Factors to consider when selecting equipment and supplies (5).

1. Type & volume of records 2. Degree of required protection 3. Efficiency & ease of use of equipment & supplies 4. Space considerations 5. Cost More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/records-management-chapters-6-7/

The autoclave uses ___ under ____ to sterilize equipment and supplies. It will destroy all ____, both ___ and ___, including ____ and ____

Steam Pressure Gas Mixer organisms Pathogenic Nonpathogenic Spores Viruses More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sterlization-with-autoclave/

The autoclave uses _______ under ________ or ________ to sterilize equipment and supplies. It will destroy all _______ , both _______ and ________ , including ________ and __________.

Steam; Pressure; Gas; Microorganisms; Pathogenic; Nonpathogenic; Spores; Viruses More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-145-sterilizing-with-an-autoclave/

Which of the following is a graphic project report used in project management? A. Project proposal B. Approved project plan C. Humphrey chart D. Equipment and supplies chart E. Cost and performance tracking schedule

e More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/project-management-multiple-choice/

This report must detail the following: Facts, based upon, but not limited to: The number of real estate fraud cases filed in the prior year; The number of real estate fraud cases investigated in the prior year; The number of victims involved in the cases filed; The number of convictions obtained in the prior year; and The total aggregated monetary loss suffered by victims, including individuals, associations, institutions, corporations, and other relevant public entities, according to the number of cases filed, investigations, prosecutions, and convictions obtained; AND An accounting of funds received and expended in the prior year, including: The amount of funds received and expended; The uses to which those funds were put, including payment of salaries and expenses, purchase of equipment and supplies, and other expenditures by type; The number of filed complaints, investigations, prosecutions, and convictions that resulted from the expenditure of funds; AND Other relevant information provided at the district attorney’s discretion.

Legislature’s intent in setting forth so many rules through its enactment of this section is to have an impact on real estate fraud involving the largest number of victims. Under this section, it has further been set forth that “to the extent possible,” an emphasis should be placed on fraud against those individuals whose residences are in foreclosure, OR are in danger of foreclosure. Case filing decisions continue to be at the discretion of the prosecutor. The Government Code also notes that a district attorney’s office or a local enforcement agency that has undertaken investigations and prosecutions that will continue into the FOLLOWING program year is allowed to receive those funds from the previous fiscal year that were not previously spent. This is provided AFTER the annual report of information detailing the accounting of funds received and expended in the prior year has been submitted. Under this law, NONE of the monies collected under this section may be used in ANY WAY to offset a reduction in ANY OTHER SOURCE of funds. Real Estate Fraud Prosecution Trust Fund monies MUST ONLY BE USED in connection with criminal investigations or prosecutions involving recorded real estate documents. Many counties in California have already enacted laws within their county providing for the Real Estate Fraud Protection Trust Fund. You can find out if your county of real estate practice is one of those with a Real Estate Fraud Protection Trust Fund by checking with the county government or recorded legislation, or by searching online. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/california-law-updates-40286/

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Equipment And Supplies Nursing

IV Therapy (ATI Chapter 49) – Flashcards 55 terms

Tony Foust

55 terms

Preview

IV Therapy (ATI Chapter 49) – Flashcards

question

Large volume IV infusions are administered on a

answer

continuous basis

question

Advantages of IV therapy

answer

-rapid absorption -maintains consistent TL -Less irritation to SubQ and muscle tissue

question

Disadvantages of IV therapy

answer

-Circulatory fluid overload is possible -Immediate absorption leaves no time to correct errors -Solution and IV catheter can cause irritation to lining of vein -Failure to maintain surgical asepsis can lead to local infection or septicemia

question

A fluid bolus is a large amount of IV fluid given in a

answer

short period of time, usually less than 1 hr.

question

A fluid bolus is given to rapidly

answer

replace fluid loss that could be caused by dehydration, shock, burns, hemorrhage, or trauma

question

To maintain a rapid rate that is necessary to give a fluid bolus to an adult, a size

answer

18 gauge or larger is needed

question

This medication can cause serious adverse reactions and should be infused on an IV pump for accurate dosage control. It should never be administered by IV bolus

answer

Potassium chloride

question

Never administer IV meds through tubing that is infusing

answer

blood, blood products, or parenteral nutritional supplements

question

Special considerations (SC) for older adult clients, clients taking anticoagulants, or clients who have fragile veins

answer

-avoid tourniquets -use BP cuff instead -do not slap extremity to visualize veins -avoid rigorous friction when cleaning site

question

SC for edema

answer

-apply digital pressure over selected vein to displace edema -apply pressure with swab of cleaning solution -Cannulation must be quick

question

Preventing IV infections includes the following

answer

question

Change IV sites

answer

usually 72 hours (according to policy)

question

Change continuous infusion tubing no more frequently than every

answer

96 hours

question

Change intermittent infusion tubing every

answer

24 hours (according to policy)

question

Change cath when

answer

there is any break in surgical aseptic technique (emergency insertions)

question

Use a __ needle/cath for each insertion attempt

answer

Sterile

question

Fluids should not be hung for any longer than

answer

24 hours unless it is a closed system (pressure bags for hemodynamic monitoring)

question

Before connecting IV lines or inserting a syringe, you should wipe all ports with

answer

alcohol or antiseptic swab.

question

For trauma clients and rapid fluid volume use

answer

16 gauge

question

For surgical clients and rapid blood admin use

answer

18 gauge

question

For all other clients (children and adults) use

answer

22-24 gauge

question

If hair removal is needed use

answer

scissors or an electric shaver

question

Apply a clean tourniquet or BP cuff__ inches above proposed insertion site to___

answer

1. 4-6 inches 2. compress only venous blood flow

question

Select vein by choosing:

answer

-distal veins first on nondominant hand -vein that is resilient with a soft, bouncy sensation when palpated

question

Additional methods to enhance venous access include:

answer

-gravity -fist clenching -friction with cleaning solution -heat

question

Avoid veins that

answer

-are permanently dilated and tortuous -are in inner wrist with bifurcations, flexion areas, near valves (appearing as bumps), lower extremities, antecubital fossa -back of hand -sclerosed or hard -in extremity with impaired sensation (scar/paralysis), lymph nodes removed, recent infiltration, PICC line, or arteriovenous fistula/graft

question

Allow cleaning agent to ___ after cleaning site

answer

air dry for 1-2 minutes

question

Insert catheter with the bevel

answer

up at an angle of 10-30

question

Flashback of ___ will confirm placement in vein

answer

blood

question

Lower the hub to the cath close to the skin to prepare for ____ it into the ___ approximately ___. Loosen the ___ and ____ slightly so that it no longer ____ past the tip of the cath. Use the thumb and ____ finger to ____ cath into the ___ until the hub ____ ____ the insertion site.

answer

1. threading, vein, .25 in 2. needle from the catheter, pull back, extends 3. index, advance, vein, rests against

question

Now is the time to ___ the IV cath with one hand and remove the ____ with the other.

answer

1. stabilize 2. Tourniquet or BP cuff

question

Apply pressure ____ above insertion site with middle finger and ____ catheter with the index finger

answer

1. 1.25 inches (3 cm) 2. stabilize

question

Avoid _____ with tape, and taping ____

answer

1. encircling the entire extremity 2. under sterile dressing

question

Flush intermittent IV catheters with appropriate solution after every ____ or every ____ when not in use

answer

1. medication administration 2. 8-12 hours (according to policy)

question

Monitor site and infusion rate at least every

answer

hour

question

When DC IV therapy,

answer

-do not use alcohol to apply pressure to vein -pull catheter straight back from site keeping hub parallel to skin -elevate extremity and apply pressure for 2-3 minutes

question

Complications

answer

question

Infiltration or extravasation

answer

-pallor, local swelling at the site, decreased skin temp around site, damp dressing, slowed rate of infusion

question

answer

-stop infusion and remove cath -elevate extremity -apply warm/cold compress (depends on solution) -restart IV proximal to site or in another extremity -Encourage AROM

question

Prevention of Infiltration or extravasation

answer

carefully select site and cath. Secure cath

question

Phlebitis/thrombophlebitis findings

answer

-edema, throbbing/burning or pain at site, increased skin temp, erythema, red line up arm with a palpable band at vein site, slowed rate of infuison

question

answer

-DC promptly and remove cath -elevate extremity -apply warm compresses 3-4 x/day -restart infusion proximal or other extremity -culture site and cath if drainage is present

question

Prevention of phlebitis

answer

-rotate site every 72 hours -avoid lower extremities -use hand hygiene -surgical aseptic technique

question

Hematoma findings

answer

-ecchymosis at site

question

answer

-DO NOT apply alcohol -apply pressure after IV cath removal -Use warm compress and elevate after bleeding stops

question

Prevention of hematoma

answer

-minimize tourniquet times -remove tourniquet before starting infusion -maintain pressure after IV cath removal

question

Fluid overload findings

answer

-distended neck veins -high BP -tachy -SOB -crackles -edema

question

answer

-stop infusion -raise head of bed -Vital signs and O2 sat -adjust rate administer diuretics

question

Fluid overload prevention

answer

-use an infusion pump -Monitor I and O

question

Cellulitis findings

answer

-pain -warmth -edema -induration -red streaking -fever/chills -malaise

question

answer

-DC and remove cath -elevate -apply warm compress 3-4 x/day -obtain specimen for culture Administer: ABX, analgesics, antipyretic

question

Cellulitis prevention

answer

-rotate site q 72 hrs -avoid lower extremities -use hand hygiene use surgical aseptic technique

question

Catheter embolus findings

answer

-missing cath tip severe pain at site w/ migration -absence of findings if no migration

question

answer

-place tourniquet high on extremity to limit venous flow -Prepare for removal under x-ray or via surgery -save cath after removal

question

Cath embolus prevention

answer

-do not reinsert stylet into cath

STUDY

Emergency Medical Services Equipment And Supplies First Aid Physical Fitness The Body

Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid – Flashcards 43 terms

Ray Collins

43 terms

Preview

Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid – Flashcards

question

Burn

answer

injury to tissues caused by exposure to thermal, chemical, electrical, or radioactive agents.

question

Crash Cart

answer

a specially equipped cart for holding and transporting medications, equipment, and supplies needed for lifesaving procedures in an emergency.

question

Crepitus

answer

A grating sensation created by fractured bone,bone fragments rubbing against each other.

question

Dislocation

answer

An injury in which one end of the bone making up a joint is separated or displaced from its normal anatomic position.

question

EMS System

answer

network of community resources,equipment, and personnel that provides care to victims of injury or sudden illness.

question

fracture (Fx)

answer

any break in a bone

question

hypothermia

answer

life threatening condition in which the body temperature falls dangerously low

question

poison

answer

any substance that causes injury,illness, or death if it enters the body

question

pressure point

answer

a site on the body where an artery lies close to the surface of the skin and can be compressed against an underlying bone to control bleeding

question

seizure

answer

a sudden episode of involuntary muscle contractions and relaxation, often accompanied by changes in sensation,behavior, and level of consciousness.

question

shock

answer

the failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough blood to all of the vital organs of the body

question

splint

answer

any device that immobilizes a body part

question

sprain

answer

trauma to a joint that causes tearing of ligaments

question

strain

answer

a stretching or tearing of muscles or tendons caused by trauma

question

wound

answer

a break in the continuity of an external or internal surface, caused by physical means.

question

Heart Attack

answer

Myocardial Infarction; obstruction of coronary arteries or branches; severity characterized by amount of muscle tissue nourished by blocked artery

question

MI symptoms

answer

chest pain and radiation to jaw,shoulders,and arms (angina) SOB diaphoretic syncope

question

Tx for MI

answer

Nitroglycerin 1 SL q 5 min X3 fizzes and causes headache,works as vasodialator, monitor BP for decrease. Do NOT provide anti-coagulates if victim has bleeding

question

CVA

answer

Stroke

question

Stroke SX/SY

answer

Face droop Arm downward drift Speech slurred Time to call 911 also confussion,dizziness, severe headache, LOC

question

LOC

answer

loss of consciousness

question

Hypovolemic Shock

answer

loss of blood or fluids

question

Cardiogenic Shock

answer

failure to pump blood to vital organs

question

Neurogenic Shock

answer

nervous system unable to control diameter of blood vessels BP drops significantly.

question

Anaphylactic Shock

answer

life threatening reaction to allergen

question

Psychogenic Shock

answer

causes syncope

question

Insulin Shock

answer

hypoglycemia; needs sugar immediately experiences excess insulin

question

capillary bleeding

answer

slow oozing and bright red

question

venous bleeding

answer

slow, study and dark red

question

arterial bleeding

answer

spurts in dark red

question

epistaxis

answer

nosebleed

question

aspiration

answer

breathing in anything else other than air

question

diabetic coma

answer

needs insulin and admit to emergency room

question

internal bleeding sx

answer

rapid weak pulse; bruises,pain tenderness, swelling at the sit, cold clammy skin,nausea and emesis, excess thirst , low BP, decreased consciousness

question

TDAP vaccine

answer

prevents tetanus,diphtheria, and pertussis. TD boosts against tetanus and pertussis.

question

cyanosis

answer

low O2

question

contusion

answer

bruise

question

syncope

answer

fainting

question

encephalitis

answer

brain inflammation, maybe related to seizure

question

postictal state

answer

follows seizure as an altered state of unconsciousness

question

diaphoresis

answer

sweating; often referred to excessive sweating

question

erythema

answer

redness of skin

question

edema

answer

swelling

STUDY

Alcohol Based Hand Rub Equipment And Supplies Human Immunodeficiency Virus

micro unit 1 – Flashcards 132 terms

Viola Marenco

132 terms

Preview

micro unit 1 – Flashcards

question

what is a diseased state resulting from an invasion of the body by a pathogen?

answer

pathophysiology

question

what is a disease-producing or causing (micro)-organism?

answer

pathogen

question

what is the study of microorganism?

answer

microbiolody

question

what are life forms generally too small to be seen with the naked eye (and thus, requires the use of a microscope to be seen)/

answer

microorganism

question

what are 4 examples of microorganisms often referred as "germs", "bugs", and "microbes"?

answer

bacteria, viruses, parasites, and yeasts

question

true or false
fungi and parasites can be seen without a microscope

answer

true

question

what is the study of bacteria?

answer

bacteriology

question

what is the study of viruses?

answer

virology

question

what is the study of fungi?

answer

mycology

question

what is the study of parasites?

answer

parasitology

question

what is the study of host (human) resistance to disease?

answer

immunology

question

true or false
eukaryotic cell is a bacterial cell and prokaryotic is a human cell

answer

false

question

from eukaryotic cell to virus to prokaryotic cell name them from biggest to smallest

answer

eukaryotic cell, prokaryotic cell, and virus

question

Your immune system includes white blood cells like ___________, ___________, and __________
and processes like inflammation and ________________

answer

neutrophils, B-cells and T-cells
phagocytosis

question

what is the process of engulfing and digesting extracellular foreign materials (like bacteria and viruses that do not belong in our bodies)?

answer

phagocytosis

question

what is the study of living organisms like protozoa and worms (helminths) that cause disease?

answer

parasites

question

what is an organism that uses the life cycle of the host species (lives off a host cell/organism) for sustenance or reproduction, or both (life)?

answer

parasite

question

true or false
true parasites are the first microbes ever seen and are the largest in size of the microorganism

answer

true

question

what type of parasite has eukaryotic, with nucleus, cytoplasm, and mitochondria?

answer

protozoa

question

what type of parasite is predominantly single-celled?

answer

protozoa

question

trichomonas vaginalis is what type of protozoa parasite?

answer

parasite that causes vaginal infection

question

giardia lamblia is what type of protozoa parasite?

answer

parasite that causes diarrhea from rivers and lakes

question

toxoplasma gondii is what type of protozoa parasite?

answer

parasite that pregnant women can get from changing the cat litter

question

cryptosporidium is what type of protozoa parasite?

answer

it is a parasite found in water park

question

trypanosome gambiense is what type of protozoa parasite?

answer

it is known as a causative agent of African sleeping sickness

question

what parasite is better known as worms?

answer

helminths

question

examples of groups of helminths are?

answer

nematodes, cestodes, and trematodes

question

nematodes are what?

answer

tubular in shape and known as roundworms

question

cestodes are what?

answer

tapeworms; segmented

question

trematodes are what?

answer

often referred to as flukes

question

the study of larger, multicellular organisms found everywhere is know as ?

answer

mycology (the study of fungi)

question

yeast that frequently causes human yeast infection and is also know as part of our normal human microflora?

answer

candida albicans

question

the mold on bread and the fungus that cause athletes foot and ringworm also often referred to as _______ _________ and __________ __________?

answer

tinea pedis and tinea corporis

question

common fungal diseases are ringworm caused by the fungus _______ and oral yeast infection know as __________

answer

tinea and thrush

question

__________ do not respire, do not move, and cannot and do not grow on their own

answer

viruses

question

acellular are not know as?

answer

not living, not dead - just there

question

viruses are acellular, cannot replicate on their own and do not have _________________ processes

answer

metabolism/metabolic

question

what are two basic components that viruses have?

answer

protein coat (capsid) and a genome or nucleic acid

question

viruses nucleic acid are either ______ or _____ but never both

answer

DNA or RNA

question

viruses can have a 3rd component know as

answer

an envelope (lipid layer or phospholipid membrane

question

viruses are classified according to what?

answer

type of nucleic acid and diseases they cause

question

type of nucleic acid are DNA or RNA and _________ or ____________

answer

enveloped or non-enveloped

question

what will not work on viruses but will work on bacteria are?

answer

antibiotics

question

baby viruses are known as?

answer

virions or virus particles

question

reproduction of virus has what four stages

answer

attachment, enter, multiple, and parting

question

when virus attaches to a host cell is know as what stage of virus reproduction?

answer

attachment

question

when virus or viral nucleic acid enters host cell is known as what stage of virus reproduction?

answer

enter

question

when virus uses host cell's enzymes and ribosomes to make viral genes and proteins (virus "parts") is known as what stage of virus reproduction?

answer

multiple

question

when new virus particles ("newborn baby" viruses) eventually leave host and search for a new host cell is known as what stage of virus reproduction?

answer

parting

question

enveloped virus leaves the cell by __________ and non-enveloped virus leaves the cell by _________

answer

budding and lyse

question

influenza (the "flu"), herpes (herpes virus type I and II), HIV, mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr virus), chicken pox/shingles (varicella-zoster virus), smallpox, ebola, norwalk, mumps, and measles are known as?

answer

viral diseases

question

the study of bacteria is known as?

answer

bacteriology

question

_________are know as good bacteria and help the environment by degrading biowaste and clean up oil spills

answer

probiotics

question

biofilms are known as?

answer

bad bacteria

question

bacteria are ___________ which means they are simple and single-celled organism

answer

prokaryotes

question

bacteria do not have membrane bound __________, no membrane bound __________ and no __________

answer

organelles, nucleus, and mitochondria

question

the processes that bacteria replicate is know as?

answer

binary fission

question

staphylococcus aureus, escherichia coli, streptococcus mutans, and lactobacillus are known as?

answer

bacteria

question

bacteria are grouped or classified and identified based on what characteristics?

answer

DNA (specific genes), unique cell surface molecules, and growth requirements

question

majority of bacteria have a structure know as a cell wall and contain the substance ____________

answer

peptidoglycan

question

what gives bacterial cells their shape?

answer

cell wall

question

in lab we identify the million of different bacteria by 1st seeing the cell shape, arrangement of cells, and cell wall type under the microscope and by ____________

answer

appearance of colonies

question

the 1st to see and describe microorganisms in 1670 is?

answer

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

question

who developed the concept of vaccination in late 1700 is?

answer

Edward Jenner

question

the golden age of microbiology includes _____________, __________, and __________ in 1875-1900

answer

Pasteur, Lister, and Koch

question

the father of microbiology is known as?

answer

Pasteur

question

who came up with pasteurization, rabies vaccine and Disproved Abiogenesis (spontaneous generation)?

answer

Pasteur

question

the "father" of antiseptic surgery is known as?

answer

Joseph Lister

question

whose's postulates helped isolate/discover bacillus anthracis and mycobacterium tuberculosis?

answer

Koch's postulates

question

what are the 4 steps of Koch's postulates

answer

1) the agent must be present in every case of disease
2) the agent must be isolated and cultured in vitro
3) the disease must be reproduced when a pure culture of the agent is inoculated into a susceptible host
4) the agent must be recoverable fro the experimentally-infected host

question

in 1929 who accidentally grew the mold that produced penicillin?

answer

Alexander Fleming

question

what two people found a way to mas produce penicillin and purify the active compound?

answer

Howard Florey and Ernest Chain

question

in 1912 who coined the term, and well as discovered and implemented the first chemotherapeutics?

answer

Paul Ehrlich

question

the use of chemicals to treat (infectious) disease is known as

answer

chemotherapeutic

question

who discovered the "cure" for syphilis known as salvarsan?

answer

Paul Ehrlich

question

____________, ____________, ____________, _____________, are external bacterial structures

answer

cell wall, capsule, flagellum, and Pili (fimbriae)

question

____________, _____________, ___________ are internal bacterial structures

answer

cytoplasm, nucleiod (nuclear region), and ribosomes

question

what cell wall has peptidoglycan, teichoic acid, thick, and is cross-linked?

answer

gram positive

question

what cell wall has peptidoglycan, thin, no teichoic acid, and has external Lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS) which produced lipid A an endotoxin

answer

gram negative

question

what cell wall has mycobacteria, peptidoglycan and thick waxy substance (aka mycolic acid)?

answer

acid fast

question

some bacteria when stressed, encounter unfavorable growth condition (lack of water, high heat) can undergo the process of sporulation and form bacterial _____________

answer

endospores

question

two significant genera that can undergo this process and form endospores are?

answer

clostridia species and bacillus species which are GPRs

question

survival technique beside endspore that bacteria use are what 3?

answer

1) produce/use different enzymes
2) can alter cell wall or membrane
3) alter genes-genetic mutations

question

what are the four key stages to bacterial growth?

answer

lag, log(logarithmic), stationary phase, death and decline

question

what nutrients do bacteria need to grow?

answer

a carbon source (something organic), nitrogen (animo acids), lipids (fatty acids), salts (minerals), vitamins, and water

question

medically important microorganisms that cause disease are know as?

answer

pathogens

question

microorganisms that are very good at causing disease are described as?

answer

pathogenic

question

what live off dead organic material by absorbing nutrients (ex. fungi on bread)?

answer

saprophytes

question

what life forms which live off live organic matter (host) and derive support at expense of the host?

answer

parasites

question

in lab we provide for nutrition by use of artificial growth media (broth,agar) and control temperature and oxygen levels by use of an ____________

answer

incubator

question

what 5 key nutrient and environmental conditions that influence bacterial growth are?

answer

1. moisture
2. temperature
3. pH
4. specific salt (NACI) concentration
5. oxygen requirements

question

microbes generally grow best between aw~

answer

0.995-0.980

question

most microbes cease growth at aw~

answer

<0.900

question

thermophiles

answer

> 40c

question

mesophiles

answer

20-40c pathogenic range

question

psychrophiles

answer

<20c

question

obligate aerobe are what specific salt concentration?

answer

strict oxygen

question

what needs lots of oxygen at specific amount?

answer

micro aerophilic

question

__________ ____________ are flexible to oxygen available and not specific. an ex. include E. coli, staph and strep

answer

facultative anaerobes

question

___________ ____________ example are clostidia, C. tenani, and C. difficile and oxygen is toxic to them

answer

obligate anaerobe

question

what are the most common/classic stains used in lab?

answer

gram stain and acid-fast stain

question

an example of immunofluorescene stains that diagnose syphilis is?

answer

direct IFA

question

the destruction/removal of all life forms refers to the process in which all living cells, spores, and viruses

answer

sterilization

question

destruction or removal of pathogenic m/o's is know as?

answer

disinfection

question

true or false
disinfection may not necessarily eliminate spores or all of the microorganisms fro an object or environment

answer

true

question

-cidal (suffix)

answer

kills; death of microorganism
like bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal, sporicidal

question

-static (suffix)

answer

prevents further multiplication without necessarily killing them by slowing metabolism and inhibits growth

question

what seven way we control the growth of microorganisms in the environment

answer

1. heat
2. irradiation
3. filtration
4. pasteurization
5. low temperature
6. drying (desiccation)
7. antimicrobial agents

question

a method can only be defined as a sterilant if, and only if, it destroys ___________ bacteria, in addition to all other life forms

answer

endospores/spore-forming

question

_____________ are one of the most difficult forms of 'life' to irradicate on earth
even more difficult are prions

answer

endospores

question

the heat that are used to control microorganism in the environment include which 4?

answer

incineration, moist heat, autoclaving and dry heat

question

what burns organisms and physically destroy them and are used for needles, inoculating wires, glassware, and objects not destroyed in the incineration process

answer

incineration >500c

question

what kills everything except some endospores (which requires over 2+ hours of boiling to kill)

answer

moist heat-boiling ~100c for 30 minutes

question

what uses moist heat/steam under pressure or pressure cooker and spore forming Bacteria -Bacillus species- is used as quality control to see if it is working?

answer

autoclaving

question

what can be good for sterilizing almost anything, including water, some agar medias, and glass?

answer

autoclaving

question

what is used for sterilizing glassware, metal, and objects that won't melt

answer

dry heat

question

dry heat is used to sterilize for how long?

answer

160 degree/2 hours or 170 degrees/1 hour

question

true or false
dry heat is as good as moist heat for eliminating microbes

answer

false moist heat is better

question

what uses UV light-260mm wavelength and gamma (ionizing) radiation ("radioactive") to sterilize?

answer

irradiation

question

what uses HEPA - high efficiency particulate air- filters and is designed for the filtration of small particles?

answer

filtration for air

question

the use of mild heat and time to reduce the number of microorganisms (likely to cause spoilage) and kill any potential pathogens present is know as?

answer

pasteurization

question

true or false
low temperature are not bactericidal

answer

true

question

most organisms grow very little or not at all at what degree?

answer

4 C

question

what method involve the removal of water from product by heat, evaporation, freeze-drying, and addition of salt or sugar?

answer

drying/desiccation (removal of H2O)

question

true or false
most microorganisms cannot grow at reduced water activity (aw <0.90)

answer

true

question

desiccation is often used to preserve what type of food?

answer

fruits and grains

question

what are chemical agents used to disinfect inanimate (lifeless) objects and surfaces?

answer

disinfectants

question

true or false
some disinfectants, if in high concentration or long contact time, may qualify as sterilants

answer

true

question

what are chemical agents applied to living tissues to prevent infection?

answer

antiseptics

question

true or false
antiseptics are generally less toxic than disinfectants because they must not cause too much damage to the host living issue

answer

true

question

what are pharmaceuticals (chemical agents) that are used in the treatment of microbial infections?

answer

antimicrobials

question

the specific group of antimicrobials used to control/destroy bacteria are known as?

answer

antibiotics

STUDY

Civil Rights Equipment And Supplies Federal And State

S-260 – Flashcard 97 terms

Richard Molina

97 terms

Preview

S-260 – Flashcard

question

True or false: consuming beer at an incident is permitted as long as it is done off shift and does not disrupt others

answer

FALSE

question

Name 3 documents that address incident behavior **Important**

answer

1) Wildland Fireline handbook 2) IRPG 3) Incident Business Management Handbook

question

When you observe or hear of inappropriate behavior you should: (list 3 actions)

answer

1) Report to supervisor 2) Report to Human Resources Specialist 3) Report to IC 4) Provide support 5) Document

question

Violation of incident conduct rules can result in: (list 2) **Important**

answer

1) Removal from assignment 2) Termination 3) Information sent back to home unit

question

True or False: All incident personnel can use government property for government use as long as it is not damaged or consumed.

answer

FALSE

question

List 2 responsibilities or roles of the incident Human Resources Specialist

answer

1) Point of contact for civil rights and human resource concerns 2) Receive reports and verify for inappropriate behavior

question

If you feel like you are being harassed, whom might you talk to?

answer

Your supervisor, HRS, the offender (answer is 'all of the above')

question

Under what 4 types of employment coverage can incident personnel be hired and paid?

answer

Organized crews, casual, state employed offices, federal sources of recruitment, cooperators

question

True or false: Agreements for organized crews, which are hired as casuals, can deviate from the Pay Plan for Emergency Workers

answer

FALSE

question

True or false: Fireline personnel must be a minimum of 18 years of age

answer

TRUE

question

True or false: Active military personnel on leave can be paid as casuals

answer

FALSE

question

List 3 situations that authorize the hiring of casuals **Important**

answer

1) To fight an ongoing fire 2) When fire danger is very high to extreme, or during high risk periods 3) Provide support to an ongoing incident

question

List the 3 forms necessary to hire and pay a casual: **Important**

answer

1) I-9 2) W-4 3) Single resource casual hire information

question

Define "casual"

answer

Person hired and compensated under the pay plan for emergency workers

question

True or false: federal and state taxes will be withheld from a casual's pay

answer

TRUE

question

True or false: An individual will be paid for their 2 R&R days no matter what day they get back

answer

FALSE (only if the two days fall on regular work days)

question

Medical treatment is non-compensable except when:

answer

Traveling to and from the medical facility

question

The initial timekeeping document which needs to be completed and submitted daily is the:

answer

SF-261 (CTR)

question

True or false: If hazard pay is authorized, GS employees receive HP for all hours in pay status that day

answer

TRUE

question

True or false: All incident personnel must adhere to work/rest guidelines

answer

TRUE

question

True or false: Drivers on an incident man not drive over 10 hours in one duty day

answer

TRUE

question

List 3 reasons a GS employee can receive hazard pay **Important**

answer

1) uncontrolled fireline 2) rough terrain 3) working with helicopter overhead

question

What form would a Personnel Time Recorder use to record time?

answer

OF-288

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Payment overtime **Important**

answer

Regular gov employee

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Pay differentials **Important**

answer

Regular gov employee

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Rest and paid day off **Important**

answer

Both

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Guaranteed hours **Important**

answer

Both

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Spot change tour of duty **Important**

answer

Regular gov employee

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Compensated for travel time to and from the incident **Important**

answer

Both

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Ordered standby **Important**

answer

Both

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? AD rates **Important**

answer

Casual

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Non-compensable meal breaks **Important**

answer

Both

question

Regular government employee, Casual, or Both? Pay Plan for Emergency Workers **Important**

answer

Casual

question

True or false: travel days are included when counting the number of days on assignment

answer

FALSE

question

What are the 2 types of commissary?

answer

1) Contracted 2) Agency provided

question

True or false: Ass commissary must be purchased through payroll deductions **Important**

answer

FALSE

question

What is the document that authorizes commissary for regular government employees and casuals?

answer

OF-288

question

List the steps a crew boss should take to obtain commissary for the crew

answer

1) Identify the type and size of item needed 2) List by individual name 3) Submit to commissary manager or Time Unit Leader

question

What form is used to record commissary purchases by incident personnel?

answer

OF-287

question

Who approves t-shirt logos that a contracted commissary has designed for the incident?

answer

Finance/Administration Section Chief

question

Who on the incident is entitled to payroll deduction for commissary?

answer

1) National Guard hired as casuals 2) Contractors 3) Casuals

question

List 2 ways in which commissary can be purchased

answer

1) Payroll deduction 2) cash 3) Credit Card

question

An injured individual should complete a notice of traumatic injury and claim for compensation, CA-1, and submit it to their supervisor within:

answer

48 hours

question

True or false: If an individual is injured, no matter how slight, the supervisor should be consulted before a CA-1 is completed

answer

FALSE (up to the individual)

question

FECA authorizes _____and______ for federal employees and casuals who sustain injuries/illnesses in the performance of duty

answer

Medical and Disability

question

What form is used to report and document a traumatic injury?

answer

CA-1

question

Define traumatic injury and give 2 examples **Important**

answer

Wound or condition caused by external force 1) Sprained ankle 2) Lacerations requiring stitches

question

Define occupational injury and give 2 examples **Important**

answer

Disease caused by systemic infections, continued or repeated strain/stress (conditions of work) 1) Smoke inhalation 2) back strain 3) Bronchitis

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Ensures backside of CA-2 is completed

answer

Supervisor

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Makes final determination on validity of claim

answer

OWCP

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Notifies supervisor of injury or illness

answer

Injured individual

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Submits reportable claims to the appropriate workers' compensation office

answer

Home unit

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Compiles case files to document injuries occurring on the incident

answer

Compensation for injury specialist

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Completes front side of the CA-1

answer

Injured individual

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Advises individuals of their rights and responsibilities when injured or ill

answer

Compensation for injury specialist

question

Compensation for injury specialist, Injured individual, OWCP, Supervisor, or Home Unit? -Administers the Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FECA)

answer

OWCP

question

True or false: A regular gov employee who chooses to take AL while in travel status, may do so and then notify the home unit supervisor when they return home

answer

FALSE - must get authorization BEFORE

question

What amount would a traveler receive for the first day of travel given a per diem rate of $55 for lodging and $31 for M&IE? Lodging was provided; meals were not

answer

75% of $31 = $23.25

question

True or false: most federal agencies cannot provide cash advances to emergency incident personnel

answer

TRUE

question

True or false: A lodging receipt is not required on a claim for reimbursement

answer

FALSE

question

True or false: Casuals are entitled to per diem while under hire **Important**

answer

TRUE

question

What is the advantage of procuring a rental vehicle through a procurement officer?

answer

1) The incident is responsible for the vehicle 2) Your rented vehicle can act as a 'pool vehicle' 3) Releases individual from liability

question

What is the Emergency Equipment Rental Agreement document called?

answer

OF-294

question

What is the Vehicle/heavy equipment inspection checklist document called?

answer

OF-296

question

What is the Emergency Equipment shift ticket document called?

answer

OF-297

question

What is the Emergency Equipment Use Invoice document called?

answer

OF-286

question

What document do requests for equipment and supplies go on?

answer

ICS 213 (General Message)

question

Who has the authority to settle a contract claim?

answer

Procurement officer

question

True or false: A resource order can take place of a requisition

answer

TRUE

question

What form is used to order an item through the supply unit?

answer

ICS 213 (General Message)

question

Who is responsible for completing and submitting the Emergency Equipment Shift Ticket?

answer

Agency Representative

question

Who is the Emergency Equipment Shift Ticket submitted to?

answer

Equipment Time Recorder

question

What is the purpose of the shift ticket?

answer

Track hours, track miles, track breaks or downtime

question

Incident commander, Crew boss, Supply Unit Leader, or Incident personnel? Responsible for the efficient use, care, and custody of property

answer

Incident personnel

question

Incident commander, Crew boss, Supply Unit Leader, or Incident personnel? Ensures property identification and marketing procedures are followed

answer

Supply unit leader

question

Incident commander, Crew boss, Supply Unit Leader, or Incident personnel? Has overall responsibility for establishing and maintaining a sound property management program for the incident

answer

Incident commander

question

Incident commander, Crew boss, Supply Unit Leader, or Incident personnel? Checks out property for crew

answer

Crew boss

question

Incident commander, Crew boss, Supply Unit Leader, or Incident personnel? Can be held financially accountable for lost property under their care

answer

Incident personnel

question

You have been working on the same division for several days. One of your crew members reports to you that she found hand tools scattered next to the fireline. What do you do?

answer

Notify your supervisor and return tools to supply unit

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Sleeping bag

answer

Durable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Chainsaw

answer

Accountable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Batteries

answer

Consumable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Engine

answer

Accountable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Fuel

answer

Consumable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Pulaski

answer

Durable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? MREs

answer

Consumable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Cloth canteen covers

answer

Durable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Laptop

answer

Accountable

question

Accountable property, durable property, or consumable property? Radio kit

answer

Accountable

question

True or false: As you go through the demob process, it is important to have all issued property returned to the supply unit **Important**

answer

TRUE

question

You are a crew boss and need to give your replacement crew your radio and belt weather kit. What are you going to do?

answer

1) Return it to supply unit if possible 2) or document on a WAYBILL or ICS 213

question

List the four types of cooperative agreements and their associated implementing documents (the Annual Operating Plan or Cost-Share agreement) **Important**

answer

1) Interagency - CSA/AOP 2) Cooperative - CSA/AOP 3) Memoranda - CSA/AOP 4) Mutual aid - NEITHER

question

Agreements to specify in writing **Important**

answer

Responsibilities, authorities, financial arrangements, terms and conditions (answer: all of the above)

question

Why do you need to be aware of agreements that may be in effect?

answer

1) Effective and efficient record keeping 2) Management of how to fight or uphold the agreement

question

List 2 types of incidents that may come under the jurisdiction of the Federal Management Agency

answer

1) Floods 2) Hurricanes

question

List 3 forms of documentation that must accompany an Employee Claim for Loss or damage to Personal Property

answer

1) Original purchase receipt 2) copies of catalog descriptions or ads 3) written witness statement 4) two repair estimates

question

List 3 types of claims that can be filed against the government

answer

1) tort 2) non-tort 3) contract 4) employee

STUDY

Emergency Medical Technology Equipment And Supplies Law Enforcement Post Traumatic Stress Disorder

Chapter 39: Chapter Test – Flashcards 39 terms

Jacob Herring

39 terms

Preview

Chapter 39: Chapter Test – Flashcards

question

Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist? attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an? attack?

answer

Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

question

Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known? as:

answer

bacteria.

question

You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other? agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient? manner, all agencies should follow? the:

answer

Incident Command System.

question

Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents? are:

answer

?time, distance, and shielding.

question

Biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following? routes?

answer

Respiratory tract

question

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the? cells?

answer

Cyanide

question

Which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a? mass-casualty incident?

answer

Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure

question

A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of? incidents?

answer

All of the above

question

Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known? as:

answer

viruses

question

Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist? incident?

answer

Harassment

question

Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following? routes?

answer

Absorption

question

Standard management of a chemical burn caused by a terrorist incident? includes:

answer

irrigating vigorously with cool water.

question

The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the? following?

answer

Exposure

question

Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful? rays?

answer

Gamma

question

Primary injuries from a blast? include:

answer

lung injuries.

question

Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except?:

answer

allergens.

question

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist? attacks?

answer

Immunization

question

Tertiary injuries from a blast? include:

answer

extremity fractures.

question

Which of the following is NOT traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by? terrorism?

answer

Containment and control

question

Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United? States?

answer

Domestic and international

question

A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting? post-traumatic stress disorder? (PSTD) is typically called? a(n):

answer

psychological harm.

question

Which of the following is a type of chemical? weapon?

answer

Vesicants

question

The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent exposing a large number of people would be? to:

answer

steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.

question

You are on an ambulance responding to a? mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En? route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result? of:

answer

the type of event.

question

An oxygen level of? ________ is required for normal breathing.

answer

?19.5%

question

Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident? are:

answer

crime scene considerations and targeting responders.

question

Which of the following methods of decontamination is NOT usually a prehospital activity during a terrorism? incident?

answer

Neutralization

question

The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of the? following?

answer

Religion

question

The extent of radiation depends on which of the following? factors?

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist? violence?

answer

All of the above

question

The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection? is:

answer

gamma

question

Secondary injuries from a blast most likely? include:

answer

impaled objects

question

Which of the following BEST defines domestic terrorism??

answer

Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence

question

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist? attacks?

answer

High infectivity

question

You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding? area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting? anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result? of:

answer

?on-scene warning signs.

question

Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that causes the plague to? humans?

answer

Fleas

question

An outbreak of which of the following illnesses would be LEAST likely to occur? naturally?

answer

Anthrax

question

Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of? exposure?

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist? incident?

answer

All of the above

STUDY

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