starch molecules. b. Starch molecules are too large to cross cell membranes. c. The radioactivity caused the starch molecules to break down. d. Water in the soil dissolved the starch molecules. e. The radioactive carbon atoms decayed into other atoms that are undetectable.

97) (slide 12) Which of the following best describes why the disks rose to the surface faster in the more concentrated hydrogen peroxide solutions? a. There was more enzyme present in the more concentrated solutions. b. A greater amount of heat was generated in the more concentrated solutions. c. The more concentrated solutions lowered the activation energy of the reaction. d. The higher substrate concentrations in the more concentrated solutions speeded the reaction. e. The density of the water was lower in the more concentrated solutions.

98) (slide 12) Which of the following experimental designs should the students use as a control for the experiment? a. Place a catalase-soaked disk in a beaker of water. b. Drop the disks from different heights into the solution. c. Poke the floating disks back down to the bottom of the beaker and retime the rise of the disks. d. Shake the beakers during the time the disks are rising. e. Dip the disks in the 5% solution before putting them in any other solution.

99) (slide 12) Which of the following best describes why ice was used during this experiment? a. To increase the activity of the enzyme b. To retard the breakdown of the catalase c. To purge the solution of excess air trapped during blending d. To slow the catalase molecules to increase the probability of contact with the hydrogen peroxide molecules e. To increase the size of the active site on the enzyme

100) (slide 12) If the potato solution was boiled for 10 minutes and cooled for 10 minutes before being tested, the average time for the disks to float to the surface of the hydrogen peroxide solution would be a. less than 1 second b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 30 seconds e. more than 30 seconds

47.Which of the following processes is associated with some prokaryotic cells but not with eukaryotic cells? (A) Photosynthesis (B) Aerobic respiration (C) Meiosis (D) Nitrogen fixation (E) Endocytosis

48.The control of breathing is centered in which of the following areas of the brain? (A) Anterior pituitary (B) Corpus callosum (C) Cerebellum (D) Medulla Oblongata (E) Cerebrum

49.Certain metabolic pathways are affected by the buildup of a product which interacts with an enzyme catalyzing one of the initial steps of the pathway; this can be an example of (A) transcriptional regulation (B) thermodynamic regulation (C) translational regulation (D) feedback inhibition (E) posttranslational modification

50.All of the following statements about neurotransmitters are generally true EXCEPT: (A) They may cause depolarization or hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane. (B) They are actively transported across the synaptic cleft. (C) They are released from membrane-bound packets called vesicles. (D) They may be enzymatically degraded at the postsynaptic membrane. (E) They bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.

51.A customer observed that a particular potted plant in a restaurant was bigger and greener than other plants in the room. When asked, the owner said that he poured leftover club soda (carbonated water) into that plant's pot every day. Which of the following best explains how the club soda affected that plant's growth? (A) The basic pH of the club soda caused the plant to grow rapidly. (B) The temperature of the club soda promoted faster growth. (C) Oxygen bubbles from the club soda oxygenated the soil. (D) The roots absorbed the CO2 necessary for photosynthesis. (E) The roots received more moisture, and the leaves were exposed to more CO2.

52.A major function of the Casparian strip of the endodermal cells of a root is to (A) protect the meristem as the root tip grows through the abrasive soil particles (B) allow for expansion of the vascular cambium as the root grows laterally (C) control the movement of materials into the vascular cylinder of the root (D) initiate lateral root growth (E) serve as a site for the storage of excess sugars in the form of starch

53.Which of the following is correct concerning a spherical cell? (A) As the diameter decreases, the surface area remains the same. (B) As the diameter decreases, the surface area increases. (C) As the diameter decreases, the surface-to-volume ratio increases. (D) As the diameter increases, the volume decreases. (E) The surface-to-volume ratio is independent of the diameter.

54.Which of the following directly produces the most ATP per mole of glucose during aerobic cellular respiration? (A) Glycolosis (B) Electron transport chain and hemiosmosis (C) Substrate-level phosphorylation (D) Kreb's cycle (E) Alcoholic fermentation

55.All of the following could reduce the yield of photosynthetic products EXCEPT (A) lower concentrations of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (B) Increased photorespiration (C) reduced carbon dioxide concentrations in the air spaces of the leaf (D) increased frequency of stomatal openings (E) fewer Calvin cycle enzymes

56.Which of the following is true about the production of polar bodies in humans? (A) It increases genetic variability. (B) It provides the maximum amount of cytoplasm and resources to the ovum. (C) It occurs in male and female vertebrates during meiosis I. (D) It is completed prior to fertilization. (E) It results in nondisjunction.

57.Coat color in mice is determined by genes at two loci. When black mice from a particular population mate, they produce offspring in the following ratios: 9 black : 3 brown : 4 white. These results suggest that white coat color is expressed as a result of (A) dominance (B) incomplete dominance (C) codominance (D) a sex-linked trait (E) epistasis

58.Which of the following can be diagnosed by examining a karyotype of an individual's white blood cells? (A) Sickle cell anemia (B) Alzheimer disease (C) Down syndrome (D) Cystic fibrosis (E) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

59.All of the following are common to C3 and C4 photosynthesis EXCEPT A. photolysis B. Initial step of CO2 fixation C. Cyclic photophosphorylation D. Noncyclic photophosphorylation E. Chemiosmotic phosphorylation

60.In mammals, a decrease in body temperature results in which of the following responses? (A) Release of thyroxine decreases the rate of metabolism. (B) Blood vessels close to the surface of the skin constrict. (C) vessels in deep muscles constrict so Increased secretion of epinephrine restricts the amount of sugar released into the circulatory system. (D) The adrenal glands increase the release of acetylcholine into the circulatory system. (E) Blood that heat is conserved

62.(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction enzyme (E) Reverse transcriptase Enzyme used in the synthesis of mRNA

63.(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction enzyme (E) Reverse transcriptase Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other

64.(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction enzyme (E) Reverse transcriptase Enzyme found in retroviruses that produce DNA from an RNA template

65.(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction enzyme (E) Reverse transcriptase Enzyme used to position nucleotides during DNA replication

66.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently. (A) 0 (B) 1/16 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2 (E) 3/4 Probability that the genotype Aa will be produced by the parents Aa x Aa

67.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently. (A) 0 (B) 1/16 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2 (E) 3/4 Probability that the genotype ccdd will be produced by the parents CcDd x CcDd

68.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently. (A) 0 (B) 1/16 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2 (E) 3/4 Probability that the genotype Rr will be produced by the parents Rr x rr

69.Assume that the alleles referred to all assort independently. (A) 0 (B) 1/16 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2 (E) 3/4 Probability that the genotype TTSs will be produced by the parents TTSs x TtSS

70.(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Nucleic acids (D) Lipids (E) Steroids Synthesized at the ribosome

71.(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Nucleic acids (D) Lipids (E) Steroids Includes glycogen, chitin, cellulose, and glucose

72.(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Nucleic acids (D) Lipids (E) Steroids Used for insulation and buoyancy in marine Arctic animals

73.(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Nucleic acids (D) Lipids (E) Steroids Used to carry the genetic code

74.(A) Echinoderms (B) Annelids (C) Arthropods (D) Cnidarians (coelenterates) (E) Chordates These organisms often have both a polyp form and a medusa form in their life cycle.

75.(A) Echinoderms (B) Annelids (C) Arthropods (D) Cnidarians (coelenterates) (E) Chordates These organisms have pharyngeal gill slits and a dorsal hollow nerve cord at some time in their development.

76.(A) Echinoderms (B) Annelids (C) Arthropods (D) Cnidarians (coelenterates) (E) Chordates These organisms have radial symmetry and a water vascular system and are generally bottom-dwellers.

77.(A) Echinoderms (B) Annelids (C) Arthropods (D) Cnidarians (coelenterates) (E) Chordates These organisms have a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.

78.(A) Cytochrome (B) FADH2 (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ (E) Oxygen (O2) A membrane-bound electron carrier found in the electron transport systems of both aerobic respiration and photosynthesis

79.(A) Cytochrome (B) FADH2 (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ (E) Oxygen (O2) Coenzyme that transfers electrons from the Krebs cycle to the mitochondrial electrontransport chain at a lower energy level than that of electrons entering at the beginning of the chain

80.(A) Cytochrome (B) FADH2 (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ (E) Oxygen (O2) An intermediate electron acceptor for oxidations that occur in both glycolysis and in Krebs cycle reactions

81.(A) Cytochrome (B) FADH2 (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ (E) Oxygen (O2) The final electron acceptor for cellular respiration

82.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test Site of glucose synthesis

83.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test Site of conversion of chemical energy of glucose to ATP

84.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test Site of modification and packaging of proteins and lipids prior to export from the cell

85.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test Site of transport of materials into and out of the cell

86.( There is an image of a cell, You will have to look at your test #82-86) 2002 test Evolved from a photoautotrophic prokaryote

87.(There is an image in your packet #87-89)2002 test Centipedes and millipedes should NOT be placed in group B because they (A) have an exoskeleton (B) display radial symmetry (C) lack a coelom (D) are unsegmented (E) have an endoskeleton

88.(There is an image in your packet #87-89) Which of the following phyla is represented by group E ? (A) Mollusca (B) Cnidaria (Coelenerata) (C) Porifera (D) Chordata (E) Annelida

89.(There is an image in your packet #87-89)2002 test Clam, octopus, and oyster and classified in which group. (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

90.In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into encapsulated forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an extract made from dead encapsulated cells. The transformed cells produced colonies of encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are outlined below. Procedure I: Exact made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow. Procedure II: Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes before adding exact to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow. Procedure III: Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that selectively destroys DNA) before adding extract to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow. A reasonable conclusion to draw from the results of the experiment is that (A) DNA is the genetic material (B) DNA replication is semiconservative (C) DNA is a double helix (D) DNA is translated into protein (E) Mutation is a change in the genetic material

91.In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into encapsulated forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an extract made from dead encapsulated cells. The transformed cells produced colonies of encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are outlined below. Procedure I: Exact made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow. Procedure II: Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes before adding exact to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow. Procedure III: Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that selectively destroys DNA) before adding extract to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow. What was the purpose of treating the extract with protein-degrading enzymes in Procedure II ? (A) To demonstrate that the transforming factor is an enzyme (B) To demonstrate that the transforming factor is not a protein (C) To destroy nucleic acids in the exact (D) To destroy any capsules in the exact (E) To prevent the extract from being contaminated by nonencapsulated bacteria

92.In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into encapsulated forms by growing the nonencapsulated cells in a culture containing an extract made from dead encapsulated cells. The transformed cells produced colonies of encapsulated bacteria. Three different procedures and their results are outlined below. Procedure I: Exact made from dead encapsulated cells added to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow. Procedure II: Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with protein-degrading enzymes before adding exact to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Both nonencapsulated and encapsulated bacteria grow. Procedure III: Extract made from dead encapsulated cells treated with DNAse (an enzyme that selectively destroys DNA) before adding extract to culture medium. Nonencapsulated bacteria added to culture medium. Results: Only nonencapsulated bacteria grow. What was the purpose of treating the extract with DNAse in Procedure III ? (A) To remove the encapsulated bacteria from the extract (B) To serve as a positive control by demonstrating that a protein in the extract is the transforming factor (C) To serve as a negative control by demonstrating that transformation does not occur without DNA (D) To destroy any enzymes in the extract (E) To destroy any capsules that might be in the extract

93.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test Based solely on the curve, what can be said concerning the calculated reaction rates at 1 minute and at 2 minutes? (A) The rate after 2 minutes is greater than the rate after 1 minute. (B) The rates are the same at 1 minute and at 2 minutes. (C) The rates are affected by high concentrations of inhibitors. (D) The rates are both zero. (E) The greater the rate, the faster the enzyme is denatured

94.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test The rate of the reaction could also be determined by (A) measuring the change in the amount of enzyme (B) measuring the change in the amount of substrate (C) measuring the change in salt concentration (D) adding more substrate (E) adding more enzyme

95.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test What is the most likely explanation for the change in the slope of the line between 3 and 5 minutes? (A) The enzyme had denatured. (B) The enzyme had achieved its maximum velocity. (C) A large amount of the substrate had been consumed. (D) An allosteric inhibitor appeared. (E) There was a dramatic change in the pH.

96.A scientist determined the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by measuring the amount of product formed over time. The following curve was generated from the data collected. (There is an image in your packet #93-96) 2002 test During which time interval is the reaction rate lowest? (A) 0-1minute (B) 1-2 minutes (C) 2-3 minutes (D) 3-4 minutes (E) 4-5 minutes

97.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test Based on graphs I and II, which of the following is the best conclusion that can be reached? (A) Decreases in leaf water potential are caused by increased transpiration. (B) The increased rate of transpiration increase leaf water potential. (C) The flow of water through the stem has no effect on leaf water potential. (D) Leaf stomata are closed at 10 A.M. (E) Water is most likely to flow into the leaf at 4 A.M.

98.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test In this experiment, water flow up the stem could be measured in which of the following structures? (A) Phloem (B) Xylem (C) Lenticels (D) Stomata (E) Casparian strip

99.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test What can be deduced from Graph I? (A) The rate of transpiration is constant throughout this 24-hour period. (B) There is no correlation between the rate of transpiration and the flow of water through the stem. (C) The maximal flow of water through the stem lags behind the maximal rate of transpiration. (D) The rate of transpiration never reaches zero. (E) At noon, the rate of transpiration exceeds the rate of water flow through a stem.

100.The rate of transpiration, the flow of water through the stem, and leaf water potential are measured in a tree during a 24-hour period under normal environmental conditions. The results from these measurements are shown in the graphs below. (There is an image in your packet #97-100) 2002 test All of the following changes would be likely to decrease the rate of transpiration at 8 A.M. EXCEPT (A) causing the stomata to close (B) increasing the humidity of the atmosphere (C) increasing the water potential of the atmosphere (D) increasing the water potential of the soil (E) placing the plant in total darkness

101.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test Which of the following factors affecting the hydrologic cycle would have the LEAST impact on calcium loss from the disturbed watershed? (A) Total precipitation (B) Surface runoff (C) Evaporation (D) Transpiration (E) Porosity of soil

102.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test Based on the graph, which of the following best describes why losses of calcium did not occur immediately in the deforested watershed? (A) It takes months to leach calcium from the soil. (B) Other minerals were more soluble and were leached out first. (C) The deforestation occurred during the winter when runoff was low. (D) Calcium is hard to detect in small amounts. (E) Leaves do not appear on deciduous trees until the spring.

103.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test To estimate the total amount of calcium lost annually by each of the two watersheds, it would be most useful to measure which of the following variables? (A) Average daily temperature in each watershed (B) Daily precipitation falling on each watershed (C) Volume of water flowing out of each watershed each day (D) Concentration of other ions in the soil of each watershed before and after deforestation (E) Amount of calcium present in the precipitation falling on each watershed

104.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test To estimate the total amount of calcium lost annually by each of the two watersheds, it would be most useful to measure which of the following variables? (A) It occurs in no predictable pattern. (B) It increases with time. (C) It is at a peak when temperatures are highest. (D) It appears to be correlated with the seasons. (E) It increases after each application of herbicide

105.In an experiment on the effects of deforestation of a portion of a northern temperate deciduous forest, all the trees were removed from a small mountainside watershed area and herbicides were applied for three years to prevent regrowth. Measurements of the concentration of calcium (an important nutrient) in runoff water were taken both before and after the deforestation. Monthly measurements also were made in a similar watershed in another part of the same forest that had been left undisturbed. The findings are displayed in the graph below. (There is an image in your packet #101-105) 2002 test What can be inferred from the data in the graph about the loss of calcium in the deforested watershed? Which of the following is best supported by the data? (A) Deforestation does not change the amount of water flowing through a watershed. (B) The time of year during which deforestation occurs has no impact on the negative effects related to it. (C) The loss of calcium affects several other variables in the forest ecosystem. (D) Calcium loss can be rated as the most damaging aspect of mountainside deforestation. (E) The presence or absence of plants greatly affects the loss of calcium from the soil

106.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below. In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test During which of the following time periods could the population have been in HardyWeinberg equilibrium for the G locus? I. 1960-1964 II. 1965-1972 III. 1973-1980 (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III

107.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below. In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus, what percentage of moths in the natural population was white in 1962? (A) 2% (B) 4% (C) 8% (D) 20% (E) 64%

108.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below. In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus, what percentage of the gray moths that emerged in 1980 was heterozygous? (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 33% (D) 67% (E) 100%

109.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below. In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus, what was the frequency of allele G in the gray moths that emerged in 1980? (A) 0.33 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.67 (D) 0.75 (E) 1.00

110.A moth's color is controlled by two alleles, G and g, at a single locus. G (gray) is dominant to g (white). A large population of moths was studied, and the frequency of the G allele in the population over time was documented, as shown in the figure below. In 1980 a random sample of 2,000 pupae was collected and moths were allowed to emerge. (There is an image in your packet #106-110) 2002 test Which of the following is the most likely reason for the observed differences in the frequency of the G allele between 1965 and 1972? (A) Emigration of white moths from the population (B) Chance (C) Selection against gray phenotypes (D) Speciation (E) Mutation

111.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. The rate of migration of the DNA fragments through the agarose gel is determined by the (A) ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment (B) presence of hydrogen bonds between base pairs (C) length of time the electrophoresis unit is allowed to operate (D) number of nucleotides in the fragment (E) volume of the starting sample

112.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. Which of the following is true of the dye used to stain the fragments? (A) It increases the contrast between the agar and the DNA fragments. (B) It must be accounted for when calculating the molecular weight of the fragments. (C) Its charged areas interfere with the migration of the DNA. (D) It is bonded only to the sticky ends of the fragments and can directly determine the sequence of the DNA fragments. (E) It gives a three-dimensional view of the structure of the DNA fragments.

113.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. The type and density of the gel are important because (A) they influence the rate of migration of the fragments (B) they may cause some DNA molecules to replicate (C) some DNA nucleotides may be lost due to chemical reactions with the gel (D) some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom and not migrate (E) some DNA molecules may cross-link

114.A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. The procedures described can be used to do all of the following EXCEPT (A) isolate and purify certain DNA fragments (B) synthesize novel DNA molecules (C) study the activity of restriction enzymes (D) calculate the size of DNA fragments (E) identify the source of DNA material

115.There is an image in your packet # 115-117 2002 test Which of the following occurs in the tissue that is placed in 0.6 M sucrose? A) The cells become turgid. (B) The cells burst. (C) The volume of the vacuoles decreases. (D) The volume of the cytoplasm increases. (E) The cells remain the same as before.

116.There is an image in your packet # 115-117 2002 test The approximate molarity of the solution in which the mass of the plant pieces would not change is (A) 0.01 M (B) 0.1 M (C) 0.3 M (D) 0.5 M (E) 0.7 M

117.There is an image in your packet # 115-117 2002 test Water enters and leaves the plant cells primarily by (A) endocytosis (B) phagocytosis (C) osmosis (D) active transport (E) facilitated diffusion

118.There is a table in your packet #118-120 2002 test A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below. The best explanation for the red-eyed F1 females is A) mutation (B) culture contamination (C) dominance (D) multiple loci (E) sex-influenced traits

119.There is a table in your packet #118-120 2002 test A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below. There are white-eyed females in the F2 generation because (A) white is a dominant allele (B) the white allele is autosomal (C) a mutation has occurred (D) these F2 females have two white alleles (E) the white allele is located on the Y chromosome

120.There is a table in your packet #118-120 2002 test A culture of white-eyed fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) was maintained for many generations. Females from the stock white-eyed culture were crossed with red-eyed (wild-type) males. The F1 females were crossed with the white-eyed males from the original culture. The resulting phenotypes of the progeny are summarized below. Which of the following best describes the mode of inheritance of eye color in the white culture? (A) Autosomal (B) Dominant (C) Located on the Y chromosome (D) Sex-linked (E) Lethal

47.Which of the following characteristics is common to all vascular plants that exhibit an alternation of generations in their life cycle? A. large, independent gametophytes B. multicellular sporophytes C. Fertilization in water D. diploid spores E. Seed production

48.The rate of flow of water through the xylem is regulated by A. passive transport by the pith B. The force of transpirational pull C. the number of companion cells in the phloem D. active transport by the sieve tube members E. active transport by tracheid and vessel cells

49.Which of the following pathways for the transformation of cellular energy most likely evolved first? A. Cyclic photophosphorylation B. Citric acid cycle C. Calvin cycle D. C4 photosynthesis E. Glycolysis

50.Gibberellic acid stimulates the cells of germinating grass seeds to produce mRNA molecules that code for hydrolytic enzymes. In this case the role of gibberellic acid can best be described as that of A. a regulator of gene activity B. a stimulator of hydrolase secretion C. a stimulator of DNA replication D. an allosteric activator of hydrolase E. an activator of translation

51.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a high rate of crossing-over between two genes? A. The two genes are far apart on the same chromosome. B. The two genes are both located near the centromere C. The two genes are sex-linked D. The two genes code for the same protein E. The two genes are on different chromosomes

52.On a sunny day, the closing of stomata in plant leaves results in A. a decrease in CO2 intake B. a shift from C3 photosynthesis to C4 C. an increase in transpiration D. an increase in the concentration of CO2 in mesophyll cells E. an increase in the rate of production of starch

53.Which of the following principles is NOT part of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? A. Evolution is a gradual process that occurs over long periods of time B. Variation occurs among individuals in a population C. Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic variation D. More individuals are born than will survive E. Individuals that possess the most favorable variations have the best chance of reproducing

54.In certain Native American groups, albinism due to a homozygous recessive condition in the biochemical pathway for melanin is sometimes seen. If the frequency of the allele for this condition is 0.06, which of the following is closest to the frequency of the dominant allele in this population? A. 0.04 B. 0.06 C. 0.16 D. 0.36 E. 0.94

55.A biologist isolates numerous tiny, green pigment cells from a sample of lake water. The cells are covered with a mucilaginous sheath. They contain relatively large amounts of chlorophyll a and phycobilin pigments and lack a compact, organized nucleus. Electron microscopy will reveal that these cells are also contain which of the following pairs of subcellular structures? A. Ribosomes and chloroplasts B. Ribosomes and mitochondria C. Golgi bodies and a cell wall D. Thylakoids and a cell wall E. Chloroplasts and mitochondria

56.See diagram question 56 1999 test In the pedigree above, squares represent males and circles represent females. Individuals who express a particular trait are represented by shaded figures. Which of the following patterns of inhertiance best explains the transmission of the trait? A. Sex-linked dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant E. Incompletely dominant

57.Which of the following is an example of active transport across a membrane? A. The movement of water from a nephron into the collecting duct of the kidney B. The movement of glucose by facilitated diffusion into a liver cell C. The movement of water from the inside of a cell into a surrounding hypertonic medium D. The movement of Na+ into a neuron as a nerve impulse is generated E. The movement of H+ into a thylakoid disc during photosynthesis

58.Which of the following is the most direct result of the presence of acid chyme in the smalle intestine? A. the liver produces insulin B. The pancreas produces hydrolytic enzymes C. the stomach produces pepsin D. The intestinal lining produces the hormone secretin E. The gall bladder releases bile

59.Many parasitic flatworms have an intermediate host. This indicates that the A. flatworms cannot infect human B. larval flatworms infect one species, where as adults infect another species C. larval flatworms infect only juveniles of a species D. flatworm adults are microscopic E. flatworm larvae are parasitic on their parents

60.Red algae can grow at greater ocean depths than most other algae can because red algae are A. specialized for absorbing red wavelengths of light for photosynthesis B. specialized for absorbing ultraviolet wavelengths of light for photosynthesis C. specialized for absorbing blue wavelengths of light for photosynthesis D. unable to use chlorophyll for photosynthesis E. adapted for chemosynthesis, rather than photosynthesis

61.Which of the following cellular processes is coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Active transport C. Chemiosmosis D. Osmosis E. Na+ influx into a nerve cell

63.Which of the following cells would most likely hav the greatest concentration of densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum? A. An amoeba engulfing small ciliates B. A bioluminescent bacterial cell C. A pancreatic cell engaged in the production of digestive enzymes D. A functional phloem cell at maturity E. An epithelial cell whose DNA is replicating before mitosis

64.In which of the following pairs are the organisms most closely related taxonomically? A. mushroom...oak tree B. spider...crayfish C. Bacterium ... paramecium D. Sea star..clam E. rosebush..diatom

65.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed. Represents the activation energy of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction

66.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed. Represents the net energy change of the reaction

67.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed. Represents the energy state of the products of the enzyme-catalyzed pathway

68.Questions 65-67 refer to you graph in the 1999 test. The solid curve and the sashed curve represent alternate pathways for the same reaction. One pathway is enzyme catalyzed. Represents the energy state of the products of the pathway that is not enzyme-catalyzed

69.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction. Root meristem

70.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction. Male gametophyte

71.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction. Triploid nutritive tissue

72.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction. Seed coat

73.Question 69-73 refer to the image in your packet of the 1999 test of angiosperm reproduction. Apical meristem of the shoot

74.(A) testis (B) Lining of small intestine (C) Anterior pituitary (D) thyroid (E) pancreas Releases hormones that control blood sugar levels by stimulating glycogen formation or breakdown

75.(A) testis (B) Lining of small intestine (C) Anterior pituitary (D) thyroid (E) pancreas Secretes steroid hormones that affect secondary sex characteristics

76.(A) testis (B) Lining of small intestine (C) Anterior pituitary (D) thyroid (E) pancreas Releases hormones that increase the rate of cellular respiration throughout the body

77.(A) testis (B) Lining of small intestine (C) Anterior pituitary (D) thyroid (E) pancreas Secretes the hormones FSH and LH, which control ovulation

78.(A) deciduous forest (B) Tropical rain forest (C) Desert (D) Tundra (E) Taiga Long, cold, moist winters and short summers are typical of this biome dominated by gymnosperms

79.(A) deciduous forest (B) Tropical rain forest (C) Desert (D) Tundra (E) Taiga A prolonged, relatively mild period with ample precipitation alternates with a cold period when plants become dormant

80.(A) deciduous forest (B) Tropical rain forest (C) Desert (D) Tundra (E) Taiga This biome has the greatest diversity of species

81.(A) deciduous forest (B) Tropical rain forest (C) Desert (D) Tundra (E) Taiga This biome is dominated by dwarf shrubs, grasses, and sedes that can tolerate long dark winters

82.A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis E. Chemiosmosis Process in which O2 is released as a by-product of oxidation-reduction reactions

83.A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis E. Chemiosmosis Process in which CO2 is released as a by product of oxidation-reduction reactions

84.A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis E. Chemiosmosis Process in which carbon from CO2 is incorporated into organic molecules

85.A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis E. Chemiosmosis Process found in both photosynthesis and cellular respiration

86.A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis E. Chemiosmosis Process in which sugar is oxidized to pyruvic acid

87.A. Annelida B. Mollusca C. Arthropoda D. Echinodermata E. Chordata Bilaterally symmetrical; deuterostome; dorsal hollow nerve cord

88.A. Annelida B. Mollusca C. Arthropoda D. Echinodermata E. Chordata Coelomate; exoskeleton; jointed appendages

89.A. Annelida B. Mollusca C. Arthropoda D. Echinodermata E. Chordata Pharyngeal slits; endoskeleton derived from mesoderm; ventral heat

90.A. Annelida B. Mollusca C. Arthropoda D. Echinodermata E. Chordata Internal calcareous skeleton; deuterostome; water-vascular system

91.A. Annelida B. Mollusca C. Arthropoda D. Echinodermata E. Chordata Closed circulatory system; protostome; many body segments

92.A. transcription B. Translation C. Transformation D. Replication E. Reverse transcription Process in which a protein is assembled at a ribosome

93.A. transcription B. Translation C. Transformation D. Replication E. Reverse transcription Process in which naked DNA is taken up by a bacterial or yeast Cell

94.A. transcription B. Translation C. Transformation D. Replication E. Reverse transcription Process that results in the prodcution of cDNA from an RNA molecule

95.A. transcription B. Translation C. Transformation D. Replication E. Reverse transcription Process in which RNA is produced by using a DNA

96.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test. If no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 5 and 6 only D. 4, 5 and 6 only E. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

97.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test. The scientist used restriction enzymes for what purpose in the experiment? A. To make the plasmid small enough to transform cells B. To make cuts in the plasmid DNA C. To make the plasmid enter the cells D. To enable the fragments of DNA to form covalent bonds E. To enable the plasmid to recognize the bacterial cells

98.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test. If the scientist had forgotten to use DNA ligase during the preparation of the recombinant plasmid, bacterial growth would most likely have occurred on which of the following? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only E. 4,5 and 6 only

100.Tissue/Stain Brain/Red Notochord/Yellow Liver/ Green Lens of the eye/ Blue Lining of the digestive tract / Purple Ectoderm would eventually give rise to tissues containing which of the following colors? A. red and blue B. Yellow and purple C. Green and red D. Green and yellow E. Purple and green

101.Tissue/Stain Brain/Red Notochord/Yellow Liver/ Green Lens of the eye/ Blue Lining of the digestive tract / Purple Tissues stained with the purple dye were probably derived from A. the ectoderm only B. The mesoderm only C. The endoderm only D. both the ectoderm and the mesoderm E. Both the endoderm and the mesoderm

102.refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B The father must have which of the following blood types? A. AB only B. Either AB or B C. Either AB or O D. Either AB or A E. AB or A or O

103.refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B If the father has blood type AB, which of the following statements is correct about the mother? A. She contributes an IB allele, which is recessive to the father's IA allele B. She contributes an i allele, which is recessive to the father's IA allele C. She contributes an IB allele, which is codominant to the father's IA allele D. She contributes an i allele, which is codominant to the father's IB allele E. She is homozygous for the IB allele.

104.Please refer to questions 104-106 in the 1999 test The most accurate conclusion to be drawn solely from the graphs is that A. adult fish of this species are found more frequently in water at 22C than are juveniles B. fish of this species are found most frequently in water at 20C C. the optimum water temperature for fish of this species is 25C D. the oxygen content of cool water is higher than that of warm water E. The oxygen content of warm water is higher than that of cool water

105.Please refer to questions 104-106 in the 1999 test Which of the following statements about the results is true? A. They are invalid, because the data show too much variation B. They are invalid, because part of the experiment was not done in the laboratory C. They are inconclusive, because too few fish were used. D. They are inaccurate, because tanks with temperature gradients were used E. They are improperly graphed, because the dependent variable is on the horizontal axis

106.Please refer to questions 104-106 in the 1999 test The purpose of the study is most likely to A. determine the water temperature at which fish of this species spawn B. determine the role of fish of this species in the ecosystem C. show the juveniles occur in smaller numbers than do adults of this species D. demonstrate the effects of adult fish of this species on water temperature E. Study the relationship between water temperature and habitat selection in fish of this species

107.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test Which of the following can be correctly concluded about the relationship between intestinal length and body size for the organisms in the table? A. Carnivores have greater intestinal length relative to body size than do herbivores B. Herbivores have greater intestinal length relative to body size than do carnivores C. Omnivores have greater intestinal length relative to body size, the more nutrients are absorbed. D. THe smaller the intestinal length relative to body size, the more nutrients are absorbed E. No relationship exists between intestinal length and mode of nutrition

108.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test Which of the animals is most likely to have living in specialized areas of its digestive tract, abundant symbiotic bacteria that break down foods that the animal normally could not digest on its own? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

109.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test Which animals has a gastrovascular cavity? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

110.Please refer to the table for question 107-110 in the 1999 test Which animal is most efficient in absorbing the food it consumes? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

111.Please refer to diagram for question 111-113 1999 test The electrophoretic separation of the pieces of DNA in each of the four samples was achieved because of differential migration of the DNA fragments in an electric field. This differential migration was caused by the A. relative amounts of radioactivity in the DNA B. number of cleavage points per fragment C. size of each fragment D. overall positive charge of each fragment E. solubility of each fragment

112.Please refer to diagram for question 111-113 1999 test The DNA was labeled with 32P in order to A. stimulate DNA replication B. inhibit the uptake of unlabeled ATP C. show which fragments included the 5' end and which fragments included the 3' end D. visualize the fragments E. speed up the rate of separation by electrophoresis

113.Please refer to diagram for question 111-113 1999 test Which of the following is an additional use of the gel electrophoresis technique? A. To express a gene B. to separate proteins in a mixture C. to ligate DNA fragments D. to transform E. coli E. To amplify genes

114.Please refer to image for questions 114-116 1999 test From the initial conditions and results described, which of the following is a logical conclusion? A. The initial concentration of glucose in the bag is higher than the initial concentration of starch in the bag B. The pores of the bag are larger than the glucose molecules but smaller than the starch molecules C. The bag is not selectively permeable D. A net movement of water into the beaker has occurred E. The molarity of the solution in the bag and the molarity of the solution in the surrounding beaker are the same

115.Please refer to image for questions 114-116 1999 test Which of the following best describes the condition expected after 24 hours? A. the bag will contain more water than it did in the original condition B. The contents of the bag will have the same osmotic concentration as the surrounding solution C. Water potential in the bag will be greater than water potential in the surrounding solution D. Starch molecules will continue to pass through the bag E. A glucose test on the solution in the bag will be negative

116.Please refer to image for questions 114-116 1999 test If, instead of the bag a potato slice were placed in the beaker of distilled water, which of the following would be true of the potato slice? A. it would gain mass B. it would neither gain nor lose mass C. It would absorb solutes from the surrounding liquid D. It would lose water until water potential inside the cells is equal to zero E. The cells of the potato would increase their metabolic activity

117.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test The type of population growth represented by the portion of the graph line enclosed in the bracket is most accurately termed A. stable B. exponential C. Density-dependent D. arithmetic E. decelerating

118.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test The graph indicates that the sheep population most likely is A. growing in excess of its carrying capacity since fluctuations in population size occurred after 1850 B. Headed for extinction because of the population explosion about 1930 C. regulated by density-independent factors, because there appears to be about a 10-year cycle of sharp declines in size D. Shifting from a K-selected strategy to an r-selected strategy E. stable after 1850 under the effects of density-dependent regulating factors

119.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test The dashed line on the graph represents the A. maximum population size B. average birth rate C. biotic potential of the population D. carrying capacity of the environment E. point of maximum effect for density independent factors

120.Question 117-120 refer to the graph in the 1999 test In the graphs below, the solid line represents the original population. The dotted line on which graph vest represent the sheep population that would have resulted from a sustained increase in the primary productivity of the environment? A. graph 1 B. graph 2 C. graph 3 D. graph 4 E. graph 5

99.Questions 96-99 there is an image in your packet please view the 1999 test. If the scientist used the cultures to perform another experiment as shown above, using medium that contained lactose as the only energy source, growth would most likely occur on which of the following plates? A. 10 only B. 7 and 8 only C. 7 and 9 only D. 8 and 10 only E. 9 and 10 only