What 4 things do decision support systems use to support semi-structured business decisions?

1) analytical models 2) specialized databases 3) a decision maker’s own insights and judgements 4) an interactive, computer-based modeling process More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ist-test-2-ch10/

Describe the three quantitative models typically used by decision support systems

(1) sensitivity analysis, (2) what if analysis, and (3) goal seeking analysis. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/isys-201-midterm/

To provide return on investment, organizational knowledge must become systematic part of management decision making and becoming situated in decision support systems, including creation of new business practices, products, and services and entering new markets. In what stage of the knowledge management value chain does this occur?

Knowledge Application More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/is-301-chapter-11/

_____ provide a unified, single point of entry for information distribution. Answers: a. Data warehouses b. Decision support systems c. Dashboards d. Portals

d. Portals More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-13-mysql/

Unlike management support systems, decision support systems rely on _____ _______ as well as databases, as vital system resources.

model bases More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ist-test-2-ch10/

Decision Support Systems(DSS),47

-used by middle management-knowledge workers -make decisions on their own,non-routine, predictions/forecast -often uses external info -problem solving More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/isc-245-2/

____ provide a unified, single point of entry for information distribution. Decision support systems Portals Data warehouses Dashboards

Portals More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/cis-ch-13-business-intelligence-and-data-warehouses/

Home Page Math Systems Analysis Decision Support Systems

Decision Support Systems Flashcards, test questions and answers

Q: Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational decision support systems?

They are stand alone systems More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/management-info-systems-tech-exam-ch-12/

Q: Decision Support Systems (DSS)

A conceptual framework for a process of supporting managerial decision making, usually by modeling problems and employing quantitative models for solution analysis More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/business-intelligence-midterm/

Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Decision Support Systems and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Decision Support Systems and get quick solutions for your test.

We've found 36 Decision Support Systems tests

Adverse Drug Events Decision Support Systems Health Computing Medicare And Medicaid Services Pharmacology

Pharmacology Final Review-2 – Flashcards 75 terms

Richard Molina

75 terms

Preview

Pharmacology Final Review-2 – Flashcards

question

which of the following is a primary benefit of the use of computerized physician order entry (CPOE) for patient medications

answer

decreases prescribing and transcription errors

question

incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. durign the encounter, the provider can make the pt more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by

answer

both A and B-turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded

question

actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following except

answer

prescribing a 3rd drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination

question

Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. this is a type__ allergic drug reaction

answer

question

cost effectiveness analysis compares 2 or more tx or programs that are

answer

not necessarily therapeutically equivalent

question

herbs and supplements are regulated by the Food and Drug administration

answer

false

question

drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that

answer

is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug

question

which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions

answer

3 month old female

question

the 1st step in the prescribing process according to the world health organizations is

answer

diagnosing the patient's problem

question

pharmacogenetic testing is required by the FDA prior to prescribing

answer

cetuximab

question

drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property

answer

desensitization or down regulation with continuous use

question

which of the following statements about bioavailability are true

answer

bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms

question

a potential harmful effect to patients who take some herbal medication is

answer

lead poisoning

question

pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include

answer

bioavailability

question

a provider may consider testing for cyp2d6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer

answer

reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment

question

the role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to

answer

educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care

question

the point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the

answer

onset of action

question

david presents to the clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. he is rxd cromolyn sodium (opticrom) eye drops. education regarding cromolyn eye drops includes

answer

he should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eye drops

question

the pediatric research equity act requires

answer

all applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies

question

influenza vaccine may be administered annually to

answer

pregnant patients

question

if a patient is allergic to sulfonamide antibiotics he or she will most likely have cross sensitivity to

answer

all of the above-loop diuretics, sulfonylureas, thiazide diuretics

question

there is often cross sensitivity and cross resistance between penicillins and cephalosporins due to

answer

both drug classes contain a beta lactam ring that is vulnerable to beta lactamase producing organisms

question

Liza is breastfeeding her 2 mth old son and has an infection that requires an abx. what drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant

answer

all of above-maternal drug levels, half-life, lipid solubility

question

monitoring for patients who are on long term antifungal therapy with ketoconazole includes

answer

AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin

question

drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include

answer

antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate

question

tuberculin purified protein derivative PPD

answer

may be administered the same day as the MMR and or varicella vaccine

question

attenuated vaccines are also known as

answer

live vaccines

question

developmental variation in renal fxn has what impact on rxing for infants and children

answer

lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than 6 mths

question

Lauren is a 13yr old who comes to clinic with a 4 day history of cough, low grade fever, and rhinorrhea. when she blows her nose or cough the mucous is greenish yellow. the appropriate abx to prescribe would be

answer

none

question

patients who are taking antiretroviral ART need to have the following monitored

answer

lipid levels

question

to prevent the development of peripheral neuropathy in patients taking isonizid for TB, the pt is also prescribed

answer

pyridoxine(Vitamin B 6)

question

the centers for disease control recommends all newborn infants receive prophylactic administration of __ within 1 hr of birth

answer

erythromycin opthalmic ointment

question

Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes

answer

instill carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until canals are clear

question

resistance to antiretroviral ART therapy is measured by

answer

determining plasma viral RNA on two successive measurements

question

predictors for successful treatment with antiretroviral therapy in HIV positive patients includes

answer

the patient is strictly adherent to ART regimen

question

at which stage/classification of htn should drug therapy be instituted according to JNC-7 report

answer

stage 1

question

if not chosen as the first drug in htn tx, which drug class should be added as second step becuase it will enhance the effects of most other agents

answer

diuretics

question

because of its action on various body systems, the patient taking a thiazide or loop diuretic may also need to receive

answer

potassium supplements

question

in teaching about the use of sublingual nitroglycerine, the patient should be instructed

answer

to place on tablet under the tongue if chest pain occurs and allow it to dissolve

question

despite good blood pressure control, a NP might change a patient's drug from an ACEI to an angiotensin II receptor blocker ARB because the ARB

answer

does not produce a dry hacky cough

question

felicity has been prescribed colesipol to tx her hyperlipidemia. unlike other antilipidemics, this drug

answer

exchanges chloride ions for negatively charged acids in the bowel

question

furosemide is added to a tx regimen for heart failure which includes digoxin. monitoring for this combination includes

answer

serum potassium

question

Jacob has htn for which a calcium channel blocker has been prescribed. this drug helps control blood pressure because it

answer

decreases the amount of calcium inside the cell

question

the NP orders a thyroid panel for a pt on amiodarone. the pt tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test is ordered. which is the correct response

answer

amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and cause hypothroidism

question

increased life expectancy for pts with heart failure has been associated with the use of

answer

ace inhibitors, especially when started early in the disease process

question

when considering which cholesterol lowering drug to prescribe which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment

answer

coronary artery disease risk level

question

janice has elevated LDL, VLDL, and trigyceride levels. Niaspan an extended relsease form of niacin is chosen to treat her hyperlidemia. due to its metabolism and excretion, which of the following labs should be monitored

answer

serum creatinine

question

while taking an ARB, pts need to avoid certain OTC meds without first consulting the provider because

answer

both A and B-cimetidine is metabolized by the CYP3A4 isoenzymes and non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs reduce prostaglandin levels

question

when starting a pt on a statin, education would include

answer

all of above-if they stop med, their lipid levels will return to pretreatment, medication is a supplement to diet therapy and exercise, if they have any muscle aches or pain, they should contact their provider

question

angina is produced by an imbalance b/t o2 supply and demand in myocardium. which of the following drugs help to correct this imbalnce by increasing MOS

answer

ACE inhibitor

question

which of the following drugs has been associated with increased risk for MI in women

answer

estrogen replacement

question

TX for heart failure including drug therapy are based on the stages developed by the ACC/AHA. stage A pts are tx with

answer

drugs for hypertension and hyperlipidemia if they exist

question

monitoring of a pt who is on a lipid lowering drug includes

answer

lipid profile with attention to serum LDL, 6-8 wks after starting therapy then again in 6 wks

question

to reduce mortality all pts with angina regardless of class, should be on

answer

aspirin 81-325mg/d

question

which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule

answer

dose of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level

question

serum digoxin level are monitored for potential toxicity, monitoring should occur

answer

because a reference point is needed in adjusting a dose

question

dulcea has type 2 DM and high tricglycerides. she has gemfibrozil prescribed to tx her hypertriglycerideemia. A hx of the following might contraindicate the use of the drug

answer

gall bladder disease

question

pts how have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on

answer

ACE inhibitors

question

art is a 55y/o smoker who has been dx with angina and placed on nitrates. he c/o HA after using nitrate. appropriate reply would be

answer

"Headaches are common side effects with these drugs. how severe are they?"

question

Pt teaching r/t amplopidine includes

answer

avoid grapefruit juice as it affects the metabolism of this drug

question

the choice of diuretic use in tx htn is based on

answer

level of kidney fxn with a thiazide diuretic being used for an estimated glomerular filtration rate higher than the mid 40 range

question

some research supports that testosterone replacement therapy may be indicated in which of the following dx in men

answer

all of above- age related decrease in cognitive fxn, metabolic syndrome, decreased muscle mass in aging men

question

while on testosterone replacement, H/H levels should be monitored. levels suggestive of excessive erythorcytosis or abuse are

answer

hemoglobin 17.5g/dl or hematocrit 54%

question

when treating suspected gonorrhea in a non-pregnant pt, the pt should be concurrently tx for chlamydia with

answer

azithromycin 1 gm PO x1

question

the goal of testosterone replacement therapy is

answer

testosterone levels in the mid-normal range in 1 week after an injection

question

when rxing phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors such as sildenafil, viagra, pts should be screened for use of

answer

nitrates

question

ongoing monitoring is essential after tx for gonorrhea. the pt should be rescreened for gonorrhea and chlamydia in

answer

3-6 mths

question

monitoring of an older male pt on testosterone replacement therapy includes

answer

digital rectal prostate screening exam at 3 and 6 mths after starting therapy

question

men who are rxd PDE-5 inhibitors for erectile dysfunction should be educated regarding the adverse effects of the drug which include

answer

hearing loss

question

the choice of diuretic use in tx htn is based on

answer

level of kidney funciton with a thiazide diuretic being used for an estimated glomerular filtration rate higher that the mid 40 range

question

male pts who should not be rxd PDE-5 inhibitors include

answer

those who have had an acute myocardial infarction in the past 6 mths

question

Sophie presents to the clinic with a malodorous vaginal discharge and is confirmed to have trichomonas infections. tx for her would include

answer

metronidazole 2 gm PO x 1 dose

question

monitoring of male pts who are using PDE-5 inhibitors includes

answer

blood pressure

question

Helima presents with a c/o vaginal discharge that when tested meets the criteria for bacterial vaginosis. tx of bacterial vaginosis in a non-pregnant symptomatic women would be

answer

metronidazole 500mg PO BID x 7days

question

A test of cure is recommended after tx chlamydia in which pt population

answer

pregnant patients

STUDY

Client Care Decision Support Systems Diagnostic Test Results Health Computing Nursing Secondary Data Analysis

Informatics Final Exam – Flashcards 76 terms

Daniel Jimmerson

76 terms

Preview

Informatics Final Exam – Flashcards

question

A nursing informatics specialist is preparing an in-service program for staff on healthcare informatics and information technology. The nurse would emphasize which component as the focus?

answer

Information

question

A nurse asks the nursing informatics specialist, "What is the difference between computer literacy and computer fluency?" Which information would the nursing informatics specialist integrate into the response?

answer

Computer literacy refers to the ability to perform tasks with a computer.

question

While reading a journal article on the evolution of nursing informatics, at which time would the nurse expect to find a discussion about the shift in definition from a technology orientation to more of an information orientation?

answer

Mid-1980s

question

When describing how new systems for information are organized, which would the nursing informatics specialist explain as being used?

answer

Data

question

A nursing informatics specialist is characterized by colleagues as an informatics innovator. This nurse would demonstrate the ability to:

answer

generate informatics theory.

question

When reviewing a client safety database, the nurse understands that which is used?

answer

Aggregated data

question

A nursing informatics specialist is describing the benefits of informatics to a group of agency staff. Which would the nurse identify as a primary benefit for healthcare in general?

answer

Increase in the usability of data

question

A nurse involved in informatics identifies the need for information and demonstrates ability to locate, evaluate, and effectively use it. The nurse is demonstrating which competency?

answer

Information literacy

question

A nurse is presenting an in-service program on nursing informatics competencies. When describing the need for computer fluency for nursing informatics competencies, which would the nurse include as characterizing this concept?

answer

Lifelong learning

question

Which action would a nurse identify as the current focus of today's practice informatics?

answer

Capturing data at the point of care

question

A client tells the nurse, "I'm not so sure that I like the computer as my chart. I've heard so many horror stories of security problems on the computer." Which response by the nurse demonstrates understanding of the recent strategic planning goals aimed at inspiring confidence and trust in health information technology?

answer

"We are doing everything possible to protect the confidentiality of your health information."

question

A nurse interested in nursing informatics is reading a journal article about early computerized clinical information systems. Which information would the nurse most likely find as characteristic of these early systems?

answer

Different software systems were created for different areas.

question

An nursing informatics specialist is working as part of group tasked with evaluating the current health information technology system in the facility. As part of the evaluation process, the nurse is reviewing the initial strategic plan developed for the nationwide implementation of health information technology. Which result would lead the nurse to determine that the system has met the initial goals?

answer

A collaborative governance was developed to support information use for population health.

question

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client, integrating information from the client's history and physical examination, laboratory and diagnostic test results, and medications using the new informatics system adopted by the facility. The nurse understands that informatics facilitates the task because it focuses on:

answer

using information technology.

question

For which is information literacy considered essential?

answer

Evidence-based practice

question

A nurse-manager is looking at ways to improve the admission process from the emergency department to the inpatient unit. Which tool would be most appropriate for the nurse-manager to use?

answer

Flowchart

question

A nurse administrator is involved in process improvement and uses a chart to examine the relationships among complex processes. The chart resembles a fishbone. The administrator has used which type of chart?

answer

Cause-and-effect chart

question

A nurse-manager is working on the schedule for unit staffing. To determine the needs accurately, the nurse manager would use:

answer

patient classification system.

question

A nurse administrator is part of a committee working on evaluating information systems for the agency for future purchase. Which role would be most important for the nurse administrator to fulfill?

answer

Nursing services advocate

question

A nurse administrator is evaluating the various steps involved with client care on a unit based on the staff's complaints that there is a fair amount of duplication of services and variation in care. Which tool would the nurse administrator most likely use?

answer

Flowcharting

question

A nurse manager is using real-time information on key performance indicators to guide decision making. Which is the nurse using?

answer

Dashboards

question

A nurse administrator is working as part of group that conducts surveys of clients about their healthcare experiences. Which aspect would be most important to address?

answer

Employing a core set of questions

question

A nurse administrator is reviewing a report about the agency's nursing units and the care they provide. The results have been compared and benchmarked to similar units from other agencies. The administrator is reviewing a report from the:

answer

National Database of Nursing Quality Indicators (NDNQI).

question

When describing the role of the nurse administrator in relation to information management systems, which would be expected as a basic skill?

answer

Using spreadsheets

question

A nurse administrator is evaluating several human resource management systems to determine if one would be appropriate for the agency. To make the decision, the nurse administrator evaluates each system to see if it meets the minimum requirements. Which characteristic would lead the nurse to reject a system?

answer

Minimizing allowances for staff self-scheduling

question

A nurse administrator who is using project management software wants to ensure that the project stays on time and on budget. The nurse administrator also identifies key tasks that must occur during the project to keep it on target. The administrator would most likely use which tool to track the project's status?

answer

Gantt chart

question

A nurse administrator is using a spreadsheet for forecasting. Which action would the administrator do first?

answer

Obtain data spanning several years

question

A nurse administrator is reviewing numerous client surveys returned from clients recently hospitalized on a specific nursing unit. The clients voiced dissatisfaction with care because of miscommunication among staff, poor scheduling of client procedures, and lack of adequate transport services. The nurse administrator is examining:

answer

throughput.

question

A nurse using a clinical information system is required to document the same data in more than one area because the data do not "flow over" to the other areas and the data fields are not universally designed. Which component is lacking?

answer

Interoperability

question

A nurse is creating a password for use in accessing the healthcare information system in the agency. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to do in creating this password?

answer

Select a combination of letters and numbers

question

A nursing informatics specialist is describing the use of health information technology to meet national safety goals to a group of nurse managers. The nurse specialist determines that the group needs additional teaching by which statement?

answer

"Alarms should be used on all devices to ensure prompt response to safety issues."

question

When adopting the electronic healthcare record (EHR), which aspect would be considered the ultimate goal?

answer

Client as the most important focus

question

A nursing informatics specialist is describing the similarities and differences between the two types of radio frequency identification (RFID) to a group of agency administrators. Which type would a nursing informatics specialist include as being associated with the passive type?

answer

Readable from a distance of 1 to 10 feet

question

A nursing informatics specialist is working as part of a group that is working with an agency that is transitioning from the paper record to the electronic record. The nurse identifies that the agency is currently at stage 3 of the adoption model because:

answer

flow sheets for clinical documentation are in place.

question

The use of which method would be most effective in providing data protection from entry by outsiders?

answer

Firewall

question

An administrative group at an agency involved in adopting healthcare information technology is developing a strategic plan. Which component would they include?

answer

Expenditures offset by client outcome benefits

question

A nurse is working on a committee involved in adopting electronic healthcare systems for the agency. Currently, the agency has clinical documentation, a clinical decision support system (CDSS) with error checking, and a picture archive and communication system (PACS) in place. The committee determines that the agency is at which stage of adoption?

answer

Stage 3

question

A nurse is working as part of a committee involved in creating passwords for the healthcare agency's network. Which password would be the strongest?

answer

NuRs1N9gY

question

A nursing informatics specialist is conducting a seminar on the need for uniformity in user design for data entry screens based on the understanding that:

answer

most providers approach user design using a paper chart thinking process.

question

A nurse is preparing to access a client's electronic record. The system verifies that the nurse is the person logging into the system and grants access to the information. This process is known as:

answer

authentication.

question

When developing a plan for workflow redesign and the use of computerized documentation, which item would be the first thing to consider?

answer

The number of computers needed

question

When describing the various biometric methods for authentication, which method would the nursing informatics specialist identify as most secure?

answer

Iris scan

question

A nurse is reading a journal article about syndromic surveillance. The nurse would expect the article to describe this concept as:

answer

providing early detection of potential disease.

question

A nursing informatics specialist is conducting a seminar for agency staff about the benefits of a fully integrated electronic health record. The nurse specialist determines the need for additional teaching when the group identifies which aspect as a benefit to the client?

answer

Capability of decision support

question

Which statement best reflects information and health literacy?

answer

Expertise in information and health literacy is achieved with continuous practice.

question

A nurse is searching the Internet for journal articles on asthma and comes across an article that is published in an online journal. The nurse is aware of the factors affecting online journals, keeping in mind that:

answer

there will be no print version available to access the article.

question

A nurse is reviewing journal articles obtained from a database search and frequently notes that a specific work is being cited by authors. In addition, the nurse notices that this cited work is often the basis for the author's opinion. The nurse would identify this as:

answer

a seminal work.

question

A nurse is searching the Internet for information related to clinical trials and grants. Which site would the nurse most likely use to obtain quality information?

answer

The National Institutes of Health

question

A nurse is evaluating the information obtained from a search and notes that the majority of information is from reports of expert committees. The nurse interprets this research to be at which level of evidence?

answer

Level VII

question

A nurse wants to search for information about legal and ethical issues involving nursing. Which database would be most helpful for the nurse to use first in this search?

answer

CINAHL

question

A nurse is attempting to answer the following clinical question: How does the treatment of a myocardial infarction in women compare with that provided to men? When using the PICO process, which information would the nurse identify as "P"?

answer

Myocardial infarction

question

After searching a database for information on pain control, a nurse is reviewing a research article on the topic. While reading the article, the nurse notes that much of the research is based on the author's point of view. The nurse interprets this as:

answer

selection bias.

question

A nurse is conducting a database search. Which information would the nurse need to keep in mind?

answer

Each database has its own way for indexing search terms.

question

When searching PubMed, the nurse understands that this database uses a search term structure based on a:

answer

hierarchy

question

An nursing informatics specialist is developing an in-service presentation to stimulate interest in researching ways to solve clinical problems on the units. As part of the presentation, the specialist is planning to address seeking out information for nursing knowledge. How would the nurse specialist most likely describe the quest for knowledge?

answer

The process never stops.

question

A group of nurses are using the Star Model of Knowledge Transformation to apply the results of a research study to client care. The nurses have completed the discovery step and will now go onto which step?

answer

Summary

question

A nurse is using a library database to search for information related to cancer. The nurse includes the words "some" and "many" in the search. The search engine would identify these words as:

answer

stop words.

question

A nurse is reviewing several research articles found on the web after completing a PICO search. One of the articles provides an expert opinion of a professional society. The nurse interprets this to mean that the information is at which level of evidence?

answer

Lowest

question

Which statement best reflects the differences between a scholarly article and other forms of nonscholarly work such as a magazine, a newsletter, and a newspaper?

answer

An newspaper article can be written by anyone, including a nurse.

question

A nurse is working to develop information technology skills. Which behavior would best demonstrate the acquisition of these skills?

answer

Ability to use technology to develop a plan of care based on client information

question

A nurse is conducting a search of several databases simultaneously. The nurse is conducting which type of search?

answer

Federated

question

A nurse is searching the Internet for information about the nursing licensure in another state. Which site would be most appropriate for the nurse to access?

answer

National Council of State Boards of Nursing

question

A nurse is using the Cochrane Library to search for systematic reviews about treatment for hypertension. The nurse understands that systematic reviews help to reduce bias. When reading the review, the nurse notes that the review covers a wide range of databases and search terms. The nurse identifies this as reducing which bias?

answer

Indexing

question

When evaluating a website for health information, which question would be important for the nurse to ask to determine the validity and quality of the information?

answer

Is the date of the site's last update clearly specified?

question

A group of nurses who are working with the nurse manager are preparing to conduct a research study on the effects of 8-hour and 12-hour shifts on nurses working on a general medical-surgical unit. One of the nurses says, "I always have trouble finding relevant research articles." Which response by the nurse manager would be most appropriate to help this nurse?

answer

"Let's go together to ask the librarian for help in finding journals that specialize in research."

question

A nursing informatics specialist is planning to use a free statistical program available on the Internet. Which fact would be most important for the nurse specialist to keep in mind?

answer

Command lines are used to input data.

question

A nurse researcher is entering categorical data into a spreadsheet. Which action would be most important for the nurse to do?

answer

Code the data numerically

question

A nurse is gathering data for a research study and is using DataFerrett to access the data. When accessing the data, the nurse would need to keep in mind that these data are:

answer

from various federal agencies.

question

A nurse researcher accesses the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality site for information related to:

answer

healthcare information technology.

question

A nursing informatics specialist is working with the staff of an agency who is implementing electronic health records system. The nurse specialist would inform the staff to expect major changes in workflow:

answer

after the initial go-live period is over.

question

A nursing informatics specialist is preparing a seminar for a group of staff nurses about the use of informatics and nursing research. Which event would the nurse specialist most likely include as occurring first?

answer

Use of case studies to describe intervention effectiveness

question

Nurses on a unit are reviewing research to determine if a change in practice is necessary. Which activity would be most appropriate for the nurses to use as the best evidence for a change?

answer

Searching for a meta-analysis on the subject

question

A nurse is collecting data about wait times for certain diagnoses across all emergency departments in hospitals in the United States. The nurse is most likely using which source for the data?

answer

DataFerrett

question

A nurse is preparing to conduct a research study about a clinical topic and wants to obtain the most recent evidence on the topic. Which site would be most appropriate for the nurse to search?

answer

National Institute of Nursing Research

question

When describing business intelligence to a group of nurse managers, which definition would the nursing informatics specialist include?

answer

Process of turning financial, client, and quality data into usable information

question

A nurse is beginning to analyze data using descriptive data analysis in a spreadsheet. Which action would the nurse do first?

answer

Enter data on the row

STUDY

Decision Support Systems General Systems Theory Health Computing Informed Decision Making Nursing Personal Health Record Teamwork And Collaboration

Informatics – Flashcards 47 terms

Tony Foust

47 terms

Preview

Informatics – Flashcards

question

Nursing Informatics

answer

A specialty that integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science to manage and communicate data, information, knowledge and wisdom in nursing practice.

question

What are the 3 sciences involved in Nursing Informatics?

answer

Nursing science, computer science, and information science

question

Information Theory

answer

Processing data to produce information and, in combination with knowledge and wisdom, using information to provide care

question

Describe another theory involved in Nursing Informatics

answer

a. Change Theory - unfreezing àmoving àrefreezing b. Systems Theory - interaction among parts c. Behaviorism - desired behaviors are reinforced d. Constructivism - reinterpret the world to fit new situations e. Adult learning - learn by doing, must know why they need to learn and value of learning

question

Describe the differences between an EMR and an EHR

answer

EMR- medical record from one location/provider EX: Epic (St. Anthony) Ex: Kiddos (Children) Ex: Compass (Barnes) One provider EHR- mulitple provider records combined

question

What is a PHR? Who is responsible for its maintenance?

answer

PHR- not official or correct and patient reported and can be merged to an EHR (Phone App, Flash drive, Smart Card Diary (Written)

question

What are 3 benefits and 3 limitations of a PHR?

answer

a. Barriers- motivation- time - security -access- b. Benefits- visibility - unconscious- repeat yourself - involved in health - saves time

question

What is the deadline for hospitals' compliance with the 'Meaningful Use' requirements of the American Reinvestment and Recovery Act (ARRA)?

answer

In 2015, penalty if unable to show meaningful use

question

Describe how a clinical information system (EMR or EHR) contributes to patient safety.

answer

Improves legibility, Provides greater continuity of care, Supports safe medication practices, Improves nursing workflow; eliminates redundant documentation, Provides access to up-to-date, accurate data for informed decision-making, Decision support based on assessment data

question

Give an example of data about a specific quality outcome measure that could be obtained from a clinical information system.

answer

Fall Preventions -Monitor how many patients fell out of bed

question

According to nursing researchers Staggers, Gassert, and Curran, what informatics competencies should be demonstrated by:

answer

a. Beginning Nurses? Should process basic information management and computer technology. Access data, desktop software, & decision support. b. Experienced Nurses? Highly skilled in information systems to support their major area of practice. Make judgments on basic trends and patterns. c. Nursing Informatics Specialists? Meet the information needs of practicing nurses by integrating and applying information, computer science, and nursing science. d. Informatics Innovators? Conduct informatics research and generate informatics theory.

question

Define the term 'computer fluency'

answer

Understanding computers and related systems. It includes a working vocabulary of computer and information system components, the fundamental principles of computer processing and a perspective for how non-technical people interact with technical people.

question

What does the acronym QSEN mean?

answer

Quality and Safety Education for Nurses

question

Name the 6 categories of QSEN.

answer

a. Patient-Centered Care b. Teamwork & Collaboration c. Evidence Based Practice d. Quality Improvement e. Safety f. Informatics

question

Name 3 nursing literature bibliographic databases.

answer

a. Omid b. Medline c. PubMed

question

How do the Boolean operators affect a literature search?

answer

a. "And" = search only records in which BOTH criteria are met b. "Or" = search returns any record with EITHER criteria c. "Not" = criteria returns records that do NOT have the designated criteria

question

Define the 7 Levels of Evidence described in the Sewell & Thede textbook.

answer

a. Level 1 - evidence from a systematic review or meta-analysis of all relevant randomized controlled trials (RCTs) or evidence-based clinical practice guideline based on systematic review of RCTs. b. Level 2 - Evidence obtained from at least one well-designed RCT. c. Level 3 - Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trails without randomization. d. Level 4 - Evidence from well-designed-case control and cohort studies. e. Level 5 - Evidence from systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies. f. Level 6 - Evidence from single descriptive or qualitative study. g. Level 7 - Evidence from the opinion of authorities and/or reports of expert committees.

question

Define the term 'research practice gap'.

answer

"Nurses must expedite closing the research practice gap in order to make dramatic, needed improvements to our healthcare delivery system." (Pg. 206 in the book)

question

Name two factors that cause a research practice gap.

answer

a. Access to research b. Attitude c. Time d. Def: the discrepancy between research on effective clinical practice and direct care provided to patients

question

Define the term 'seminal work'.

answer

Seminal work refers to work frequently cited by others or influences the opinions of others

question

Provide a brief definition of 'just culture'.

answer

Just culture is the place that you work will not take serious action for making an error. Professionals do make mistakes, although if you make a reckless mistake you will be accountable.

question

Discuss examples of barriers to a just culture; how can these barriers be reduced?

answer

a. Time consuming b. Cost c. Individual Slips d. People who make reckless errors e. Medicare/Medicaid/other mandatory reporting of errors f. Stuck in the mud/stick administration and/or managers

question

How can informatics be used to monitor errors and support a just culture?

answer

a. Barcodes- help with support errors b. Familiar with technology c. Interventions

question

What is BCMA and how does it contribute to patient safety?

answer

Barcode- scan the patient, is this the right patient, order, and medication.

question

What are some of the limitations of BCMA?

answer

a. Errors in barcode on the medicine b. Cost c. Equipment malfunction d. Incorrect use of equipment

question

If you were a nursing manager, what report data could help you monitor the use of BCMA technology on your nursing unit?

answer

a. Hooked to the patient record system because when it is scanned it will go to the document. (IS this happening 100% of the time) b. Does the staff like the system? Liking it will cause them to use it, rather than ignore it.

question

Define telenursing and describe how it occurs.

answer

Use of technology to deliver care over a distance.

question

Describe at least 2 examples of patient assessments that may be accomplished using telenursing.

answer

a. Hooked up to an ecectric spirometer connected to a computer b. Telecare nurses decide, direct, and coordinate care rather than provide it directly.

question

What are some benefits and limitations of telenursing?

answer

a. Benefits: The nurse is always in contact with their patients. Beneficial to the elderly, allows in home care. b. Limitations: The nurse is not always physically with their patient, can break, less personal.

question

What is the Leapfrog Group and how can a healthcare organization meet the CPOE criteria to be recognized by this group?

answer

Organization to help hospitals with their safety. You must score a certain score. Physicians enter the meds (75% electronically). Also, they must correct 50% of ordering errors.

question

How can CPOE contribute to patient safety?

answer

a. Drug interactions b. Dosing errors c. Public reporting (competition)

question

What are potential barriers to CPOE?

answer

a. Cost b. Physician resistance c. Missing data d. Unethical approach

question

Define bioinformatics.

answer

Development and application of computational tools to acquire, store, organize, archive, analyze, and visualize biological data.

question

How did the Human Genome Project utilize bioinformatics?

answer

a. 3.5 billion (info found on Small Group Topics) b. Mapped DNA

question

Describe an example of data about a specific disease or condition that could be contained in a bioinformatics database.

answer

Polycystic Kidney Disease

question

Name two examples of nursing or medical decision support.

answer

Prevention of adverse drug events -Allergies and Drugs Decision Support, DNR and Code Support

question

What does the term 'alert fatigue' mean and how can it impact decision support systems?

answer

Growing apathetic and forget about the alerts

question

What are the benefits and limitations of clinical decision support systems?

answer

a. Benefits- Real time patient info and patient piece of mind b. Limitations- Stop finding and too complex

question

Name 4 ways a nurse can follow HIPAA guidelines for securing patient data.

answer

a. Don't share information in public areas (elevators, cafeterias, hallways, public restrooms) b. Don't share information with anyone not directly involved with the patient's care. c. Patient may not want family to know details of care. d. Don't look up friends, family, celebrities or other patients on other floors. e. Don't speak of the patients outside of the hospital to family, friends, neighbors, etc.

question

What are 4 basic guidelines for quality documentation and reporting?

answer

Factual -Legal -Libel (written) and slander (spoken) Accurate and Complete Current Organized

question

Name 5 types of patient data typically found in a hospital's clinical information system?

answer

a. Labs & Lab Results b. Vital Signs c. Orders d. Height/weight e. Demographics

question

Define the legal term 'non-discoverable'.

answer

a. Outside sources cannot access this, especially in court/insurance company b. Cannot be used against a person in court

question

How would an Incident Report become discoverable in court?

answer

If you added to the chart's documentation that you wrote an Incident Report

question

Define the term 'professional negligence'.

answer

a. Failure to provide the standard of care resulting in injury to the patient b. Has to be injury, injury related.

question

Define the term 'cyberchondriac' and discuss its positive attributes.

answer

-Indicates a person who has concerns about health and searches for health information on the web -Positive attributes: -Online info. influenced the discussions they had with their healthcare provider -Affected people's understanding of any health problems they had and improved their health management

question

Name an example of a health numeracy skill.

answer

a. Deciding timing of medication dosages b. Def: ability of a consumer to interpret and act on all numerical info. such as graphical and probabilistic info. needed to make effective health care decisions

question

Describe the components of the chart.

answer

a. Vital signs (blood pressure, statistical data) b. Biographical data (address, phone number, relatives) c. Labs d. Orders e. Weights, height, age, DOB

STUDY

Decision Support Systems Efficacy And Safety Health Computing Molecular Biology Roles And Responsibilities Store And Forward

Middle School Science questions – Flashcards 763 terms

Matthew Carle

763 terms

Preview

Middle School Science questions – Flashcards

question

technology

answer

the application of science through the use of special procedures or devices

question

dependent variable

answer

a variable that is not under the expirementer's control

question

constant

answer

not changing or varying

question

meter

answer

a standard of measurement equal to a little over a yard

question

metric

answer

a standard of measurement

question

millimeter

answer

a standard of measurement equal to one thousandth of a meter

question

centimeter

answer

a standard of measurement equal to one hundredth of a meter

question

decimeter

answer

a standard of measurement equal to one tenth of a meter

question

kilometer

answer

a standard of measurement equal to one thousand meters

question

Celsius

answer

metric temperature scale on which water freezes at 0 degrees and boils at 100 degrees

question

Farenheit

answer

tempurature scale on which water freezes at 32 degrees and boils at 212 degrees

question

law

answer

a statement of scientific fact

question

theory

answer

an idea based on speculation

question

hypothesis

answer

a theory which needs further investigation

question

volume

answer

the space inside of an object

question

mass

answer

the amount of matter an object contains

question

property

answer

a trait or attribute

question

control

answer

the standard against which experimental test results are compared

question

density

answer

a measure of a quantity of mass per unit of volume

question

lipid

answer

any group of organic compunds consisting of fats, oils, and related substances; a part of the structural components of a living cell

question

monomer

answer

a single organic molecule that can join in long chains with other molecules

question

amino acid

answer

nitrogen-containing organic molecules that from the basic buliding units of proteins

question

nucleic acid

answer

a complex acid found in living cells

question

aromatic

answer

a class of organic chemical compounds that contains one or more rings of carbon atoms

question

polymer

answer

a compound with repeating small molecules such as starch and nylon

question

petroleum

answer

crude oil found in sedimentary rocks and consisting mainly of hydrocarbons

question

synthetic

answer

a substance made by a chemical process

question

hydrocarbon

answer

an organic chemical containing only hydrogen and carbon

question

organic compound

answer

elements that exist together naturally without synthetic chemicals

question

saturated

answer

containing the maximum amount of absorbed solvent

question

unsaturated

answer

having double or triple carbon atoms

question

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

answer

substance carrying an organism's genetic information

question

density

answer

a measure of quantity such as mass or electric charge per unit volume

question

solvent

answer

a substance in which other substances are dissoloved

question

freezing point

answer

the temperature at which a liquid becomes a solid

question

alloy

answer

any mixture of two or more materials

question

antifreeze

answer

a liquid that lowers the freezing point

question

solubility

answer

the capacity for one substance to dissolve another

question

supersaturated

answer

a chemical solution that contains a greater amount of solute than normally possible, often as a result of cooling

question

electrolyte

answer

a chemical compound which separates into ions in a solution

question

ionization

answer

a process in which an atom or molecule loses or gains electrons

question

dissociation

answer

the process by which an ionic solid will separate into its ions in a solution

question

ion

answer

an electrically charged atom or atom group

question

positive ion

answer

an atom missing one or more of its electrons

question

covalent

answer

a chemical bond between two atoms created by sharing a pair of electrons

question

neutral

answer

with zero electric charge

question

formula

answer

a set of symbols representing chemical composition

question

oxidation number

answer

the number of associated electrons in a compound

question

polar molecule

answer

chemical compund with an unequally distributed electric charge

question

nonpolar

answer

chemical compunds with an equally distributed electric charge

question

hydrate

answer

a compound containing water molecules

question

bond

answer

an attractive force that binds atoms and ions in a molecule

question

ductile

answer

moldable, as in the characteristic of metals

question

radioactive

answer

the emission of energy in the form of streaming particles by substances such and uranium or plutonium

question

transition element

answer

an element in groups of three through twelve of the periodic table

question

semiconductors

answer

a partially conductive solid

question

transuranium

answer

having an atomic number over 92

question

allotropes

answer

one of several different forms in which a chemical element occurs, each with different physical properties but the same atomic compostion

question

sublimation

answer

a chemical process in which a solid is directly converted to a gas

question

diatomic

answer

having two atoms per molecule

question

ionic

answer

relating to matter in the form of charged atoms or groups of atoms

question

metallic

answer

containing or made of metal

question

alkali

answer

a chemical substance that is water soluble, neutralizes acid, and forms salts with them

question

noble gas

answer

a chemically non-reactive gas

question

distillation

answer

the process of separating a mixture by evaporation and condensation

question

colloid

answer

a suspension of small particles dispersed in another substance

question

solution

answer

the state of one substance being dissolved in another substance

question

mixture

answer

a substance containing several ingredients which have been blended together

question

Tyndall effect

answer

the scattering of light by minute particles in its path, such as dust in the air

question

compound

answer

a substance made by combining two or more different elements

question

suspension

answer

a dispersion of fine solid particles in a liquid

question

heterogenous

answer

a chemical substance consisting of different and distinguishable materials

question

element

answer

a substance that can not be broken down into a simpler one by a chemical reaction

question

tungsten

answer

a specific metallic chemical element with a very high melting point

question

proton

answer

a stable, elementary particle that is a component of all atomic nuclei; carries a positve charge equal to that of the electron's negative charge

question

atomic number

answer

the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of an element

question

isotope

answer

a form of an element with the same atomic number

question

periodic table

answer

a table of chemical elemetns arranged according to their atomic numbers

question

neutron

answer

an elementary particle without an electric charge

question

electron

answer

a stable, negatively charged elementary particle with a small mass that is a basic ingredient of matter and orbits the nucleus of an atom

question

quark

answer

a basic component of particles

question

metalloid

answer

a nonmetallic element that had properties between those of a metal and a nonmetal

question

particle

answer

a basic unit of matter; a molecule, atom, or electron

question

nitrogen

answer

an element common in the Earth's atmosphere

question

metal

answer

a chemical element that is usually a shiny solid and conducts heat or electricity

question

machine

answer

a device that makes work easier to preform

question

simple machine

answer

any device that only requires the application of a single force to work

question

Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA)

answer

the factor by which a machine multiplies the force put into it

question

device

answer

a tool or machine which perfroms a particular task or function

question

gear

answer

a toothed wheel that enagages another toothed mechanism in order to transmit motioin from one rotating body to another

question

efficiency

answer

the measure of a machine's energy effectiveness

question

wheel and axel

answer

a simple machine consisting of a large wheel rigidly secured to a smaller wheel or shaft, called an axel

question

ramp

answer

a sloped surface used to move from one level to another

question

screw

answer

a simple machine of the inclined-plane mtype consisting of a spirally threaded, cylindrical rod that engages into a similarily threaded hole

question

James Watt

answer

engineer and inventor whose improvements of the steam engine led to its wide use in industry

question

lever

answer

a rigid bar that pivots around a fulcrum and is used to move or lift a heavy load at one end by applying force to the other

question

wedge

answer

a block that is thick at one end and thinner at the other, used to secure or separate two objects

question

pulley

answer

a wheel with a grooved rim over which a belt or chain or chain can move to change the direction of a pulling force

question

fulcrum

answer

th point about which a lever turns

question

inclined plane

answer

slanted surface used to raise or lower an object

question

pivot

answer

an object on which a larger object turns

question

output force

answer

energy or power produced by a system

question

input force

answer

power or energy that enters a device and is recovered in the form of work or some other output effect

question

applied force

answer

a force which is applied to an object by a person or another object

question

expand

answer

to cause something to increase in size or volume as a result of a rise in temperature or a decrease in pressure

question

buoyant force

answer

a force that causes objects in a liquid to float or rise to the surface or upward in gas

question

Archimedes

answer

Greek mathemetician, physicist, and inventor, best known for the lever and the pulley

question

viscosity

answer

the property orf a fluid that resists flowind

question

diffusion

answer

the random movement of atoms, molecules, or ions, from one site in a medium to another, resulting in complete mixing

question

sublimation

answer

the change of ice to vapor or vapor to ice without a liquid stage

question

kilocalorie

answer

a unit of energy equal to a nutritional calorie

question

boiling point

answer

the degree of temperature at which a liquid turns to gas

question

heat of fusion

answer

the heat released when liquid water freezes to solid ice

question

plasma

answer

a hot ionized gas made up of ions and electronsfound in the sun, stars, and fusion reactors

question

pascal

answer

a unit of pressure equal to one newton per square meter

question

SI unit

answer

a unit of measure in the International System of Units

question

compressed

answer

redused in volume by pressure

question

solid

answer

a substance that retains its shape

question

liquid

answer

a substance whose shape can change but whose volume cannot

question

gas

answer

a substance that is neither a solid nor a liquid and that has the ability to expand

question

redox

answer

an abbreviation for oxidation-reduction, a process in which there is an electron transfer

question

precipitate

answer

a suspension of small solid particles formed in a solution as the result of a chemical reaction

question

reactant

answer

a substance undergoing a chemical reaction

question

Antoine Lavoisier

answer

French chemist know as the "father" of modern chemistry

question

exothermic

answer

a reaction that produces heat

question

endothermic

answer

a reation that abosorbs heat

question

decompostion

answer

chamical change in which a substance is broken down into two or more simpler substances

question

combustion

answer

process in which a substance reacts forcefully with oxygen to produce heat and light

question

catalyst

answer

a chemical that increases the rate of a chemical reaction

question

corrosion

answer

process in which a substance, such as metal, is destroyed gradually by a chemical action

question

reduction

answer

a chemical reaction which brings about a grain in hydrogen, a loss in oxygen, or an increase in electrons

question

synthesis

answer

the process of forming a complex compound from a chemical reaction involving two or more simpler elements

question

endergonic

answer

a chemical reaction in which energy is abosorbed

question

acid

answer

a corrosive substance with a pH less than seven; turns blue litmus paper red

question

ammonia

answer

a colorless, pungent, water soluble gas made up of nitrogen and hydrogen

question

indicator

answer

an organic compund that changes color in acid or base

question

titration

answer

a way of determining the concentration of a solution

question

base

answer

a chemical compound having pH between eight and fourteen; reacts with acids to form salts

question

answer

a measure of acidity or alkalinity

question

buffer system

answer

a substance that minimizes a change in the pH of a soluton by neutralizing added acids and bases

question

polyester

answer

a synthetic polymer used in making textile fibers

question

detergent

answer

a cleansing substance, especially a synthetic liquid that dissolves dirt and oil

question

hydronium

answer

the positive ion containing three hydrogen and one oxygen formed when an acid dissolves in water

question

saponification

answer

the reaction of an ester with metallic base and water which produces soap

question

neutralization

answer

the addition of substances to neutralize water so that it is neither acidic nor alkaline

question

compressional wave

answer

a wave that moves in the same direction as the periodic motion of the medium

question

frequency

answer

the number of wavelengths that passes a fixed pont every second

question

amplitude

answer

the measurement of the height of a transverse wave

question

transverse wave

answer

a wave that cause the crosswise disturbance of a medium

question

interference

answer

process in which two or more waves overlap and combine to form a new wave

question

rarefaction

answer

the less dense region of a compressional wave

question

refraction

answer

the change in direction that occurs when a light wave passes from medium to another of a different density

question

standing wave

answer

a stationary wave which occurs when two waves of equal frequency and intensity traveling in oppostite directions combine

question

acoustics

answer

the scientific study of sound

question

decibel

answer

a unit of relative loudness

question

resonator

answer

a hollow chamber filled with air that amplifies sound

question

echolocation

answer

a way of locating an object using an emitted sound and the reflection back from it

question

overtone

answer

frequencies which are multiples of the lowest or main frequency

question

oscilloscope

answer

a device that uses a cathode ray tube to show waveforms

question

diffuse reflection

answer

1light that scatters in all directions when it strikes a rough surface

question

pigment

answer

colored material used to change the colors of other substances

question

reflecting telescope

answer

a telescope in which light from the object is initially focused by a concave mirror

question

opague

answer

not allowing light to pass into or through something

question

prism

answer

a glass object that can separate white light into a spectrum

question

optical axis

answer

an imaginary line passing horizontally through the center of a compound lens system

question

cone cells

answer

the cells in the retina which only function in relatively bright light

question

polarize

answer

to cause light to vibrate within certain planes

question

astigmatism

answer

an optical lens defect in which light rays are prevented from meeting at a single pont, producing an imperfect image

question

incandescent

answer

a light emitted as a result of being heated to a high temperature

question

focal point

answer

the point where rays from a lens converge

question

retina

answer

a light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye that receives an image from the lens and sends it to the brain

question

coherent light

answer

light waves that vibrate with constant phase relationships that are produces by a laser or a combination of two prisms

question

laser

answer

a device which emits a focused beam of light

question

parallel circut

answer

a closed circut in which the current divides into two or more paths before recombining to complete the circut

question

resistance

answer

the tendancy for a material to oppose the flow of electrons

question

electroscope

answer

a device used to detect and measure an electric charge

question

ampere

answer

the SI unit of electric charge

question

ohm

answer

the SI unit of electrical current

question

watt

answer

the SI unit of power

question

volt

answer

the unit of electromotive force and electric potential

question

filament

answer

a thin wire conductor in a light bulb

question

series circut

answer

a circut through which the electrical current flows in a single continuous path.

question

kilowatt

answer

a unit of electricity equal to 1,000 watts

question

static electricity

answer

a stationary electric charge that builds up on an insulated object

question

conductor

answer

a substance or medium that allows heat, electricity, light, or sound to pass along it or through it

question

kinetic energy

answer

energy that a body possesses becasue of its motion

question

transformer

answer

a device that changes electrical energy from one alternating circut to another

question

electromagnetic

answer

a soft metal core made into a magnet by the passage of electricity through a coil surrounding it

question

solenoid

answer

a type of electromagnetic constructed so that the core moves, usually linearly, when electricity is passed through it

question

magnetic field

answer

a space surrounding a magnetized body or current-carrying circut

question

aurora

answer

a phenomenon occuring in the night sky around the polar regions, caused by gases in the atmosphere which interact with solar particles

question

compass

answer

a device for finding direction which uses a magnetized needle that automatically swings to the magnetic north

question

magnetic domain

answer

a small, magnetized region of a magnetic surface

question

galvanometer

answer

an instrument used to measure electric current by means of a coil in a magnetic field that moves a pointer or light

question

polarity

answer

the quality or having two oppositely charges poles, one positive and one negative

question

magnet

answer

a piece of metal that has the power to draw iron or steel objects toward it and to hold or move them

question

transmutation

answer

the process that changes one element into another through nuclear delay

question

srong force

answer

the force that holds particles together in a nucleus

question

alpha particle

answer

a positive particle consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons; the nucleus of a helium atom

question

alpha radiation

answer

the least-penetrating type of radiation; can be stopped by a sheet of paper

question

cloud chamber

answer

a device used to detect the movement of high energy particles as they pass through a chamber of supersaturated vapor

question

Geiger counter

answer

a device used to detect and measure radiation

question

beta particle

answer

an electron created by radioactive emission

question

tracer

answer

a radioactive isotope that can be detected by the radiation it emits

question

bubble chamber

answer

a chamber in which the trail of a particle can be observed as a line of bubbles created by a particle

question

chain reaction

answer

a series of nuclear reactions in which neutrons produced by a fission cause more friction

question

displacement

answer

the amount of movement in a particular direction

question

force

answer

a physical influence that tends to change the postion of an object with mass

question

inertia

answer

the tendancy for a body at rest to stay at rest, or a body in motion to stay at motion, unless acted upon by a force

question

friction

answer

resistance encountered by a moving object

question

static friction

answer

resistance between two objects that are in contact but are not moving

question

sliding friction

answer

the frictional resistance an object in motion experiences

question

velocity

answer

the speed at which something moves or happens

question

acceleration

answer

the rate at which something increases in velocity

question

centripetal

answer

moving or pulling toward a center or axis

question

gravity

answer

the force that tends to pull all bodies in Earth's sphere toward the center of the Earth

question

calculus

answer

a branch of mathematics that studies continuously changing quantities

question

air resistance

answer

the force of air pushing against a moving object

question

weight

answer

the gravitational force exerted on a mass

question

momentum

answer

the motion of a body and its resistance to slowing down

question

matter

answer

a substance or material of a particular kind

question

photovoltaic

answer

a photoelectric cell that detects and measure light intensity

question

solar thermal

answer

the use of radiation from the sun to produce heat energy

question

renewable

answer

an unlimited supply or resource

question

fractional distillation

answer

the separation of components from a volatile liquid that have different boiling points

question

turbine

answer

a machine which uses steam or another fluid in motion to move rotation blades; the rotay motion is then turned into electrical or mechanical power

question

generator

answer

a device that converts mechanical energy into electricity

question

biomass

answer

the mass or organisms in the ecosystem, measured in terms of weight per unit of area

question

sedimentary

answer

used to describe ricks formed from eroded material

question

geothermal energy

answer

the heat energy found below the earth's surface

question

fossil fuel

answer

fuel made from decomposed remains of prehistoric plants and animals

question

gamma radiation

answer

high-energy electromagnetic raditation

question

mechanical advantage

answer

the ratio output force to input force for a machine

question

law of conservation of mass

answer

the scientific law which states that mass can be neither created nor destoyed during a chemical reaction, only changed from one form to another

question

decay

answer

to undergo spontaneous disintergration

question

copper

answer

a reddish brown metallic chemical element that bends easily and is a good conductor of electricty and heat

question

aluminum

answer

a light metallic element that is ductile, malleable, and resistant to corrosion

question

focal length

answer

the distance from the center of a lens to the focal point

question

specific heat

answer

the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of substance by one degree

question

photosynthesis

answer

process by which plants use sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to make food; also produces a large part of the oxygen in the atmosphere

question

Linnaeus

answer

system of naming plants and animals

question

nucleus

answer

the part of a cell which contains genetic material

question

carbon dioxide

answer

a nonpoisonous gas created by respiration and by the decomposition of living organisms

question

chloroplasts

answer

structures in the cells of leaves contain chlorophyll

question

endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

answer

a net-like system within the cytoplasm involved in the synthesis, modification, and transportation of cellular materials

question

virus

answer

an organism that causes an infectious disease

question

species

answer

a group of related organisms sharing common characteristics

question

kingdom

answer

the scientific classifications into which organisms are grouped

question

organelles

answer

compartments within cells that perform specific functions; the nucleus, for example

question

mitiosis

answer

the process by which a cell divides

question

meiosis cell

answer

division that produces reproductive cells

question

metaphase

answer

stage of mitosis when the chromosomes line up along the center of the cell

question

anaphase

answer

stage of mitiosis in which the chromosomes begin to separate

question

Punnett square

answer

tool used to show the potential offspring of two parents

question

chromosomes

answer

a structure in the nucleus of a cell composed of DNA and protein

question

phenotype

answer

the observable characteristics of a cell or organism

question

dominent

answer

gene that determines the characteristics in the organism

question

homozygous

answer

having two identical versions of a specific gene

question

heterozygous

answer

possessing two different forms of a specific gene

question

zoologist

answer

a person who specializes in animal life

question

flagellum

answer

a whip-like structure of a cell responsible for cell movement

question

pigment

answer

a naturally occuring substance in a plant thta gives the plant its color

question

bacillus

answer

a rod-shaped bacterium

question

bioremediation

answer

process used to clean up contaminated land using bacteria and organisms to neutralize soil contaminants

question

coccus

answer

a kind of bacterium with a spherical shape

question

fission

answer

the division of a single-celled organism into two equal parts

question

anaerobes

answer

a microorganism that does not require oxygen for growth

question

capsule

answer

structure that allows bacteria to stick to surfaces

question

spirillum

answer

a spiral-shaped bacterium

question

ribosome

answer

an organelle that produces protein in cells

question

cytoplasm

answer

cellular substance which surrounds the nucleus and holds genetic material

question

dinoflagellate

answer

a single-celled organism found in fresh and marine waters with characteristics of both plants and animals

question

fungus

answer

a plant-like organism which does not make chlorophyll

question

protozoan

answer

a single-celled organism that can move and feed on organic compounds

question

mycology

answer

the specialty of studying fungi

question

zygosphere

answer

a plant spore formed by meiosis

question

lichen

answer

a plant that is a combination of a fungus and an agla; commonly grows on trees or rocks

question

protist

answer

single-celled organism which has an eukarotic cell but is not a member of the plant, fungal, or animal kingdoms

question

spore

answer

an asexual reproductive structure which can produce a new organism; fungi, algae, and many other organisms produce spores rather than seeds

question

algae

answer

simple. rootless plants tha grow in water in proportion of availible nutrients

question

chlorophyll

answer

green pigment found in plants, algae, and some bacteria; needed to aid in the process of photosynthesis

question

African sleeping sickness

answer

disease transmitted by the bite of the tsetse fly

question

vascular

answer

relating to plants with tissues that have the ability to carry fluid

question

dicot

answer

flowering plant whose seedlings have two seed leaves; for example, a bean

question

gymnosperm

answer

a plant with bare seeds, as with the pines, where the seeds are attached at the base of the scales in the cone

question

xylem

answer

a type of plant tissue that carries water and dissolved minerals from the roots through the stem and leaves

question

angiosperm

answer

a flowering plant whose seeds have a covering of some kind, such as a pod or a fruit

question

phloem

answer

food-transporting tissue of a plant; also know as the inner bark

question

cone

answer

the seed-bearing part of pines and firs

question

monocot

answer

a flowering plant whose seedling has only one seed leaf; for example, grass

question

cuticle

answer

the waxy, protective layer which covers the stem, leaves, and flowers of many plants and helps provent water loss

question

moss

answer

small, leafy flowerless plant that grows in moist, shaded areas

question

fertilization

answer

the process of reproduction by pollination

question

ovule

answer

small structure in a seed plant that contains the eggs and, when fertilised by pollen , develpoes into seeds

question

stigma

answer

the part of the flower's female reproductive system taht receives the male pollen grains

question

germination

answer

the beginning growth of a seed or spore

question

symbiotic

answer

a close association between two different species in which both species benefit

question

anther

answer

the part of the flower which produces pollen

question

frond

answer

refers to the leaf structure of ferns or palms

question

endosperm

answer

the tissue of a seed containing the nutrients

question

sporophyte

answer

the spore-producing stage in the life cycle of a plant

question

ovary

answer

the lower part of the pistil that contains immature seeds

question

stomata

answer

tiny pore in the outer layer of a plant leaf that regulates the movement of gases(water vapor and others) between the plant and the atmosphere

question

respiration

answer

process by which energy is released by food

question

producer

answer

an organism which makes its own food

question

epidermis

answer

the outside layer of cells on a plant which helps prevent injury

question

mitochondrion

answer

energy-producing cellular organelles found outside the nucleus that convert food to energy

question

tropism

answer

plant growth toward or away from an environmental stimulus such as heat or light

question

stimulus

answer

the cause of physical response in an organism

question

hormones

answer

a regulating chemical in plants

question

vacuole

answer

a space in the cytoplasm of a cell which stores food and fluid

question

cell wall

answer

a tough, rigid structure outside of the cell membrance in plant cells

question

cnidarian

answer

invertebrate water animal which has tentacles

question

omnivores

answer

an animal whose food source consists of both plants and animals

question

herbivores

answer

an animal which feeds only on grass and other plants

question

vertebrate

answer

an animal with a backbone

question

carnivore

answer

an animal that eats other animals

question

polyp

answer

a cnidarian with a cylindrical body

question

medusa

answer

a cnidarian with a transparent, umbrella-shaped body

question

mimicry

answer

plants and animals which closely resemble another species as a form of protection

question

parasite

answer

an organism that lives and feeds on another living organism for competion of its life cycle, and which is typically detrimental to the host

question

symmetry

answer

the characteristic of being the same on both sides of a central dividing line

question

sea anemone

answer

colorful sea animal of the cnidarian family which attaches to rock or other nonliving material

question

sponge

answer

a sessile marine organism with a porous, fiberous skeleton

question

athropods

answer

invertebrate animals that have jointed bodies and jointed limbs

question

metamorphosis

answer

the change which takes place as an animal developes into an adult (tadpole to frog, caterpillar to butterfly)

question

radula

answer

a band of tissue containing rows of small teeth in the mouths of some mollusks

question

echinoderms

answer

a marine invertebrate animal with tube feet and five-part radially symmetrical bodies

question

molting

answer

an athropod's process of shedding an old exoskeleton

question

setae

answer

rigid, bristle-like structures in worms that assist in movement

question

mollusk

answer

an invertebrate with a soft, unsegmented body; usually has a shell

question

spiracles

answer

small opening in an insect along the side of the thorax or abdomen controlling the flow of air into and out of the body

question

appendage

answer

a body part that sticks out from the main part of the body

question

bivalve

answer

a mollusk with a hinged shell; oysters, mussels, and clams are examples

question

gizzard

answer

structure in invertebrates and fish where digestion occurs

question

crop

answer

a pouch in athe digestive tract of an insect or earthworm

question

exoskeleton

answer

gard, protective outer covering of an organism

question

reptile

answer

a cold-blooded animal which breathes air and lays eggs

question

amphibian

answer

a cold-blooded animal that spends time on land but breeds in water

question

endoskeleton

answer

the internal skeleton of an animal

question

cartilage

answer

the tough, elastic tissue in the body

question

mammal

answer

warm-blooded animals who are equipped to nurse their young

question

endotherm

answer

warm-blooded animal which can maintain its body temperature regardless of temperature changes in its environment

question

ectotherm

answer

cold-blooded animal which maintains its body temperature by taking in heat from its environment

question

venom

answer

a poisonous fluid produced and injected by an animal to protect itself or to subdue its prey

question

hibernation

answer

a dormant, sleeplike state accompanied by a very low body temperature and metabolic rate; certain animals fall into this during winter

question

notochord

answer

a rod of cells that supports the body of a chordate

question

scales

answer

bony plates on fish, some reptiles, and mammals

question

larva

answer

immature or early form of an insect, amphibian, or fish

question

down

answer

a covering of soft hair or fluffy feathers

question

manatee

answer

a very large, plant-eating mammal that lives in warm coastal waters

question

monotremes

answer

an egg-laying mammal

question

marsupial

answer

a mammal with a pouch used to carry their immature young

question

gestation

answer

the period of time when the embryo develops in the uterus

question

keratin

answer

fibrous protein found in hair, nails, feathers, and hooves

question

placenta

answer

vascular organ that supplies food and oxygen to the fetus inside the uterus of a pregnant mammal

question

preen

answer

the process birds go through to clean and to rub oil over their feathers

question

circulatory

answer

the body's blood-pumping system

question

contour

answer

contour feathers are the tail and wing feathers, the strong and stiff ones adapted for aerodynamics and speed

question

cyclic

answer

occuring repeatedly during specific intervals of time

question

social

answer

behavior of a species living together in a group

question

imprinting

answer

the early social attachment of animals that results in strong behavioral patterns specific to its own species

question

migration

answer

a cyclical behavior in which a group of animals move together from one region to another

question

pheromone

answer

a scent which is secreted by an animal, influencing behavior and development of other members of the same species

question

instinctive

answer

behavior in which an animal reacts out of a strong natural impulse

question

innate

answer

qualities which are present at birth

question

insight

answer

a learned behavior which allows animals to use past experiences to solve new problems

question

aggression

answer

a territorial behavior exhibited by the threatening actions of one animal to another

question

bioluminescence

answer

the light given off by some organisms such as fireflies

question

territorial

answer

animal tendency to protect an area from intruders of the same species, especially other males

question

tendons

answer

a connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone or other body part

question

dermis

answer

the layer of skin under the epidermis which contains blood, lymph vessels, sweat glands, and nerve endings

question

skeletal system

answer

the system of bones supporting the soft tissue and protecting the internal organs of the body

question

muscle

answer

an elastic tissue that functions to produce movement of body parts and body fluids

question

periosteum

answer

the connective tissue surrounding all bones of the body except those at the joints

question

ligaments

answer

the bands of tough tissue that connect bones or cartilage at a joint or that support an organ or muscle

question

melanin

answer

a dark brown or black pigment found in skin, hair, eyes, fur, or feathers of people, animals, and plants

question

joint

answer

the point at which two or more bones in the body come together

question

bruise

answer

a discoloration of the skin caused by injury to blood vessels

question

voluntary

answer

a controlled response

question

involuntary

answer

an uncontrolled response

question

nutrient

answer

a substance that provides nourishment for the body

question

digestion

answer

the breaking down of food in the body so that it can be used or excreted

question

salivary glands

answer

glands that producce and release digestive juices (saliva) in the mouth

question

carbohydrate

answer

food energy source for humans and animals such as sugar and starch

question

villus

answer

part of the small intestine

question

esophagus

answer

the pathway in the throat through which food moves between the throat and the stomach

question

enzyme

answer

a protein controlling biochemical reactions

question

chyme

answer

a mass of partially digested food and gastric secretions passed from the stomach to the small intestine

question

protein

answer

a food source rich in amino acids

question

peristalsis

answer

involuntary muscle contractions that transport food and waste through a tube-shaped organ such as the intestine

question

calorie

answer

a unit of energy equal to the heat needed to raise the temperature of one kg of pure water by one degree Calcius

question

atrium

answer

one of the upper chambers of the heart

question

ventricles

answer

the lower chambers of the heart

question

lymph

answer

fluid containing the white blood cells

question

pulmonary circulation

answer

the flow of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart

question

plasma

answer

the clear, yellow fluid part of blood

question

tricuspid

answer

a heart valve with three flaps; prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts

question

mitral

answer

a heart valve that lies between the left atrium and left ventricle; prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium when the left ventricle contracts

question

lymphatic

answer

a vessel that transports or contains lymph

question

platelets

answer

colorless cells whose main function is to control bleeding

question

cardiovascular system

answer

the system made up of heart, blood vessels, and blood

question

microscopic

answer

unable to be seen without the aid of a microscope

question

capillaries

answer

the thin blood vessels that connect small arteries with small veins

question

systemic circulation

answer

the circulation of the blood throughout the body

question

hypertension

answer

elevated blood pressure

question

coronary

answer

the arteries and veins that supply blood to and from the muscle tissue of the heart

question

diffusion

answer

the process of distributing nutrients to the cells

question

aorta

answer

the main artery leaving the heart

question

vena cava

answer

main veins leading into the heart

question

blood vessels

answer

tubes that carry blood throughout the body

question

bronchi

answer

the two main air passages leading from the trachea which allow air to move in and out of the lungs

question

urine

answer

the liquid waste product of vertebrates

question

cellular respiration

answer

the process by which glucose is converted into energy

question

alveoli

answer

air sacs in the lung

question

respiratory system

answer

the system of organs that process air in the body, including the nose, throat and lungs

question

asthma

answer

respiratory disease characterized by wheezing and shortness of breath

question

kidneys

answer

the pair of organs responsible for filtering waste liquid in the body

question

trachea

answer

the airway that leads from the larynx to the lungs

question

diaphragm

answer

muscular wall below the rib cage which expands the chest for breathing

question

emphysema

answer

lung disease in which the air sacs are dilated resulting in breathing impairment

question

excretory system

answer

the organs that elimate waste from the body

question

nephrons

answer

small tubes in the kidneys

question

urethra

answer

the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body

question

glucose

answer

a simple sugar which is the main source of energy for the body

question

lobe

answer

a rounded part of an organ, as in the lungs, brain, or liver

question

dialysis

answer

the mechanical filtering of waste products from the blood of a patient whose kidneys are not working properly

question

nervous system

answer

the body system that receives stimuli, decides on their importance, and sends nerve impulses to the organs of action; consists of the central nervous system ( brain and spinal cord) and the peripheral nervous system (all nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord)

question

neurons

answer

cells that transmit nerve impulses and are the basic units of the nervous system

question

axons

answer

the extensions of a nerve cell that transmit impulses outward or away from the cell body

question

dendrites

answer

extensions of a nerve cell that receive electrical signals

question

central nervous system

answer

the control network for the human body; is composed of the brain and spinal cord; one of the two major divisions of the nervous system

question

cerebellum

answer

part of the brain which controls and coordinates muscular activity and balance

question

retina

answer

a light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye which receives an image from the lens and sends it to the brain

question

hammer

answer

tiny bone located in the inner ear

question

brain stem

answer

the part of the brain closest to the spinal cord that controls involuntary functions like breathing and heart rate

question

saliva

answer

liquid secreted into the mouth by the salivary glands which moistens food and begins the breakdown of starches

question

peripheral nervous system

answer

the nerves in the body that lie outside of the brain and spinal cord

question

concave

answer

curved inward

question

convex

answer

curved outward

question

cranial

answer

relating to the skull

question

somatic system

answer

system that controls all voluntary systems within the body with the exception of reflex arcs

question

autonomic system

answer

the part of the nervous system that controls involuntary activity such as the action of the heart, lungs, and intestines

question

olfactory cells

answer

relating to the sense of smell

question

rods

answer

cells in the retina used to detect shape and movement

question

homeostasis

answer

the natural regulatory mechanism of the body

question

taste buds

answer

receptors primarily on the tongue that enable us to detect sweet, salty, sour and bitter

question

endocrine system

answer

the system of glands in the human body which is responsible for producing hormones

question

fraternal

answer

relating to twins that developed from two seperate ova, rather than a single ovum

question

identical

answer

relating to twins that developed from a single ovum in a single placental sac; these twins closely resemble one another

question

amniotic sac

answer

the sac which holds the baby in the uterus; contains the baby, placenta and amniotic fluid

question

reproduction

answer

the production of offspring

question

hormones

answer

produced by the endocrine glands, these substances act as messengers to cells and organs in the body

question

puberty

answer

the state of physical development when sexual reproduction first becomes possible

question

fetus

answer

in mammals, a stage of development in which all organs have formed, from the eighth week after conception until the moment of birth

question

embryo

answer

in mammals, the stage of development from conception to eight weeks

question

thyroid gland

answer

the gland which helps regulate growth and metabolism

question

thymus gland

answer

a gland involved in the development of cells of the immune system

question

pituitary gland

answer

the main gland of the endocrine system

question

pineal gland

answer

small gland responsible for production of melatonin

question

uterus

answer

the organ which holds and nourishes the embryo during development

question

immune system

answer

system that works to seek and kill invaders of the body

question

menstrual cycle

answer

monthly cycle of female hormonal changes from the beginning of one menstrual period to the beginning of the next

question

ovulation

answer

the ripening and release of an egg or eggs from the ovary for possible fertilization

question

scrotum

answer

the pouch of skin and muscle containing the testicles

question

umbilical cord

answer

the cord that carries blood, oxygen, and nutrients from the plancenta to the baby during pregnancy

question

gland

answer

an organ that produces and releases one or more substances for use in the body

question

tonsils

answer

organs at the back of the throat that help the body figh toff viral and bacterial infections

question

antibody

answer

a protein that combines with an antigen and counteracts in its effects

question

allergens

answer

any substance that triggers an allergic reaction

question

immunity

answer

a body's ability to resist a specific disease

question

communicable

answer

easily transmitted from one person to another

question

vector

answer

carrier of an infectious agent; capable of transmitting infection from one host to another

question

antigens

answer

a substance that simulates the production of antibodies

question

chronic illness

answer

a recurring ilness

question

asbestos

answer

a mineral fiber used in the past for fireproofing and insulation; banned by EPA because it was found to cause caner when inhaled

question

the molecules

answer

the smallest parts of matter

question

pathogens

answer

a disease-producing organism

question

chemotherapy

answer

the use of chemical agents to treat cancer and other diseases

question

abiotic

answer

nonliving

question

biotic

answer

living

question

chemosynthesis

answer

the process by which some bacteria use chemicals to provide the energy they need for life

question

evaporation

answer

the process in which a liquid is changed to a vapor without its temperature reaching the boiling point

question

condensation

answer

water droplets that form on cold surface when warmer air comes in contact with it

question

transpiration

answer

the loss of water vapor from a plant's surface

question

precipitaion

answer

the formation of rain, snow, or hail from moisture in the air

question

ecosystems

answer

a community of different species interacting with one another and their environment

question

biomes

answer

an ecological community of organisms and environments

question

taiga

answer

sub-arctic forests located south of a tundra

question

tundra

answer

treeless plain between the ice cap and the timber line that had permanently frozen subsoil

question

wetlands

answer

an area of land, marsh or swamp, where the soil near the surface is covered with water

question

acid rain

answer

rain that has becom acidic from mixing with industrial pollutants in the atmosphere (like oxidated sulphur and nitrogen)

question

recycling

answer

the processing of waste for reuse

question

solar energy

answer

using the sun as an energy source

question

nuclear energy

answer

energy released by nuclear fission or fusion

question

nitrogen cycle

answer

nitrogen circulation between air and plants

question

smog

answer

a mixture of fog and smoke which creates a type of pollution

question

energy pyramid

answer

a pyramid diagram showing the loss of useful energy at each steop in a food chain

question

covalent bonds

answer

chemical bonding where some atoms share electrons to hold a molecule together

question

molecule

answer

term used to describe a group of atoms connected by covalent bonds

question

compound

answer

substance made up of more than one element

question

states of matter

answer

solids, gases, liquids, and plasmas

question

element

answer

substance composed of only one type of atom

question

crystals

answer

solids in which the atoms are arranged in a repeating, orderly pattern

question

streak

answer

property revealed by rubbing a mineral on an unglazed seramic tile to determine the color of the mineral in powdered form

question

luster

answer

term used to describe how a mineral reflects light

question

halite

answer

salt or sodium cholride; colorless or white mineral occuring as cubic crystals

question

mineral properties

answer

luster, streak, hardness, and fracture

question

hardness

answer

strength of the structure of the mineral compared to the strength of its chemical bonds, tested through scratching

question

fracture

answer

one way that a mineral can break; smoothly curved, irregular, jagged, or splintery

question

silicon

answer

nonmetallic element found only as a compound with other elements in nature

question

clevage

answer

another way that a mineral can break; found mainly in crystalline minerals like diamonds which can break in straight planes when struck

question

sediment

answer

particles of eroded rock or other plant or animal matter that are transported and deposited by water, wind, ice, or gravity

question

foliated rock

answer

rock that has a layered appearance, formed or composed of separable layers

question

igneous rock

answer

type of rock formed by intense heat or from solidification of molten magma

question

sedimentary

answer

type of rock formed from eroded material or sediment

question

metamorphic

answer

type of rock characterized by a change in physical form, appearance, or character

question

lava

answer

type of molten rock that comes from a volcano; magma that has reached the surface of earth

question

intrusive rock

answer

type of rock that is formed by being forced into the holes, cracks, or layers of preexisting rocks while in a molten state

question

obsidian

answer

volcanic glass that is formed by rapid cooling of lava and usually black in color; used by early civilizations to make tools and special objects

question

magma

answer

molten rock that is in a liquid state under the earth's crust; forms igneous rock when cooled at earth's surface

question

coal

answer

black or dark brown sedimentary rock used as a fuel; formed by the decompostition of plant material

question

latitude

answer

how far north or south of the equarot a point id on earth's surface

question

prime meridian

answer

imaginary line that runs from north to south though Greenwich, England; at 0 degrees longitude, all other longitudes are figured from this one

question

longitude

answer

the east or west distance between a point on the earth and the prime meridian

question

map projection

answer

a flat map that shows our three-dimensional eath

question

cartography

answer

the study and creation of maps

question

elevation

answer

height of an area, object, or land form on the earth's surface above sea level

question

topographic map

answer

map showing the physical features and elevation of an area

question

coastal plain

answer

flat. low-lying land next to a sea coast

question

plateau

answer

an elevated, mostly level or flat area of land

question

volcano

answer

vent or opening in earth's surface through which molten magma (lava), ash, and gases are released

question

fault-black

answer

mountain formed by the uplift of land between faults or the lowering of land outside of the faults

question

equator

answer

imaginary circle around the surface of earth halfway between the North and South Poles

question

horizons

answer

layers of soil visible in a vertical cross section

question

oxidation

answer

chemical reaction where oxygen is combined with another element or compound to yield a different compund (example: iron + oxygen + rust)

question

carbonation

answer

process where dissolved carbon dioxide in rainwater creates carbonic acid and reacts with minerals in a rock to break it down

question

hydrolysis

answer

process where hydrogen in rainwater reacts with minerals in a rock to break it down

question

abraision

answer

form of weathering that occurs when sand or other small particles transported by air collide with surfaces and break them down

question

chemical weathering

answer

process in which rocks decompose or disintergrate by chemical processes such as oxidation, carbonation, or hydrolysis

question

mechanical weathering

answer

process where rocks are broken down into smaller pieces and their edges are rounded by abrasion, gravity, and freezing water

question

erosion

answer

the wearing away of land surface (soil) or rocks by wind, water, or ice

question

leaching

answer

process by which soil nutrients are carried away by water or washed deeper into the soil

question

limestone

answer

sedimentary rock formed mostly from the calcium carbonate remains of marine animals such as shells; used to make cement and lime

question

terrace farming

answer

transformation of a cary steep slope into usable farmland by creating a series of level steps or terraces; these terraces or steps retain water and keep plants and seeds from washing downhill

question

glacier

answer

very large mass of ice and snow that moves slowly downhill because of its own weight; is an agent of erosion; formed in areas where sonw falls faster than it melts

question

mass movement

answer

downhill movement of earth materials due to gravity

question

creep

answer

form of erosion caused by gravity where uphill particles fall downhill very slowly; form of mass movement

question

mudflow

answer

rapid downward movement of wet soil; form of mass movement

question

slump

answer

mass movement or lanslide where moving earth moves downward in a block or multiple blocks and can create a small upslope in the process

question

subsidence

answer

downward movement of earth

question

beach erosion

answer

the wearing away of a beach by tides, currents, and waves

question

wind erosion

answer

wind action primarily known for smoothing and rounding landscapes as sand and dust carried by wind wear away rocks and land surface

question

loess

answer

windblown, dusty, chalky soil or silt; usually yellowish-brown

question

striatioin

answer

scratch or groove on a rock formed by a glacier or stream

question

deposition

answer

opposite of erosion; also known as sedimentation; sediment which eroded from another location, was transported by wind,water, or ice, and deposited

question

deflation

answer

wind erosion where sand, clay, and silt particles are removed from the land's surface

question

eskers

answer

long, winding ridges of sand and gravel deposited by streams that flows in or under glaciers

question

glacial till

answer

rocks and material left behind by a glacier

question

moraine

answer

new landform crated by the accumulation of rocks, soil, and other debris carried and deposited by a glacier (glacial till)

question

cirque

answer

bowl-shaped valley with steep walls on a mountain eroded by a glacier

question

crust

answer

very thin outer layer of the earth (25 miles under the continents, two to three miles under the oceans); broken into pieces called plates

question

mantle

answer

thickest layer of the earth (about 1800 miles thick); made of hot, dense rock that flows and moves due to temperature differences in the mantle

question

outer core

answer

1800 miles beneath the crust; composed of nickel and iron in a liquid state due to high temperatures

question

inner core

answer

very hot (4,000 to 9,000 degrees F) solid center of the earth composed mainly of nickel and iron; solid due to extremely high pressure; about 3200 miles below the earth's surface and about 800 miles thick.

question

epicenter

answer

point on the earth's surface directly above the source of an earthquake

question

seismograph

answer

device that detects, measures, and records earthquake vibrations

question

seismologist

answer

scientist who measures and studies earthquakes

question

Richter Scale

answer

collection of mathematical formulas that measure the strength of an earthquake; developed by Charles Richter in 1935

question

tsunami

answer

huge ocean waves generated after an earthquake at sea where there is a sudden drop or rise of a large section of the ocean floor

question

surface wave

answer

vibration from an earthquake that travels along the surface of the earth and can topple buildings during an earthquake

question

body waves

answer

vibration from an earthquake that travels deep within the earth; two types are primary and secondary waves

question

primary wave

answer

type of body wave that compresses and expands rock as it travels through the earth

question

secondary wave

answer

type of body wave that shakes and twists the earth sideways as it travels; moves at about half the speed of the primary wave

question

magnitude

answer

measure of the size or energy of an earthquake

question

elasticity

answer

property that alllows a material to bend and change shape

question

seismic wave

answer

vibration that travels through the earth, usually due to an earthquake

question

liquefaction

answer

process of changing a solid or gas into a liquid

question

normal fault

answer

break in the earth's crust where a block of rocks shifts downwards

question

strike-flip fault

answer

break in the earth's crust where rocks on either side of the fault split and slide past each other

question

plate boundaries

answer

edges of the plates that make up the broken surface of the earth

question

volcanic eruption

answer

violent discharge of steam, lava, and ash from a volcano; usually occurs on or near the continental plate boundaries; produces ash, granite and basalt

question

sill

answer

flat mass of igneous rock between two layers of older, existing sedimentary rock; mass is usually horizontal

question

volcanic neck

answer

massive, crudely cylindrical pillar of rock that was the inside (neck) of a volcano which filled with magma and hardened many years ago; is now exposed due to surface area erosion around the projection

question

batholith

answer

huge mass of igneous rock (greater than 40 square miles) with no known bottom; believed to have solidified deep within the earth

question

caldera

answer

large bowl-shaped volcanic depression formed at the top of a volcano when the vent collapsed; sometimes filled with water

question

Krakatoa

answer

volcano on the Indonesian island of Rakata; has erupted many times throughout history with disastrous consequences

question

Hawaiian Islands

answer

islands in the Pacific Ocean; formed in a nearly straight line because the Pacific plate moved very slowly over a hot spot in the Earth's mantle layer

question

La Soufriere

answer

volcano on the Caribbean island of Montserrat known for its high levels of silica, a substance potentially hazardous to humans

question

Kilauea

answer

youngest volcano on the Big Island of Hawaii; possibly the world's most active volcano with continuous eruptive activity since 1983

question

tephra

answer

bits of solidified lava that fall from the air and can be as small as ash or as large as rocks

question

Mt. St. Helens

answer

active volcano in Washington state that had a massive eruption in 1980 which produced tremendous amounts of ash

question

composite volcanos

answer

tall, symmetrical, steep-sided volcanoes, also known as stratovolcanoes

question

shield volcano

answer

flat, broad volcano such as Mauna Loa in Hawaii

question

Paricutin Volcano

answer

Mexican volcano that appeared first as a crack in a cornfield then eventually produced 10 square miles of lava and buried most of Paracutin and nearby San Juan

question

cinder cone

answer

volcanic cone that forms above ground around a vent; is made of cinders (loose volcanic fragments) and bombs (ashes and blobs of congealed lava)

question

Pangaea

answer

name given to ancient super-continent consisting of all of earth's masses; theory was proposed by German meteorologist Alfred Wegener in 1915

question

continental drift

answer

the gradual movement and formation of continents; idea supported by fossil evidence of same unique plants/animals on multiple continents

question

plate tectonics

answer

theory that the earth's surface is broken into plates the size and position of which change over time; this theory supports the continental drift theory

question

subduction zone

answer

an area on earth where two tectonic plates meet; one plate slides underneath the other, moves down into the mantle and melts

question

fossils

answer

traces or remains of animals or plants from long ago

question

lithosphere

answer

crust and the uppermost part of the earth's mantle

question

asthenosphere

answer

lower layer of the mantle that flows and moves the plates of the earth

question

ropy lava

answer

long trails of lava that form spirals

question

magnetic reversals

answer

changes in earth's magnetism (evidenced in rods) due to slow movements in earth's liquid outer core; this phenomenon supports the idea that the sea floor is changing and spreading

question

convection

answer

material movement in gases and liquids due to density or concentration differences which are often a result of heat

question

fossil formation

answer

accomplished by permineralization, carbon film, or molds

question

permineralization

answer

the process in which minerals are deposited into a bony fossil

question

carbon film

answer

a type of fossil formation normally involving plants where a plant's oils leach out and only a black carbon film remains

question

mold

answer

a type of fossil formation where an organism is buried in mud, clay, or another material which hardens, the organism decays, and an imprint of the organism is left in the hardened material

question

rock record

answer

ancient history recorded in rock layers

question

unconfomity

answer

a boundary seperating two or more rocks of markedly different ages, marking a gap in the geologic period

question

index fossils

answer

fossils that existed during limited periods of time; used to determine the age of the rocks in which they are preserved

question

carbon dating

answer

dating method that uses carbon-14 to determine the age of the materials

question

uniformitarianism

answer

principle which states that sediments formed in ancient sedimentary rocks were deposited in the same way sediments are deposited today

question

superposition

answer

principle stating that in undisturbed situations, the oldest layers of rock are on the bottom

question

fossilized footprints

answer

evidence of early human ancestors found by Mary Leakey in Africa

question

trilobite

answer

extinct marine organism that lived in earth's oceans for more than 200 million years; thought to be ancestor of today's joint-footed organisms; crabs, centipedes, spiders, etc.

question

eon

answer

longest block of time in geology

question

era

answer

period of time that is a sundivisioin of an eon

question

period

answer

divisioin of an era into smaller time frames

question

epoch

answer

division of a period into smaller time blocks

question

Precambrian Eon

answer

time period from the formation of earth up until about 600 million years ago

question

Phanerozoic Eon

answer

time period from 600 million years ago until now

question

Paleozoic Era

answer

time period from about 600 million years ago to 245 million years ago when the super continent pangaea is thought to have been formed and the first fish, land plants, amphibians, and reptiles firs appeared; first era of the Phanerozoic Eon

question

Mesozoic Era

answer

time period from between 245 million years ago to 5 million years ago when dinosaurs, the first birds, and mammals appeared; period ended by mass extinction; second era of the Phanerozoic Eon

question

Cenozoic Era

answer

time period that spans from 65 million years ago until now; the Age of Mammals; the third era of the Phanerozoic Eon

question

cyanobacteria

answer

organism from the Precambrian Eon that contained chlorophyll and contributed oxygen to earth's atmosphere through photosynthesis; created our oldest fossils

question

Charles Darwin

answer

English scientist who wrote the book The Origin of Species (1859) and achieved lastingn fame for his theory of evolution

question

evolution

answer

process of change over time

question

Tyrannosaurus

answer

mobile, meat-eating dinosaur from the Jurassic period

question

species

answer

group of organisms that normally breed only among themselves

question

troposphere

answer

lowest layer of earth's atmosphere; extends from earth's surface up to about 8 miles high

question

stratosphere

answer

atmospheric layer above the troposphere; 9 to 31 miles above the earth

question

mesosphere

answer

layer above the stratosphere; about 31 to 50 miles above the earth

question

thermosphere

answer

outermost layer of earth's atmosphere where gas molecules split apart into ions

question

ionosphere

answer

lower part of the thermosphere; reflects radio waves

question

sea breeze

answer

a breeze that forms when warmer air over the land rises and cooler costal air rushes in to replace it

question

atmospheric pressure

answer

force exerted by the weight of the air; as altitude (height above earth's surface) increases, atmospheric pressure decreases because air is less dense, and vice versa (altitude decreases, pressure increases)

question

water cycle

answer

continuous process of moving water from the earth to the atmosphere and back again; evaporation, condesation, precipitation

question

ozone layer

answer

exists in the stratosphere; atmospheric layer of oxygen that exists as ozone and absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation

question

jet stream

answer

fast moving river of air that flows from east to west over North America and directs our weather systems

question

trade winds

answer

strong tropical winds blowing toward low pressure regioins at the equator; the blow from east to west in the Northern Hemisphere

question

prevailing westerlies

answer

winds in the middle latitudes that generally blow opposite the trade winds; primarily responsible for blowing weather patterns across the United States

question

doldrums

answer

areas near the equator where the is little or no wind

question

conduction

answer

transfer of heat through materials

question

convection

answer

heat transfer by circulation through a gas or liquid

question

radiation

answer

energy or heat carried in waves or rays

question

coriolis effect

answer

curving motion of wind or water caused by the earth's rotation

question

chlorofluorocarbons

answer

also know as CFC's; chemical substances once used in refridgeratiors and air conditioners that destroy the ozone layer when they break down

question

weather

answer

state of the atmosphere at a specific time and place

question

humidity

answer

water vapor in the air

question

tornado

answer

severe storm with a violent, rotating column of air that can have wind speeds greater than 150 miles per hour

question

tropical storm

answer

organized thunderstorm over tropical waters with winds from 39 to 74 miles per hour; storm winds spin due to earth's rotation

question

hurricane

answer

severe tropical storm with sustained winds of 75 miles per hour or more; starts over the ocean and is the most powerful type of storm on earth

question

cirrus clouds

answer

high, thin, featherlike clouds of ice crystals

question

altocumulus clouds

answer

white or gray medium altitude clouds that usually occur in layers or patches of wavy rounded masses or rolls

question

stratus clouds

answer

low, gray, uniform cloud layer that usually covers the sky

question

cumulonimbus clouds

answer

thunderstorm cloud that is extremely dense and tall, associated with lightning, thunder, hail and sometimes tornadoes

question

dew point

answer

specific temperature when water vapor in the air condenses

question

precipitation

answer

water that falls to earth as rain, snow, hail or sleet

question

climate

answer

average weather pattern of a region that occurs over many years and is influenced by latitude, ocean currents, mountains, and large bodies of water

question

deforestation

answer

destruction of forests

question

greenhouse effect

answer

warming of the earth's atmosphere due primarily to heat trapped by gases such as carbon dioxide, methane and water vapor; deforestation adds to this problem because it removes trees that would have removed carbon dioxide from the air and reduced the greenhouse effect

question

El Nino

answer

weather pattern usually occurring every 3 to 5 years when abnormally warm surface waters occur in the Pacific Ocean near Peru

question

Gulf Stream

answer

warm ocean current that flows from the Gulf of Mexico along the east coast of the U.S. and northeast across the Atlantic Ocean

question

desalinization

answer

process of removing salt from water

question

upwelling

answer

upward motion of cold, dense, nutrient-rich water toward the surface

question

continental shelf

answer

shallow bottom just offshore of most continents between the beach (edge of the water) and a sharp underwater drop-off where the bottom plunges steeply

question

wavelength

answer

distance from crest to crest of a wave

question

current

answer

stream of water that moves horizontally in the ocean

question

ocean pollution

answer

major causes include: 1) toxic (poisonous) trash and chemicals that get into our food chain, 2) oil, primarily occurring as runoff from the land, and 3) dangerous debris like plastics that can entangle animals and harm marine life when eaten

question

tides

answer

the daily, regular rise and fall of the ocean waters due to the moon's gravitational pull on the earth

question

benthic organisms

answer

bottom-dwellers in a body of water

question

plankton

answer

minute animals and plants that are free-floating and unable to swim against currents

question

nekton

answer

water animals that are active swimmers and capable of swimming against a current; not plankton

question

estuary

answer

wide part of a river where it joins the sea; fresh and salt water mix here

question

food chain

answer

a hierarchy of living things (animals and plants) where each level is dependent on the next for its nourishment

question

ocean waves

answer

as water molecules in a wave move up and down in a circular pattern, the energy of the wave moves toward the shore; friction with the bottom slows the wave as it nears the shore

question

sting ray

answer

fish with a flattened body and a long, narrow whip-like tail with a venomous stinger; can inflict severe wounds

question

jellyfish

answer

free-swimming sea animal with a bell-shaped, jelly-like body and stinging tenticles

question

answer

a measure of acidity or alkalinity

question

acidity

answer

acidity of a water sample is determined by titrating it with a strong base (eg, NaOH) to a defined pH; pH less than 7

question

alkalinity

answer

a pH of more than 7; the solution is considered base or alkali

question

neutral

answer

a pH of about 7

question

detergent

answer

a man-made chemical cleanser

question

sewage

answer

filthy waste from household or industrial sources that is carried away in drains

question

scrubber

answer

a filter or purifier that removes impurities (particles and contaminants) from the air

question

pollution

answer

something that contaminates our environment; can even be clean water that is too warm if it is drained into cool water and changes the habitat of animals there

question

acid rain

answer

rain drops that have a pH of less than 5.6 because they have mixed with pollutants such as sulfur or nitrogen; can affect animals such as snails and birds by removing calcium from their habitat (calcium is needed to make snail shells and bird eggs)

question

particulates

answer

tiny, solid particles such as dust, ash, soot, or pollen that are released into and move around in the air

question

smog

answer

polluted or dirty fog caused mainly by cars

question

photochemical smog

answer

brown haze that contains ozone and blankets a city when car and truck exhaust react with sunlight

question

fertilizer

answer

natural or man-made plant nutrient added to enhance plant growth; can cause problems (such as excessive algae growth) in streams or ponds if too much fertilizer runs off of yards or farms

question

Clean Water Act of 1977

answer

Federal government regulation to restore and maintain the health and integrity of our nation's waters; requires communities to treat sewage before releasing it into a river

question

sulfur dioxide

answer

air pollutant formed when fuel containing sulfur is burned; a colorless, irritating gas that contributes to formation of acid rain

question

inversion

answer

thermal inversion: when a layer of warm air lies over cooler air near the ground, trapping pollutants

question

electrostatic separator

answer

a machine used to separate substances by using electrical charges

question

Cuyahoga River

answer

river located in northeast Ohio; when a layer of oil and debris (pollution) on its surface caught fire in 1969, our nation pain attention; concern over pollution causing the fire led to the Clean Water Act of 1977

question

carrying capacity

answer

maximum population that the environment can support without negative effects

question

sanitary landfill

answer

environmentally safe method of waste disposal where a landfill has a waterproof liner and is covered daily to keep harmful materials from entering the air and soil

question

recycle

answer

to use a resource again

question

20th century

answer

1900 through 1999

question

world population

answer

total number of humans alive on the planet earth at a given time; the last 70 years of the 20th century saw the biggest increase in the world's population in human history

question

hazardous waste

answer

solid, liquid, or gaseous material that is discarded and can harm people, animals or the environment; requires special disposal

question

phytoremediation

answer

use of plants to clean up polluted sites, usually by absorbing contaminants through their roots

question

compost

answer

way to recycle organic matter; by using natural processes, organic matter decomposes and becomes nutrient-rich soil builder

question

pollutant

answer

any substance that harms the environment when it mixes with soil, water or air

question

per capita

answer

per person

question

telescope

answer

an astronomical tool used to see distant objects such as those in space; first invented by Galileo in 1610

question

Sputnik

answer

first artificial satellite; put into Earth's orbit in 1957 by the Soviets; led to creation of NASA and the race to the moon

question

Hubble Space Telescope

answer

a telescope orbiting the Earth; its position outside the earth's atmosphere allows it to take sharp optical images of very faint objects

question

satellite

answer

object that revolves around a planet

question

moon

answer

natural satellite of Earth

question

orbit

answer

the path that an object makes around another object

question

Apollo

answer

U.S. space program that included 6 piloted moon landings between 1969 and 1972

question

Saturn rocket

answer

rockets developed for the Apollo program to launch heavy payloads to Earth's orbit and beyond

question

Voyager space probes

answer

two unmanned space probes: Voyager I and Voyager 2; launched in 1977; sent to study Jupiter and Saturn, went on to Uranus and Neptune, and then into the outer solar system

question

Spirit & Opportunity

answer

twin robotic exploration rovers developed by NASA and sent to Mars in January 2003; these computers on wheels make observations and report them to NASA

question

Yuri Gagarin

answer

Soviet cosmonaut (astronaut) who was the first human in space (1961)

question

John Glenn

answer

first U.S. man to orbit Earth (1962)

question

Neil Armstrong

answer

first man to walk on the moon (1969); an American

question

electromagnetic spectrum

answer

entire range of electromagnetic radiation including: radio, microwave, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-ray, and gamma ray radiation

question

space shuttle

answer

reusable spacecraft that can carry a payload into orbit then return to Earth with its crew

question

space station

answer

permanent laboratory and exploration platform in space

question

solar eclipse

answer

the name of the event when the moon comes directly in between Earth and the sun and interrupts the light from the sun

question

elliptical

answer

having an oval shape, rounded like an egg

question

meteor

answer

a piece of rock or metal that enters Earth's atmosphere but usually burns up before reaching Earth's surface

question

Gibbous moon

answer

descriptive name for the moon when it is between a full moon and a half moon (more than half of the moon's surface is visible)

question

equinox

answer

either of two days, usually March 21st or September 23rd, when daylight and darkness are about equal because the sun is directly over the Earth's equator

question

axis

answer

an imaginary straight line about which Earth rotates

question

solstice

answer

one of two times during the year when the sun reaches its greatest distance from the equator during Earth's orbit, yielding the longest and shortest days of the year

question

SOHO mission

answer

joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA (US space agency) to investigate the sun

question

penumbra

answer

term used to describe the partial shadow that occurs during a lunar eclipse

question

North Pole

answer

region of Earth that is a magnetic field because of Earth's rotation; magnetism causes a compass to point north

question

asteroids

answer

chunks of rock, pieces of planets, or small planets that primarily orbit the sun in an "asteroid belt" between Mars and Jupiter

question

Johannes Kepler

answer

German astronomer best known for his laws of planetary motion

question

Mercury

answer

planet nearest the sun; smallest of the inner planets with no atmosphere and no moons

question

Venus

answer

2nd planet from the sun; its atmosphere of mostly carbon dioxide traps heat from the surface, producing very high temperatures that lead to the Greenhouse effect on that planet

question

Earth

answer

3rd planet from the sun; the planet we live on

question

Mars

answer

4th planet from the sun, appears red due to iron oxide (rust) on its soil

question

Jupiter

answer

5th planet from the sun, largest in our solar system with a Great Red Spot; has faint dust rings (that Voyager found) and many moons that include Europa, Ganymede, Callisto and Lo; Lo has active volcanoes

question

Saturn

answer

6th planet from the sun with large rings made mainly of ice and rock

question

Uranus

answer

7th planet from the sun, unusual because its axis is parallel to the plane of its orbit, not perpendicular like other planets

question

Neptune

answer

8th planet from the sun; methane gives Neptune its blue cloud color

question

Pluto

answer

9th planet from the sun; recently reclassified as a dwarf planet; Pluto is unusual in its orbit, some parts of Pluto's orbit are inside of Neptune's

question

planet

answer

a body in orbit around the sun

question

inner planets

answer

the small, rocky planets that orbit closest to the sun including Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars

question

outer planets

answer

planets that orbit far from the sun including Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto

question

light year

answer

the distance traveled by a ray of light in one year

question

nebula

answer

a cloud of gas and/or dust in space

question

Sun

answer

medium size star that is at the center of our solar system; innermost layer is the core, then the photosphere, the chromosphere, and the corona

question

sunspot

answer

cooler dark spots on the photosphere of the sun; created when magnetic fields stop the circulation of gases

question

solar prominence

answer

a large bright feature in the solar corona also influenced by magnetic fields

question

magnitude

answer

term used to describe the measure of a star's brightness

question

absolute magnitude

answer

measurement of the brightness of a star as if it were a set distance away; allows overall brightness of objects to be compared without regard to distance from the earth

question

Milky Way

answer

the spiral galaxy to which our sun and solar system belong

question

supernova

answer

explosion caused when a massive star dies and collapses; rare, short-lived phenomenon that throws out vast amounts of energy into space; some so bright that they could be seen even in the middle of the day

question

fusion

answer

star's energy source (in its core) where fusion of hydrogen to helium occurs

question

black hole

answer

a completely collapsed dead star with a massive gravitational field so powerful that not even light can escape it

question

white dwarf

answer

a "tiny" collapsed star about the size of a planet near the end of its nuclear fusion period; white and very hot

question

neutron star

answer

a dense ball made up almost entirely of neutrons that remains after a supernova has exploded the rest of the star; extremely dense and more massive than our sun

question

Big Bang Theory

answer

a theory of universe creation that assumes our universe began about 20 billion years ago with a super-powerful explosion

STUDY

Bacterial Cell Wall Boiling Point Of Water Decision Support Systems Gram Negative Cells Microbiology Occupational Safety And Health Administration Three Domains Of Life

Reading Notes 1 – Flashcards 81 terms

Tiffany Hanchett

81 terms

Preview

Reading Notes 1 – Flashcards

question

microbe

answer

an organism or virus too small to be seen with the unaided human eye.

question

virus

answer

a non-cellular particle containing a genome that can replicated only inside a cell

question

prokaryote

answer

an organism whose cell or cells lack a nucleus: includes both bacteria and archaea.

question

eukaryote

answer

an organism whose cells contain a nucleus and is a member of the domain Eukarya.

question

genome

answer

the complex genetic content of an organism. The sequence of all the nucleotides in a haploid set of chromosomes.

question

metagenome

answer

the sum of genomes of a community of organisms.

question

spontaneous generation

answer

the theory, much debated in the 19th century, that under current Earth conditions life can arise spontaneously from nonliving matter.

question

fermentation

answer

the production of ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation, using organic compounds as both electron donors and electron acceptors.

question

autoclave

answer

device that uses pressurized steam to sterilize material by raising the temperature above the boiling point of water at standard pressure.

question

germ theory of disease

answer

the theory that many diseases are caused by microbes.

question

chain of infection

answer

the serial passage of a pathogenic organism from an infected individual to an uninfected individual, thus transmitting disease.

question

pure culture

answer

a culture containing only a single strain or species of microorganism. A large number of microorganisms all descended from a single individual.

question

colony

answer

a visible cluster of microbes on a plate, all derived from a single founding microbe.

question

petri dish

answer

a round dish with vertical walls covered by an inverted dish of slightly large diameter. The smaller dish can be filled with a substrate for growing microbes.

question

Koch's postulates

answer

Four criteria that should be met for a microbe to designated the causative agent of an infectious disease.

question

agar

answer

a polymer of galactose that is used as a gelling agent.

question

immunity

answer

resistance to a specific disease.

question

vaccination

answer

exposure of an individual to a weakened version of a microbe to provoke immunity and prevent development of disease upon reexposure.

question

immunization

answer

the stimulation of an immune response by deliberate inoculation with a weakened pathogen, in hopes of providing immunity to disease caused by the pathogen.

question

immune system

answer

an organism’s cellular defense system against pathogens.

question

antiseptic

answer

chemical that kills microbes.

question

aseptic

answer

free of microbes.

question

antibiotic

answer

a molecule that can kill or inhibit the growth of selected microorganisms.

question

polyphyletic

answer

having multiple evolutionary origins.

question

monophyletic

answer

diverging from a common ancestor.

question

virus

answer

a non-cellular particle containing a genome that can replicated only inside a cell.

question

virion

answer

a virus particle.

question

capsid

answer

the protein shell that surrounds a virion's nucleic acid.

question

bacteriophage

answer

a virus that infects bacteria.

question

plaque

answer

a cell-free zone on a lawn of bacterial cells caused by viral lysis.

question

host range

answer

the species that can be infected by a given pathogen.

question

cloning vectors

answer

a small genome that can carry specific genes for cloning.

question

viriod

answer

an infectious naked nucleic acid

question

reading frames

answer

the position in a nucleic acid sequences from which triplet codons encode amino acids.

question

prion

answer

an infectious agent that causes propagation of misfolded host proteins; usually consists of a defective version of the host protein.

question

supernova

answer

an exploding star that has used up most of the nuclei available for fusion reactions.

question

biosphere

answer

the region containing the sum total of all life on Earth.

question

greenhouse effect

answer

the trapping of solar radiation heat in the atmosphere by CO2.

question

Hadean eon

answer

the first eon of Earth’s existence from 4.5 to 3.8 gigayears before the present.

question

Archaean eon

answer

the second eon of Earth's existence. from 3.8 to 2.5 gigayears before the present. The earliest geological evidence for life dates to this eon.

question

microfossils

answer

a microscopic fossil in which calcium carbonate deposits have filled in the form of ancient microbial cells.

question

isotope ratio

answer

the ratio of amounts of two different isotopes of an element. May serve as a biosignature if the ratio between certain isotopes of a given element is altered by biological activity.

question

banded ion formation (BIFs)

answer

a geological formation consisting of layers of oxidized iron, which indicates formation under oxygen-rich conditions.

question

abiotically

answer

produced without living organisms; occurring in the absence of life

question

RNA world

answer

a model of early life in which RNA perfomed all the information and catalytic roles of today’s DNA and proteins.

question

prebiotic soup

answer

a model for the origin of life based on the abiotic formation of fundamental biomolecules and cell structures such as membranes out of a “soup” of nutrients present on early Earth.

question

metabolist model

answer

a model of early life in which the central components of intermediary metabolism arose from self-sustaining chemical reactions based on inorganic chemicals.

question

ribozymes

answer

an RNA capable of enzymatic reactions.

question

panspermia

answer

the hypothesis that life-forms originated elsewhere and “seeded” life on Earth.

question

clades/monophyletic group

answer

a group of organisms that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendents.

question

reductive evolution

answer

the loss of mutation of DNA encoding unselected traits.

question

molecular clock

answer

the use of DNA or RNA sequence information to measure the time of divergence among different species.

question

small subunit rRNA (SSU rRNA)

answer

in bacteria, 16S rRNA. A ribosomal RNA found in the small subunit of the ribosome. Its gene is often sequenced for phylogenetic comparisons.

question

phylogenic tree

answer

a diagram depicting estimates of the relative amounts of evolutionary divergence among different species.

question

root of a tree

answer

the earliest common ancestor of all members of a phylogenetic tree.

question

horizontal gene transfer

answer

the passage of genes from one cell into another mature cell.

question

vertical gene transfer

answer

gene transfer from parent to offspring through reproduction.

question

genomic islands

answer

a region of DNA sequence whose properties indicate that it has been transferred from another genome. Usually comprises a set of genes with shared function, such as pathogenicity or symbiosis support.

question

pan-genome

answer

all the genes possessed by all individual members of species.

question

core genome

answer

a set of genes shared by a group of related bacterial strains, showing stable inheritance.

question

taxonomy

answer

the description of distinct life-forms and their organization into different categories.

question

classification

answer

the recognition of different forms of life and their placement into different categories.

question

nomenclature

answer

the naming of different taxonomic groups of organisms.

question

identification

answer

the recognition of the class of a microbe isolated in pure culture.

question

species

answer

a single, specific type of organisms designated by a genus and species name.

question

genus name

answer

the Latin name assigned to the taxonomic rank consisting of closely related species.

question

species name

answer

the scientific name of a specific type of organism; presented following the genus names as in Escherichia (genus) coli (species).

question

isolate

answer

a microbe that has been obtained from a specific location and grown in pure culture.

question

candidate species

answer

a newly described microbial isolate that may become accepted as an official species.

question

metagenomics

answer

the study of community genomes, or metagenomes.

question

dichotomous key

answer

a tool for identifying organisms, in which a series of yes/no decisions successively narrows down the possible categories of species.

question

probabilistic indicator

answer

a means of quickly identifying microbes in the clinical setting, based on a battery of biochemical tests performed simultaneously on an isolated strain.

question

symbiosis

answer

the intimate association of two unrelated species.

question

mutualism

answer

a symbiotic relationship in which both partners benefit.

question

parasitism

answer

a symbiotic relationship un which one member benefits and the other is harmed.

question

coevolution

answer

the evolution of two species in response to one another.

question

endosymbiosis

answer

an intimate association between different species in which one partner population grows within the body of another organism.

question

endosymbiont

answer

an organism that lives as a symbiont inside another organism.

question

symbiogenesis

answer

an evolutionary process by which two or more species become intimately associated.

question

biosignatures

answer

a chemical indicator of life.

question

terraforming

answer

the idea transforming the environment of another planted to make it suitable for life from Earth.

STUDY

Decision Support Systems Marketing Principles Of Marketing Satisfy Customer Needs Sports Marketing Sustainable Competitive Advantage

MKT 327 Final – Flashcards 83 terms

Linda Lynch

83 terms

Preview

MKT 327 Final – Flashcards

question

Which of the following activities is associated with the strategic framework stage of the marketing planning process? positioning S.W.O.T. target market analysis marketing mix plan marketing control process

answer

positioning

question

Match the following elements of the information foundation with the basic strategic questions that they address.

answer

target market analysis-is organization on code situation analysis & SWOT-is organization on course competitor & SWOT-can organization compete

question

Which of the following elements of a typical marketing information system tends to deal with the analysis and presentation of information as opposed to the collection and analysis of information? A) knowledge management. B) marketing research. C) marketing or competitive intelligence. D) Decision support systems.

answer

decision support systems

question

Which of the analysis procedures below (that are part of the marketing information foundation) provide insights for potential customers and the market at large? situation analysis target market analysis S.W.O.T. analysis competitor analysis marketing audit

answer

target market analysis

question

Sectors of society are to macro marketing as which of the following is to micro marketing.

answer

organizations and customers

question

Which of the following statements defines relationship marketing?

answer

Linking the organization to the individual customers, employees, suppliers, and other partners for their mutual long-term benefits.

question

Which of the following is a step in executing a situation analysis A) Segmentation Analysis B) Analyze Macro-market C) Environmental Scanning D) Establish a Competitor's Profile

answer

environmental scanning

question

A company's long-term plan for using resources to pursue goals and objectives in competitive arenas is called:

answer

strategy

question

Which of the following steps in a strategic marketing plan is part of the information foundation? Positioning Pricing Plan Control Process S.W.O.T. Analysis

answer

SWOT analysis

question

Which of the following is an element of a Business Portfolio model? A) Market Development B) Penetration C) Cash Cow D) Positioning

answer

cash cow

question

Marketing performs its most essential role at three broad levels macro, micro, and personal. At the macro level marketing serves as which of the following? A) social mechanism. B) business function. C) profit center. D) strategic business unit.

answer

social mechanism

question

What is the last step in an Environmental Scan?

answer

project trends

question

Which of the following statements defines marketing (or managerial marketing)?

answer

The activity for creating and delivering offerings that benefit the organization, its stakeholders, and society.

question

Which of the following statements defines a market? (select all that are correct)

answer

A collection of individuals or organizations with a common need, and the desire and ability (in terms of accessibility or affordability) to satisfy that need. A location (physical or virtual) where buyers encounter sellers for the purpose of viewing and/or selling their goods or services.

question

Profiling and naming a group of consumers with similar demographic and psychographic characteristics is the _________ step in an _______________ analysis.

answer

2nd; segmentation

question

One part of the statement defining the essence of marketing refers to the formation of community, connections, and relationships. Which of the following terms involves the marketing activities directed at achieving these objectives? A) market creation. B) market penetration. C) commercialization. D) relationship marketing.

answer

market creation

question

How does marketing perform its most essential role at the macro level?

answer

the universal marketing functions

question

Which of the following refers to a group of individuals, groups, or organizations that are integrated within a dynamic network of environmental cause and effect activities that share purpose and proximity? A) connections. B) community. C) channels. D) markets.

answer

community

question

A management information system is the process of defining a marketing problem and/or opportunity, then systematically collecting and analyzing information, and recommending actions.

answer

false

question

Which of the statements below defines a S,W.O.T. Analysis A) An analysis process that acquires information on organization's environment and capabilities B) Competitive strategy. C) General marketing Strategy. D) Positioning

answer

An analysis process that acquires information on organization's environment and capabilities

question

Which of the following is NOT a step of the marketing strategy process? target marketing licensing situational analysis marketing mix decisions positioning

answer

licensing

question

Satisfaction is exclusively a function of the product's performance and quality.

answer

false

question

Which of the following is correct with regards to needs and wants? A) Wants produce needs. B) Demand produces wants and needs. C) Wants satisfy needs. D) None of the above.

answer

wants satisfy needs

question

In most cases the Target Market Analysis process should end (its last step) with which of the following? A) Segmentation Analysis B) Psychographic factors C) Positioning D) Consumer Analysis

answer

segmentation analysis

question

The role or purpose of Marketing in a firm is defined by which of the following? Consumer Orientation. Marketing Mix. Marketing Concept. Strategic Plan.

answer

marketing concept

question

Which of the following is true with regard to channels? Channels are needed because of market discrepancies Distribution channels add to the price of goods, but they also provide value Distribution channels can be direct or reverse All of the above are true

answer

all are true

question

Which of the following is the best example of a homogeneous shopping good? A) Soft Drinks B) Restaurants C) Music D) Under garments

answer

under garments

question

______ is what happens when a company attempts to capture each of its targeting segments with a unique marketing strategy. A) Positioning B) Differentiation C) Sales orientation D) Segmentation

answer

differentiation

question

The coordination of advertising, sales promotion, personal selling, public relations, and sponsorship is part of which concept? Value Chain Promotion Integrated marketing communications Positioning

answer

integrated marketing communications

question

The Purpose of a Segmentation Analysis is to do which of the following? A) Discover customer wants and needs B) Insure marketing plan is competitive C) Insure marketing plan is on code D) None of the above

answer

none

question

Which of the following would not be part of the total price concept? Money Contractual Terms Effort Time Spent

answer

contractual terms

question

Which alternative below is a true statement regarding positioning, segmentation, and integrated marketing communications? A) These decisions are tactical in nature B) These are strategic framing decisions C) Alternatives A and B are both correct D) Alternatives A and B are both incorrect

answer

strategic framing decisions

question

Which of the following is NOT considered a classification of consumer products? operating unsought emergency convenience specialty

answer

operating

question

At what stage of the product life cycle do sales generally grow at a slow rate? Introduction Growth Maturity Decline None of these answers are correct

answer

Introduction

question

Which of the following is a role of pricing over and beyond the recovering of costs associated with a product or service? Establish Value Become a Competitive Advantage Achieve Positioning All of the above are pricing roles

answer

All

question

Which of the following would be a price orientation? Skimming Demand Marketing Cost

answer

marketing

question

Which of the following best describes what product classification is? A) defines how consumers purchase products and how they use those products. B) defines the role product oriented decisions play in the overall marketing strategy. C) defines the assets linked with the brand name and symbol of a product. D) None of the above.

answer

defines the role product oriented decisions play in the overall marketing strategy.

question

Which of the following pricing decisions specifies the overall impact the price of the product or service will have on the firm's strategic positioning? Objectives Strategies Tactics Orientation

answer

objectives

question

A company is considering which of several groups of with common needs to focus its marketing efforts on. Which of the strategic framing decisions is it executing? A) Segmentation B) Competitive strategy. C) General marketing Strategy. D) Positioning

answer

segmentation

question

A company is aggresively marketing a shopping product (could be homogeneous or heterogeneous). Which of the following should be the focus of its 'skeleton plan' in terms of promotional efforts? A) Awareness B) Trial C) Differentiation D) Uniqueness

answer

differentiation

question

Which of the following is not an aspect of demand? increase the number of buyers increase the desire of buyers increase the satisfaction level of buyers decrease the number of competitors in the market place constantly changing.

answer

decrease the number of competitors in the market place

question

All of the following are true regarding how Product Classification and Life Cycle help marketers EXCEPT for which one? They provide blueprints for marketing strategies They provide the key mechanisms for creating value. They help improve marketing efficiency They help define tactical actions for various situations

answer

they help improve marketing efficiency

question

Which of the following is true of a General Marketing Strategy it frames who will be targeted it frames the needs, wants and meanings to be marketed it frames the marketing mix actions to achieve desired position it frames the marketing mix actions to defend desired position

answer

it frames the marketing mix actions to achieve desired position

question

In which of the following stages of the buyer decision making process does the customer realize value? A) Problem Recognition B) Information Search C) Evaluation D) Post Purchase Decision

answer

Post Purchase Decision

question

Which of the following best defines the term 'customer perceive value', or just customer value? A) Buyer's benefits at a specified price B) A cluster of benefits that an organization promises to its customers C) The affordability and accessibilty of a specified product or service. D) The main underlying motivating factor underlying a customer's purchase decision

answer

Buyer's benefits at a specified price

question

Which of the following steps in a strategic marketing plan is part of the Tactical section? Positioning Integrating Marketing Mix Control Process S.W.O.T. Analysis

answer

Positioning, Control Process

question

Which of the analysis procedures below (that are part of the marketing information foundation) provide insights for the environment? situation analysis target market analysis S.W.O.T. analysis competitor analysis marketing audit

answer

situation analysis

question

The creation of value through satisfaction and loyalty helps marketing form connections at which level? A) Macro. B) Micro. C) Societal. D) None of the Above.

answer

micro

question

Which of the following is defined as the process of developing and maintaining a crucial fit between the organization's goals and capabilities and its changing marketing opportunities. Benchmarking SWOT analysis Market segmentation Strategic planning Diversification

answer

strategic planning

question

All of the managerial marketing tasks below are part of the market creation activities except for which one? Creating Physical connections delivering value Discovering needs and wants Creating Community

answer

delivering value

question

Which of the following is an analysis process that is part of a marketing plan's information foundation as opposed to a strategic framing decision? A) Buyer Behavior B) Positioning C) Segmentation Analysis D) Product Classification

answer

buyer behavior

question

Which of the statements below defines a strategic marketing plan or process? A) An organization's long-term course of action that delivers a unique customer experience while achieving its goals. B) A statement of an organization's function in society. C) An approach whereby an organization allocates its marketing mix resources to reach its target markets. D) A road map for the marketing activities of an organization for a specified future time period.

answer

An approach whereby an organization allocates its marketing mix resources to reach its target markets.

question

The marketing mix consists of four elements, commonly referred to as the "Four P's" They are: price, product, promotion and perspective. packaging, promotion, price and personnel. product, price, promotion and place. promotion, product, personnel, packaging. product, perspective, promotion, price.

answer

product, price, promotion and place.

question

Which of the following terms refers to the process by which a person selects the information they obtain, or retain? A) Culture B) Learning C) Information Processing D) Perception

answer

Perception

question

Which of the following is NOT an element of a marketing plan? situation analysis positioning target marketing integrating the marketing mix manufacturing

answer

manufacturing

question

Selling products and generating a profit is the essence of marketing. A) True B) False

answer

false

question

In the knowledge generation continuum information directly generate knowledge. A) True B) False

answer

false

question

Which of the analysis procedures below that are part of the marketing information foundation provide insights for whether organization is on course?(select all answers that apply) situation analysis target market analysis S.W.O.T. analysis competitor analysis marketing audit

answer

situation analysis, S.W.O.T. analysis

question

The process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, goods, and services to create exchanges defines which of the following? A) a marketing orientation. B) marketing management. C) Satisfaction. D) marketing effectiveness.

answer

marketing management.

question

Which of the following terms refers to the ability of the company to provide products that satisfy customer needs and wants? being on course having correct content being able to compete being on code being customer oriented

answer

being on code

question

Which of the following statement defines a tactical implementation plan? A writen document describing company marketing objectives and how to broadly achieve them in light of competitive activities. statement of an organizational operating philosophy A written document for a SBU providing guidelines for achieving desired strategic position and creating customers. a short-term plan for actions and reactions to specific market conditions for how each part of the controllable marketing variables will be used to achieve the stategic marketing plan goals

answer

a short-term plan for actions and reactions to specific market conditions for how each part of the controllable marketing variables will be used to achieve the stategic marketing plan goals

question

Which of the following is a component of satisfaction? A) Cognitive. B) Affective. C) Product Quality. D) Product Performance.

answer

product performance

question

answer

social mechanism

question

A company is competing in a somewhat profitable industry where sales over the last 3 years has been 12%, 18%, and 24%. Three firms entered the industry last year and three more are expected this year. This industry would be categorized in which stage of the product life cycle? A) Introduction B) Growth C) Maturity D) Decline

answer

growth

question

Which of the following decisions considers trade shows, display booths, and contests? Sales Promotion Personal Selling Advertising Public Relations

answer

sales promotion

question

Which section of the product life cycle is your product most likely in assuming that you are a brand manager for a Proctor and Gamble product, your product's sales are beginning to grow, and the product still has not earned a profit? Introduction Commercialization Maturity Decline

answer

introduction

question

Which of the following statements best defines the concept of demand management? Selecting which aspect of demand (the number of buyers, there desire to buy, their physical ability to buy, or their financial ability to buy) the firm should focus on. how a firm will allocate Its resources to protect its weaknesses and/or exploit its strengths a �bare bones� outline of the tactical portion of a detailed marketing plan. the number of people with the desire to satisfy a discovered need with particular want; and who also have the ability to satisfy that want.

answer

Selecting which aspect of demand (the number of buyers, there desire to buy, their physical ability to buy, or their financial ability to buy) the firm should focus on.

question

Reminder Advertising would be defined as which of the following? messages designed to call attention to specific characteristics of product experienced by the user messages designed to provide data that consumers can store for later use messages that keep product at the forefront of the consumer's mind messages designed to change consumers' attitudes and opinions

answer

messages that keep product at the forefront of the consumer's mind

question

A company using a leader-customer intimacy competitive strategy might be expected to invest in a customer relationship management system. True False

answer

true

question

Because it is difficult to successfully appeal to all market segments, companies often select certain segments for emphasis, this process is called which of the following terms? Positioning Focusing Target marketing Sales maximization

answer

target marketing

question

The purpose of Advertising is: Inform consumers with messages that provide information for later use. Persuade by changing consumers attitudes and opinions. Remind consumers about products. Reinforce to encourage repeat purchasing. All of these answers are correct.

answer

all of the above

question

All of the following are true regarding how Product Classification and Life Cycle help marketers except for which one? They provide blueprints for marketing strategies They provide the key mechanisms for creating value. They help improve marketing efficiency They help define tactical actions for various situations

answer

They help improve marketing efficiency

question

Competitive Intensity is an information need for a step in which of the following analyses? A) Competitor Analysis B) S.W.O.T. Analysis C) Environmental Scanning D) Segmentation Analysis

answer

environmental scanning

question

Which of the following stages in the product life cycle involves building the brand name, adding distributors and creating product extensions and options? Introduction Growth Maturity Decline None of these answers are correct

answer

growth

question

The product life cycle has four stages. Which of the following is NOT one of those stages? Shake out Introduction Growth Maturity Decline

answer

shake out

question

According to class lecture, which of the following is a condition of an attractive market segment? A) Segments are agreeable B) Segments are functional C) Segments are substantial D) All of the above

answer

segments are substantial

question

The number of locations, where a product or service is available in a given market is addressed by which of the following channel decisions? Channel Organization Channel Structure Channel Intensity None of the Above

answer

channel intensity

question

Which of the following characteristics best defines the difference between marketing intelligence and marketing research? Marketing intelligence depends on internal data Marketing research depends on external data Marketing research is primarily from secondary data Marketing intelligence continually collects information

answer

Marketing intelligence continually collects information

question

A shopping product is in the introduction stage of the life cycle and consumers are at the awareness stage. Which communication objective is usually most appropriate for this situation? A) Persuade B) Inform/Educate C) Differentiate D) Reinforce/Stabilize

answer

inform/educate

question

Which of the following statements best defines a general marketing strategy? A guiding framework for developing a skeleton marketing plan that identifies which aspect of demand the firm should focus on how a firm will allocate Its resources to protect its weaknesses and/or exploit its strengths a 'bare bones' outline of the tactical portion of a detailed marketing plan. the number of people with the desire to satisfy a discovered need with particular want; and who also have the ability to satisfy that want.

answer

A guiding framework for developing a skeleton marketing plan that identifies which aspect of demand the firm should focus on

question

Which of the following is one of the alternative positioning strategies? A) Undifferentiated B) Demand Focus C) Increase Ability to buy D) Nicher Strategy

answer

demand focus

question

A product line contains all of a company's product mixes. A) True B) False

answer

false

question

Measurable, substantial, and accessible are informational items for the first step in a segmentation analysis? A) True B) False

answer

false

STUDY

Business Management Decision Analysis Decision Making Method Decision Support Systems Nominal Group Technique Problem Solving Process Strategic Decision Making

MIS Final Chapter 10 – Flashcards 24 terms

William Hopper

24 terms

Preview

MIS Final Chapter 10 – Flashcards

question

_____ are ones where the variables that comprise the decision are known and can be measured quantitatively.

answer

structured decisions

question

_____ is a structured, interactive, iterative decision-making method that relies on input from a panel of experts.

answer

Delphi approach

question

_____ is used when the decision frequency is low and the location of group members is distant.

answer

teleconfrencing

question

_____ reports are management reports that are automatically produced when a situation is unusual or requires management action.

answer

Exception

question

Decision support systems:

answer

are used for operational, tactical, and strategic decision making.

question

A _____ is an independent business unit that is treated as a distinct entity enabling its revenues and expenses to be determined and its profitability to be measured.

answer

profit center

question

A _____ MIS uses data gathered from both internal and external sources to provide reporting and aid decision making in areas of product development, distribution, pricing, and promotions.

answer

marketing

question

A typical DSS includes many components such as the _____ that allows decision makers to easily access and manipulate the DSS and to use common business terms and phrases.

answer

dialogue manager

question

A(n) _____ report is the management report that summarizes the previous day's critical activities and is typically available at the start of each workday.

answer

key-indicator

question

An advantage of using the nominal group technique is that:

answer

it encourages participation from everyone.

question

An effective _____ MIS enables an organization to keep personnel costs at a minimum while serving the required business processes needed to achieve corporate goals.

answer

human resource

question

Developers of _____ try to build on the advantages of individual support systems while adding new approaches unique to group decision making.

answer

group support systems

question

Subsystems for the marketing MIS and their outputs help marketing managers and executives to _____.

answer

develop plans for future products

question

The _____ approach forces members of a decision making group to reach a unanimous decision.

answer

group consensus

question

The _____ is NOT a component of the typical DSS.

answer

inference engine

question

The _____ MIS subsystems and outputs are used to monitor and control the flow of materials, products, and services through the organization.

answer

manufacturing

question

The _____ stage is the second stage in the problem solving process during which alternative solutions to the problem are developed and their feasibility is evaluated.

answer

design

question

The _____ stage of the problem solving process requires selecting a course of action.

answer

choice

question

The ability to _____ is a characteristic of an MIS system.

answer

use internal data stored in the computer system.

question

The ability to _____ is a function of a financial MIS.

answer

provide easy access to financial data through use of a corporate intranet to access corporate Web pages

question

The focus of a DSS is on decision-making _____ when faced with unstructured or semistructured business problems.

answer

effectiveness

question

The goal of _____ is to tie together all aspects of production, including order processing, product design, manufacturing, inspection and quality control, and shipping.

answer

computer integrated manufacturing

question

The most significant internal data sources for an MIS are the organization's _____.

answer

various TPS and ERP systems and related databases

question

The performance of decision support systems is typically a function of decision quality, decision-making speed, and _____

answer

problem complexity

STUDY

Customer Lifetime Value Customer Relationship Management Software Decision Support Systems Knowledge Management Product Design Sales Force Automation

Marketing CH 21 – Flashcards 126 terms

Joseph Fraser

126 terms

Preview

Marketing CH 21 – Flashcards

question

T/F: Customer relationship management requires that organizations be organized around customer segments.

answer

true

question

T/F: Technology plays a major role in any CRM system

answer

true

question

T/F: Data consolidation is an analytical process that compiles actionable data about the purchase habits of a firm's current and potential customers.

answer

false

question

T/F: Customer-centric is an internal management philosophy similar to the marketing concept.

answer

true

question

T/F: Empowerment in a CRM environment is normally a process of collecting customer information through customers' feedback on products.

answer

false

question

T/F: Through the application of knowledge management, the Lands' End clothing catalog retailer would have learned that a substantial number of its customers would like the company to offer a line of maternity wear

answer

true

question

T/F: For a catalog retailer, the contact between the customer and the company's order taker would be an example of a touch point

answer

true

question

T/F: Touch points are any situations in which the company's employees actually interact with customers. When a customer places an order through the company Web site, no touch point has been created.

answer

false

question

T/F: When Amazon.com asks visitors to its Internet site to create wish lists and then invites them to send the lists to people who may be planning on buying them a present soon, it is relying on Web-based interactions to help it learn about its customers.

answer

true

question

T/F: Consumers are reluctant to enter information through point-of-sale interactions because of privacy violation fears.

answer

false

question

T/F: Channel interactions are the relationships a manufacturer has with its distributors.

answer

false

question

T/F: The process of centralizing data in a CRM system is sometimes referred to as the interpolation of external and internal touch points.

answer

false

question

T/F: For a CRM system to be effective, customer information must be stored in a data matrix.

answer

false

question

T/F: Privacy issues are the primary reason for centralizing data in a CRM.

answer

false

question

T/F: Response lists are especially important in database creation because past behavior is a strong predictor of future behavior.

answer

true

question

T/F: Database elaboration is the addition of information to customer or prospect records for the purpose of better describing or better determining the responsiveness of those customers or prospects.

answer

false

question

T/F: Multinational companies often face difficult problems when pulling together internal data about their customers.

answer

true

question

T/F: Data mining is used to find hidden patterns and relationships in the customer data stored in the data warehouse.

answer

true

question

T/F: Volvo has a Web site that caters to car enthusiasts who might want to see concept cars evolve into real-life products. Volvo would likely have used data mining to locate people who were car enthusiasts and innovators.

answer

true

question

T/F: RFM analysis is used to delete unnecessary or duplicated data.

answer

false

question

T/F: A basic assumption in any lifetime value calculation is that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers.

answer

true

question

T/F: As a predictive tool, data mining has limited utility.

answer

false

question

T/F: Through campaign management, all areas of the company participate in the development of programs targeted to customers.

answer

true

question

T/F: A common CRM application is cross-selling other products or services to customers.

answer

true

question

T/F: The United States has the most restrictive privacy laws in the world.

answer

false

question

_____ is a company-wide business strategy designed to optimize profitability, revenue, and customer satisfaction by focusing on highly defined and precise customer groups. a. Organizational optimization b. Consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. Total quality management (TQM) d. Customer relationship management (CRM) e. Market aggregation

answer

question

The My Coke Rewards program allows consumers to earn reward products and services by registering points they receive by consuming Coke products. The program also allows Coca-Cola to collect information about consumers that the company can use to optimize profitability, revenue, and customer satisfaction. The My Coke Rewards program is an example of a(n) _____ program. a. organizational optimization b. consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. total quality management (TQM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. market aggregation

answer

question

Using technology provided by Smart Button software, the WNBA's Los Angeles Sparks have implemented a new system that gathers information about its best customers, season ticket holders, and rewards those customers in many ways, including free tickets to Sparks home games and cash prizes. This is an example of a(n) _____ system. a. organizational optimization b. corporate relationship marketing (CRM) c. total quality management (TQM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. call response marketing (CRM)

answer

question

While many catalog retailers send out a standard catalog to all potential customers, Lands' End uses information it has gathered about customers in its CRM system to target the catalog to the individual. This approach used by Lands' End is an example of the _____ approach. a. shotgun b. rifle c. square peg d. fishing pole e. All of these statements can be used to describe the approach used by Lands' End.

answer

question

When Coca-Cola sent users of the My Coke Rewards program digital coupons for free trials of its new Coke Zero product, more than 100,000 people redeemed them. It would have cost the company far more to randomly distribute enough coupons to the general market to get that level of sampling. This is an example of the power of the _____ approach. a. rifle b. machine gun c. stealth marketing d. gorilla marketing e. shotgun

answer

question

Customer relationship management is accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT: a. offering the lowest prices of all major competitors b. organizing the company around customer segments c. establishing and tracking customer interactions with the company d. fostering customer-satisfying behaviors e. linking all processes of the company from its customers through its suppliers

answer

question

The difference between traditional marketing and customer relationship marketing can be compared to the difference between: a. night and day b. boning a fish and dressing a chicken c. mice and elephants d. shooting a rifle and a shotgun e. circles and squares

answer

question

At its most fundamental level, a CRM approach is no more than: a. the relationship cultivated by a salesperson with a customer b. a mass marketing approach c. a transactional selling approach d. a customer satisfaction program e. a differentiation strategy

answer

question

To initiate the CRM cycle, a company must first: a. establish marketing objectives b. captures relevant customer data on interactions c. identify customer relationships with the organization d. understand the interactions the company has with current customers e. Decides on a segmentation strategy

answer

question

Which of the following statements about the CRM cycle is true? a. The letters CRM are an acronym for consumer relationship marketing. b. The CRM cycle does not affect employees outside the marketing and management functional areas. c. The CRM cycle is continuous and circular with no predefined start or end point. d. The CRM cycle takes a simplistic perspective on customers. e. All of these statements about the CRM cycle are true.

answer

question

When USAA insurance company collects relevant information from customers, such as date of last communication with the customer and how often the customer contacts the company, this is an example of: a. establishing marketing objectives b. capturing relevant customer data on interactions c. identifying customer relationships with the organization d. understanding the interactions the company has with current customers e. deciding on a segmentation strategy

answer

question

As the second step in the CRM cycle a company must: a. establish marketing objectives b. capture relevant customer data on interactions c. identify customer relationships with the organization d. understand the interactions the company has with current customers e. decide on a segmentation strategy

answer

question

Which of the following statements about a CRM system is true? a. A critical component of a CRM system is the use of the appropriate technology to store and integrate customer data. b. A CRM system operates on the theory that all customers are equally important. c. Due to privacy laws, a CRM system only disseminates customer information to those who are actually in day-to-day contact with customers. d. A company using a CRM system must view its customers as bits of data. e. All of these statements about a CRM system are true.

answer

question

A company that has a(n) _____ customizes its product and service offerings based on data generated through interactions between the customer and the company. a. ethnocentric perspective b. supply-based focus c. sales orientation d. supply-based focus e. customer-centric focus

answer

question

Best Buy instituted a system in all of its stores that customizes their product offerings for the five key customer segments it has identified: affluent professional males, young entertainment enthusiasts, upscale suburban moms, families who are practical technology adopters, and small businesses with fewer than 20 employees. This focus implies that Best Buy is: a. ethnocentric b. demand based c. sales-centric d. supply based e. customer-centric

answer

question

Customer-centric is an internal management philosophy similar to: a. utilitarianism b. Herzberg's theory of motivation c. the equity theory d. the marketing concept e. consumerism

answer

question

The way to people's hearts may be through their stomachs, but Kraft Foods has decided not to rely exclusively on that maxim to secure the long-term loyalty of its customers. It is also making new product developments through data generated from interaction between Kraft and its customers. In other words, Kraft Foods: a. is sales oriented b. has a standardization focus c. is ethnocentric d. has a customer-centric focus e. is product oriented

answer

question

In a CRM environment, _____ is defined as an informal process of collecting customer data through customer comments and feedback on product or service performance. a. leveraging b. knowledge management c. interaction d. data mining e. learning

answer

question

_____ refers to the latitude organizations give their representatives to negotiate mutually satisfying commitments with customers. a. Consumer learning b. Customerization c. Empowerment d. Autonomy e. Interaction

answer

question

Best Buy's Performance Service Plan (PSP) guarantees products against damage and malfunctioning. All initial purchase contact information is kept in the customer database, along with copies of the PSP. If a customer calls Best Buy with a problem, the representative will have access to all this information and can either help the customer or refer him or her to another representative. The availability of this customer information tends to: a. reduce customer calls b. empower employees c. encourage referrals to other employees d. hurt employee morale e. increase the need for management supervision

answer

question

_____ is the process by which learned information from customers is centralized and shared in order to enhance the relationship between customers and the organization. a. Knowledge management b. Learning c. Database marketing d. Interactive marketing e. Information marketing

answer

question

When Sony PlayStation users want to access amenities on the Sony Web site, they are required to log in and supply information such as their name, e-mail address, and birth date. They are also given the opportunity to complete a survey that captures much more information about them and their gaming habits. Sony gathers this information and makes it available internally to better serve the customer. This is an example of a company using: a. learned research b. stimulus/response marketing c. knowledge management d. sales-oriented marketing e. motivational research

answer

question

A(n) _____ is the point at which a customer and a company representative exchange information and develop learning relationships. a. social contact b. interaction c. empowering moment d. equilibrium point e. transactional dyad

answer

question

Les Ailes de la Mode is a Quebec retail store that promotes the highest quality of customer service by maintaining the importance of each _____, the point at which customer and store personnel exchange information and develop learning relationships. a. moment of truth b. intervention c. data capture d. response situation e. interaction

answer

question

In a CRM system, _____ are all areas of the business where customers have contact with the company and data may be gathered and used to guide and direct the decision making within that business unit. a. touch points b. focus points c. data mining points d. information search periods e. observational points

answer

question

Apple, Inc. has stores, a Web site, and a toll-free phone number where consumers can provide valuable information to the company in developing a CRM system. All these possible areas of the company where consumers can communicate with the business are called: a. touch points b. focus areas c. data mining d. information search periods e. experimental points

answer

question

The Detroit Tigers, a Major League Baseball team, used customer satisfaction surveys of season ticket holders to determine why the number of season ticket holders was declining. This survey was an example of a(n): a. touch point b. focus area c. data search d. information recognizance e. observational point

answer

question

Les Ailes de la Mode, a Quebec retail store that promotes the highest quality of customer service, has not only established itself as a top retailer in the province but also has a credit card and point program company, a cataloger and Internet seller, and even a publisher. Through gathering customer information for its credit cards and point program, through catalog and Internet orders, and through subscriptions to its publications, Les Ailes de la Mode has created several different: a. focus areas b. touch points c. interrelationship promotions d. distribution channels e. sources of distribution information

answer

question

Hudson's Bay Company in Canada operates The Bay, Zellers, Home Outfitters, and Hbc.com. At each of its stores and its Web site, it gives HBC Rewards that enable members to earn points, which can be redeemed in the HBC Rewards catalog for various items, including travel, leisure and entertainment items, Air Miles reward miles, or Bay and Zellers gift certificates. To use the system, customers have to provide their HBC card number. This reward program enables Hudson's Bay to engage in _____ interactions with its customers. a. point-of sale and Web-based b. customer-centric and technology-centric c. retail-centric and Web-based d. transaction-based and retail-centric e. point-of-sale and retail-centric

answer

question

Communications between customers and organizations that occur in stores or at information kiosks are called: a. live interactions b. point-of-sale interactions c. empowerment points d. survey interactions e. product interactions

answer

question

_____ interactions occur when customers buy products in a store. a. Point-of-sale b. Relationship-based c. Cost-based d. Retail-centric e. Distribution-focused

answer

question

The executive VP of Hudson's Bay Company in Canada (a major retail chain) said in an interview, "We have to be able to offer customers what they want when they want it. We need better insight into their spending--we have gaps in knowledge of how customers spend." _____ interactions would provide the retail chain the best opportunity for learning about its customers. a. Point-of-sale b. Relationship-based c. Retail-centric d. Technology-centric e. Sales-oriented

answer

question

The traditional approach for acquiring data from customers is through: a. encoding devices b. media c. feedback mechanisms d. channel interactions e. public relations

answer

question

Which of the following is an example of a channel through which customer data are traditionally gathered? a. Store visits b. Conversations with salespeople c. Interactions via the Web d. Phone conversations e. All of these

answer

question

In a speech, David Poirier, chief information officer of Hudson's Bay Company, a Canadian retailer, said, "We [Hudson's Bay Company] had all kinds of data in different places. We didn't have a single view of the customer until we focused on finding one method to manage relationships with our customers." Hudson's Bay would use a _____ to profile customer segments for better CRM marketing efforts. a. data mart b. customer information system c. data warehouse d. decision support system e. data cluster

answer

question

A _____ is a central repository for data from various functional areas of the organization that are stored and inventoried on a centralized computer system so that information can be shared across all functional departments of the business. a. data mart b. customer information system c. data warehouse d. decision support system e. data cluster

answer

question

Continental Airlines has a system that captures information on everything from flight schedules, seat inventories, and customer profiles that is accessible by 35 departments and 1,300 employees. Continental's system is an example of a(n): a. information mine b. knowledge distribution center c. information extraction unit d. information storage unit e. data warehouse

answer

question

"Lots of organizations have customer data, but not in a way that's useful," said a speaker at a recent retail marketing conference. "Retailers have all kinds of data in different places--they don't have a single view of the customer." The speaker is saying that retailers do NOT use: a. information distribution centers b. data warehouses c. information extraction mines d. data intermediaries e. marketing information systems

answer

question

Dick's Sporting Goods collects a vast amount of data through its Web site, direct mailings, and retail stores. To be useful, all of these data would be centralized in a(n): a. data mart b. decision matrix c. data warehouse d. decision support system e. data cluster

answer

question

A(n) _____ is a collection of data, especially one that can be accessed and manipulated by computer software. a. database b. data profile c. algorithm d. byte e. interaction profile

answer

question

The core of the data warehouse is: a. empowered employees b. transaction channels of communication c. point-of-sale interactions d. the database e. a compiled list

answer

question

Which type of list includes names and addresses of individuals who have responded to an offer of some kind? a. An interactive list b. A compiled list c. A recent list d. A response list e. An A-list

answer

question

Lesley Owens has limited money to invest in a mailing to people who might be interested in subscribing to a new magazine about making scrapbooks. She wants to mail to those prospects with the highest probability of becoming subscribers. Owens should use a: a. compiled list b. data mine c. response list d. management database e. data warehouse activation

answer

question

The Old Westbury College Foundation raised $80,000 at its "A Taste of Long Island," a gala dinner where all proceeds went to support scholarship funds and educational programs at SUNY College at Old Westbury. Attendees were people who had contributed to the scholarship program previously and were reached through a: a. compiled list b. data mine c. response list d. management database e. data warehouse activation

answer

question

Taquan recently purchased a General Electric microwave oven using a $50 rebate offer. He filled out the rebate certificate and sent it to an address provided by GE. The rebate certificate contained Taquan's full name, his phone number, his address, and some purchase information. Taquan has most likely become part of GE's _____ list. a. compiled b. cookies c. response d. electronic cash e. Internet research

answer

question

A(n) _____ list generally includes names and addresses gleaned from directories or membership rosters. a. predictive b. compiled c. response d. actionable e. disintegrated

answer

question

Leah wants to develop a mailing list of people who have participated in bicycle rides for charities. She has offered to purchase a list of last year's Alabama-based Ride for Life, which was held to raise funds for cancer research. Leah is building a(n) _____ list. a. actionable b. e-mail c. response d. compiled e. predictive

answer

question

_____ is the addition of information to customer or prospect records for the purpose of better describing or better determining the responsiveness of customers or prospects. a. Information formatting b. Database enhancement c. Data mining d. Data shading e. Predictive modeling

answer

question

_____ is used to find hidden patterns and relationships in the customer data stored in the data warehouse. a. Data profiling b. Cluster analysis c. Regression analysis d. Customer profiling e. Data mining

answer

question

Wal-Mart captures point-of-sale transactions from thousands of stores in several countries and continuously transmits these data to its massive data warehouse. Wal-Mart allows more than 3,500 suppliers to access data on their products and perform data analyses. These suppliers use the data to identify customer buying patterns at the store level. They use this information to manage local store inventory and identify new merchandising opportunities. Both Wal-Mart and its suppliers are engaged in: a. information formatting b. database enhancement c. data mining d. data shading e. descriptive modeling

answer

question

Which of the following would allow an online retailer like Frontgate to learn that customers who purchase electronic products also purchase home office furniture? a. Knowledge interpretation b. Systems management c. Data mining d. Information extraction e. Information search

answer

question

Fingerhut, the catalog retailer, used _____ to determine that customers who change residences are three times more likely than customers who have not moved to buy tables, towels, and decorative products but are no more likely to buy jewelry or footwear. As a result, Fingerhut created a catalog for people who have changed residences. a. data mining b. information search c. information retrieval channels d. evoked sets e. an information environment

answer

question

Outdoor gear retailer Recreational Equipment, Inc. (REI) in Washington collects a vast amount of data through its Web site, direct mailings, and retail stores. When REI considers new store locations, it examines order data to find places with high concentrations of customers buying online and through the company's catalogs. REI would be using _____ to identify potential store locations. a. information formatting b. database enhancement c. data mining d. data shading e. customer prediction

answer

question

Ford Canada has turned to the Internet to help it stand apart from its competitors in the automotive industry. One Internet ad shows a Ford truck driving out of a forest with its engine roaring and mud splattering on the screen. The wipers come on to reveal the Ford "Built Tough" logo, which then recedes to the side of the screen. The ad directs people to a site where they can sign up to receive direct mail from Ford. Ford Canada will combine this database with a database of new F-Series truck owners to look for significant patterns and trends. Ford Canada will use: a. an information search system b. knowledge trending c. data interpolation d. data graphing e. data mining

answer

question

Which of the following techniques used to analyze marketing databases considers whether a customer has made a purchase recently as well as how often that customer makes a purchase? a. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis (RFM) b. Predictive modeling c. Customer valuation d. Data mining e. Lifetime value analysis

answer

question

In the RFM analysis model, "R" stands for: a. returning b. recency c. reimbursement d. relationship e. retention

answer

question

In the RFM analysis model, "F" stands for: a. frequency b. function c. free d. forecast e. framing

answer

question

In the RFM analysis model, the "M" stands for: a. marketing b. management c. motivation d. maturity e. monetary value

answer

question

L.L. Bean has been reducing the number of catalogs it sends out while increasing its sales and profits. With _____, L.L. Bean now identifies customers who have purchased recently and often have spent considerable money. Such customers are most likely to purchase again. a. predictive data b. trending c. correlation analysis d. recency-frequency-monetary analysis e. hypothesis testing

answer

question

Which of the following is a data manipulation technique that projects the future value of the customer over a period of years using the assumption that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers? a. Recency-frequency-monetary value (RFM) analysis b. Cluster analysis c. Lifetime value analysis (LTV) d. Market segmentation e. Predictive modeling

answer

question

The basic assumption of _____ is that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers. a. customer segmentation b. predictive modeling c. customer valuation d. data manipulation e. lifetime value analysis

answer

question

_____ uses a past set of occurrences to predict the likelihood that some other occurrence, such as a response or purchase, will take place in the future. a. Customer manipulation b. Predictive modeling c. Data mining d. Lifetime value analysis e. Causal research

answer

question

The cable industry needs to identify current and future traffic patterns so it can manage the growth of cable systems. Because of high costs, it is undesirable to buy bandwidth before it is needed. It is also time-consuming to upgrade a cable system. Furthermore, consumers hate to wait for capacity increases. Therefore, the industry should use _____ to determine when and where new systems should be implemented. a. lifetime analysis b. recency-frequency-monetary analysis c. cross-selling d. speed of data communications e. predictive modeling

answer

question

Ford Motor Company has launched an online effort to market its F-Series trucks. It hopes to use its database capabilities to capture valuable data on car buyers. Ford plans on cross referencing new F-Series owners with the database generated from this online campaign to see how many names are duplicated. Ford will use these data to forecast which campaigns have the greatest probability of success. Which of the following methods will Ford most likely use to analyze these data? a. Lifetime value analysis (LTV) b. Present value/future value assessment c. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis d. Predictive modeling e. Reach-frequency-media analysis

answer

question

Which technique was likely used to suggest that a customer who wanted to buy a $29 shirt would also be a likely prospect for a cigar humidor? a. Predictive modeling b. Customer segmentation c. Market aggregation d. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis e. Data interpolation

answer

question

Data mining identifies the most profitable customers and prospects. Managers can then design tailored marketing strategies to best appeal to the identified segments. In CRM, this is commonly referred to as _____ customer information to facilitate enhanced relationships with customers. a. manipulating b. leveraging c. harvesting d. converting e. managing

answer

question

_____ involves developing product or service offerings customized for the appropriate customer segment and then pricing and communicating these offerings for the purpose of enhancing customer relationships. a. Transaction management b. Campaign management c. Data mining d. Consumerism e. Knowledge management

answer

question

All of the following are common CRM marketing database applications EXCEPT: a. cross-selling other products or services b. designing targeted marketing communications c. activity-based costing applications d. improving customer service e. campaign management

answer

question

Which of the following is a common CRM marketing database application? a. Campaign management b. Designing targeted marketing communications c. Improving customer service d. Cross-selling other products or services e. All of these

answer

question

Looking to build up its postpurchase relationships, General Motors recently launched a service whereby GM vehicle owners can sign up to get e-mail service reminders, access information about GM vehicles, and receive special promotions. GM is using _____ to enhance its customer relationships. a. modeling b. scoring c. valence management d. campaign management e. data mining

answer

question

To target outdoor enthusiasts, Subaru of America added an outdoor life section to its Web site that is organized by area of interest. The site will serve as a platform for co-marketing and promotional programs. This offering of customized products to a customer segment for the purpose of enhancing the auto manufacturer's customer relationships is an example of: a. campaign management b. customer aggregation c. transaction segmentation d. data mining e. knowledge management

answer

question

Les Ailes de la Mode, a Quebec retailer, offers its customers Les Ailes MasterCard. The card is connected to a points program that offers one point for every $20 of purchases on the card and triple that on purchases made at Les Ailes. It also incorporates an electronic chip, through which a $10 coupon is awarded to each member every month via the electronic gift card (on purchases of $10 or more every month). Card members also receive free subscriptions to the retailer's Les Ailes magazine. This shows how CRM can be used: a. to retain loyalty b. in mass marketing c. to increase knowledge about the competition d. to create transactional relationships e. to develop a compiled list

answer

question

Many high-end hotel chains award points for every dollar spent in one of their hotels. Customers who earn a high number of points are given special privileges that may include upgraded hotel rooms or several free nights. This is an example of the leveraging of customer information to: a. retain loyal customers b. reinforce competitive promotional decisions c. cross-sell other products and services d. design targeted marketing communications e. induce product trial by new customers

answer

question

Hudson's Bay Company has Canada's largest reward program--HBC Rewards--which enables members to earn points at Hudson's Bay family of stores, including The Bay, Zellers, Home Outfitters, and Hbc.com. Consumers can redeem points for over 600 rewards in the HBC Rewards catalog, including travel, leisure and entertainment items, Air Miles reward miles, or Bay and Zellers gift certificates. Which of the following provides the most likely reason why Hudson's Bay Company implemented this reward program? a. To reduce problems associated with cultural diversity b. To make sure the 80/20 principle is not influencing its activities c. To retain loyal customers d. To create cognitive dissonance e. To lessen the importance of customer service

answer

question

Using customer database information to offer related products to customers is called: a. incremental selling b. cross-selling c. relationship marketing d. informed selling e. synergistic selling

answer

question

Every time Barry orders running shoes from Road Runner Sports, the Web site or the operator on the phone always tries to sell him something in addition to the shoes he ordered, such as socks or other apparel. This is an example of: a. data mining b. cross-selling c. trading up d. database enhancement e. a database channel

answer

question

According to the CEO of Allied Office Products, "We're a head-count business: I know that if you have a 60-person office, you should buy $300 worth of basic office supplies—paper, pens, staples—from us with each order, but if that's all we get, we stagnate. For us to grow, we have to convince the customer, who already likes our products and service, to buy more than just basic supplies; we have to increase the order by 10, 20, or 30 times." Allied's salespeople are trained to push the company's less traditional, higher-margin lines such as coffee and refreshments, printing and forms management, and office furniture. Allied's salespeople are engaging in: a. cross-selling b. trading up c. buyer empowerment d. alliance building e. bundling

answer

question

Subaru of America targeted outdoor enthusiasts when it added an outdoor life section to its Web site, organized by area of interest. The site will serve as a platform for co-marketing and promotional programs and will allow Subaru to gather most overt and covert information. Which of the following provides the most likely reason why Subaru has added this section to its site? a. To create cognitive dissonance b. To reduce problems associated with cultural diversity c. To increase the effectiveness of its channels of distribution d. To lessen the importance of customer service e. To design more targeted marketing communications

answer

question

After Ruth and Mike had paid in advance for their week's stay at a Vermont Inn, Ruth felt that they might have chosen poorly and that they were committing themselves to stay at a place they might hate. Then Ruth got a letter from the Inn's owner stating that she was looking forward to their visit and asking what they most enjoyed for breakfast. The hospitality of the letter dealt with Ruth's cognitive dissonance by: a. cross-selling b. disintermediation c. spamming and flaming d. implementing a penetration strategy e. reinforcing her purchase decision

answer

question

CRM concerns many Americans because: a. of the large number of people who must be served b. not all customers have access to CRM marketing c. of the potential for invasion of privacy d. of the aggressive nature of marketers that use CRM e. of the expense to consumers

answer

question

When Ford Motor Company launched an online effort to market its F-Series trucks, it created a database. One potential problem with the use of this database is: a. that customers may perceive it as an invasion of privacy b. that the database may be used to generate unrepresentative focus groups c. that media alternatives may be eliminated from promotional campaigns d. that it may lead to more experimental research e. the lack of adequate personal information on customers

answer

question

Refer to Frequent Flyers. Airlines' commitment to providing premium customer service to its most valuable customers indicates a commitment to: a. customer relations mapping (CRM) b. consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. internal transactional marketing (ITM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. consumer replacement market (CRM)

answer

question

Refer to Frequent Flyers. American Airlines gives its gate employees the authority to hold up a connecting flight when a ConciergeKey member's incoming flight is delayed. The delegation of this authority to a gate employee is called: a. empowerment b. trickle-down management c. centralization d. synergy e. knowledge management

answer

question

Refer to Frequent Flyers. Most airlines have considerable information regarding their frequent flyers, some of which has been purchased from outside vendors. Purchasing information on customers to better describe their needs or to determine how responsive they might be to marketing programs is called: a. data mining b. database enhancement c. data warehouse d. database expansion e. knowledge management

answer

question

Refer to Frequent Flyers. Airlines have estimated the future value of these elite flyers and found that they are very profitable for their business. What technique did the airlines use to project the future value of these flyers over a period of several years? a. RFM analysis b. Lifetime value analysis (LTV) c. Cluster analysis d. Conjoint analysis e. Data enhancement analysis

answer

question

Refer to Frequent Flyers. The ConciergeKey program, which rewards loyal customers for making multiple purchases, is an example of a(n): a. RFM program b. LTV program c. loyalty program d. customer relationship program e. interactive program

answer

question

Refer to Blood Services. The card sent by the organization is an example of a: a. touch point b. transformational exchange c. predictive campaign d. point-of-sale interaction e. service message

answer

question

Refer to Blood Services. The information about past donors is stored in the organization's: a. integration systems b. information repository c. data mine d. database e. spreadsheet

answer

question

Refer to Blood Services. The organization developed a _____ list of donors to receive birthday cards. a. compiled b. benefit-based c. response d. feedback e. proactive

answer

question

Refer to Blood Services. What technique did the organization use to analyze its donor information? a. Data identifying b. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis c. Niche marketing d. Predictive modeling e. Customer segmentation

answer

question

Refer to Blood Services. The organization used CRM marketing to: a. cross-sell other products b. design targeted marketing communications c. increase effectiveness of its distribution strategy d. define customer service e. do all of these things

answer

question

Refer to Kraft Foods. Kraft's food & family magazine is a component in a program that allows Kraft to gather information about, and build a relationship with, a group of their best customers. In other words, the food & family magazine is a component in Kraft's _____ program. a. customer relations mapping (CRM) b. consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. internal transactional marketing (ITM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. consumer replacement market (CRM)

answer

question

Refer to Kraft Foods. Kraft's food & family magazine encourages customers to visit the company's Web site to vote and provide ratings and feedback on their favorite recipes. Kraft then sends a "thank-you" e-mail for responding to their Web site. All of these activities show that Kraft is: a. customer-centric b. product oriented c. sales oriented d. customer service focused e. goal oriented

answer

question

Refer to Kraft Foods. When Kraft Food's employees share information about customers gathered through the food & family initiative, they are practicing: a. interaction management b. knowledge management c. profit-oriented management d. lead management e. performance management

answer

question

Refer to Kraft Foods. Consumers who receive food & family magazine have several contacts with Kraft Foods in which there is a sharing of information. For example, readers must complete a profile to receive the magazine. Also, consumers are allowed to send in recipes and to vote and provide ratings and feedback on their favorite recipes at Kraftfoods.com. Each of these contacts is considered a: a. touch point b. customer interaction point c. learning point d. customer-centric point e. moment of sharing

answer

question

Refer to Kraft Foods. To be useful to the whole organization, the data collected by Kraft Foods through their food & family magazine initiative must be centralized. This process of centralizing data for a CRM system is termed: a. data packing b. data pooling c. data cleaning d. data mining e. data warehousing

answer

question

Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. The information gathered from ticket holders will probably become part of the organization's _____ list. a. compiled b. cookies c. response d. electronic cash e. Internet research

answer

question

Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Sparks' season ticket holders that frequent the Sparks' fan Web site have spent money to buy their season tickets and are likely to purchase again. Which type of analysis will help Sparks identify those customers most likely to purchase again because they have bought recently? a. The 80/20 customer b. Loyalty c. RFM d. CRM analysis e. Cohort value

answer

question

Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Suppose that the Sparks management sees six categories of fans at their games. They feel that some people at Sparks games generally fall within one of the following six groups: (1) general sports fans, (2) basketball fans, (3) Sparks fans, (4) general fans of women's sports, (5) fans of opposing teams, and (6) those seeking entertainment. Dividing customer groups down in this manner is termed: a. customer data mining b. customer segmentation c. customer targeting d. customer positioning e. customer centric

answer

question

Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Home Court Advantage is an example of a _____ program. a. reward b. incentive c. co-branding d. loyalty e. cohort

answer

question

Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Some consumers may not want others to provide their names to the Sparks organization. This reflects which concern regarding CRM programs? a. Effectiveness b. Expense c. Consumer privacy d. Consumer dissonance e. Consumer apathy

answer

STUDY

Decision Support Systems Identifying The Problem Long Term Results Market Segmentation Strategies Marketing Research Principles Of Marketing Sports And Entertainment Marketing

Marketing Management Chap 4 – Flashcards 153 terms

Ray Collins

153 terms

Preview

Marketing Management Chap 4 – Flashcards

question

1) ________ provide diagnostic information about how and why we observe certain effects in the marketplace, and what that means to marketers. A) Marketing insights B) Marketing metrics C) Marketing channels D) Marketing information systems E) Marketing-mix models

answer

question

2) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company. A) Marketing communications B) Internal marketing C) Marketing research D) Market segmentation E) Marketing planning

answer

question

3) Anne, a beautician by profession, owns a salon in the small town of Franklin, New Jersey. Every weekend, she makes it a point to visit the other salons in Franklin to find out about the beauty services they offer to customers. Anne is attempting to conduct market research by ________. A) studying customer behavior B) forming alliances with competing firms C) using experimental research techniques D) checking out rivals E) tapping into marketing partner expertise

answer

question

4) Which of the following types of marketing research firms gathers consumer and trade information and then sells it for a fee (e.g., Nielsen Company)? A) custom marketing research firms B) syndicated-service research firms C) specialty-line marketing research firms D) generic marketing research firms E) focused marketing research firms

answer

question

example of a ________ research firm. A) custom marketing B) specialty-line marketing C) syndicated-service D) generic marketing E) focused marketing

answer

question

6) The Nielsen Company and IRI are examples of ________, or firms that gather consumer and trade information which they sell for a fee. A) customer marketing research firms B) internal marketing insights departments C) qualitative marketing intelligence agencies D) syndicated-service research firms E) specialty-line marketing research firms

answer

question

7) AT&T, GE, Samsung, Shell Oil, and others have engaged in a(n) ________ exercise by sponsoring the Innovation Challenge, where top MBA students compete in teams to address company problems. A) crowdcasting B) syndication C) net monitoring D) product-preference E) advertising evaluation

answer

question

8) A field-service firm is a ________ research firm. A) custom marketing B) syndicated-service C) specialty-line marketing D) consumer marketing E) social marketing

answer

question

9) You are the marketing research director of a medium-sized manufacturing firm and you would like to engage an outside marketing research firm to conduct field interviews. Which of the following categories of marketing research firms should you use? A) syndicated-service research firms B) custom marketing research firms C) global research management firms D) specialty-line marketing research firms E) brand management specialty research firms

answer

question

10) A(n) ________ is a gathering of 6 to 10 people carefully selected by researchers based on certain demographic, psychographic, or other considerations and brought together to discuss various topics of interest at length. A) target group B) pilot group C) focus group D) customer base E) ethnographic group

answer

question

11) Good marketing insights often form the basis of successful marketing programs.

answer

TRUE

question

12) When companies engage students to design and carry out projects, the payoff to the students is experience and visibility; the payoff to the companies is a fresh sets of eyes to solve problems at a fraction of what consultants would charge.

answer

TRUE

question

13) A good example of a syndicated-service research firm is Nielsen Media Research.

answer

TRUE

question

14) Custom marketing research firms sell field interviewing services to other firms.

answer

FALSE

question

15) Discuss the different ways that can be adopted by small manufacturing firms to conduct market research.

answer

The small firms can adopt the following ways to conduct market research: • They can engage students or professors to design and carry out projects • They can collect considerable information at very little cost by examining competitors' Web sites, monitoring chat rooms, and accessing published data • The owners of small business firms can routinely visit competitors to learn about changes they have made • By tapping into marketing partner expertise

question

16) What are the six steps involved in the marketing research process?

answer

The six steps are: 1. define the problem and research objectives 2. develop the research plan 3. collect the information 4. analyze the information 5. present the findings 6. make the decision

question

17) List the challenges faced to conduct a good focus group discussion.

answer

There are many challenges to conducting a good focus group. Some researchers believe consumers have been so bombarded with ads, they unconsciously parrot back what they've already heard instead of what they really think. There's always a concern that participants are just trying to maintain their self-image and public persona or have a need to identify with the other members of the group. Participants also may not be willing to acknowledge in public — or may not even recognize — their behavior patterns and motivations. And the "loudmouth or know-it-all" problem often crops up when one highly opinionated person drowns out the rest of the group.

question

18) What are the relative advantages of online and in-person focus groups?

answer

An area of increasing interest is online focus groups. These may cost less than a fourth of a traditional, in-person focus group. Online focus groups also offer the advantages of being less intrusive, allowing geographically diverse subjects to participate, and yielding fast results. They are useful at collecting reactions to focused topics such as a specific new product concept. Proponents of in-person focus groups, on the other hand, maintain that in-person focus groups allow marketers to be immersed in the research process, get a close-up look to people's emotional and physical reactions, and ensure that sensitive materials are not leaked. Marketers can also make spontaneous adjustments to the flow of discussion and delve deeply into more complex topics, such as alternative creative concepts for a new ad campaign.

question

20) Explain qualitative research and why it might be useful to marketers. What are its major drawbacks?

answer

Qualitative research techniques are relatively unstructured measurement approaches to permit a range of possible responses, and they are a creative means of ascertaining consumer perceptions that may otherwise be difficult to uncover. Because of the freedom it affords both researchers in their probes and consumers in their responses, qualitative research can often be an especially useful first step in exploring consumers' brand and product perceptions. It is indirect in nature, so consumers may be less guarded and reveal more about themselves in the process. Qualitative research does have its drawbacks. Marketers must temper the in-depth insights that emerge with the fact that the samples are often very small and may not necessarily generalize to broader populations. And different researchers examining the same qualitative results may draw very different conclusions.

question

21) Give an example of the different technological devices that have been developed to provide insight into the consumers' behavior to the researchers.

answer

There has been much interest in recent years in various technological devices. Galvanometers can measure the interest or emotions aroused by exposure to a specific ad or picture. The tachistoscope flashes an ad to a subject with an exposure interval that may range from less than one hundredth of a second to several seconds. After each exposure, the respondent describes everything he or she recalls. Eye cameras study respondents' eye movements to see where their eyes land first, how long they linger on a given item, and so on.

question

22) What is the chief advantage of using each of the following contact methods: mail questionnaire, telephone interview, and personal interview?

answer

The chief advantage of each contact method mentioned is 1) mail questionnaire — the best way to reach people who would not give personal interviews or whose responses might be biased or distorted by the interviews, 2) telephone interviews — the best method for gathering information quickly and the interviewer is also able to clarify questions if respondents do not understand them, and 3) personal interview — the most versatile method because they can ask more questions and record additional observations about the respondent.

question

23) Give reasons to justify that online research is versatile.

answer

Student Answers will vary. Increased broadband penetration offers online research even more flexibility and capabilities. For instance, virtual reality software lets visitors inspect 3-D models of products such as cameras, cars, and medical equipment and manipulate product characteristics. Even at the basic tactile level, online surveys can make Answering a questionnaire easier and more fun than paper-and-pencil versions. Online community blogs allow customer participants to interact with each other.

question

24) Mars Group is a market research firm that sells field interviewing services to a software development firm. Can Mars Group be categorized as a custom market research firm? Give reasons to support your Answer.

answer

No, Mars group is a specialty-line marketing research firm as it sells field interviewing services, whereas a custom marketing research firm is hired to carry out specific projects.

question

25) As a marketing researcher of Matrix Private Limited you have been asked to forecast the demand for your new range of body wash if a discount of 10 percent is offered on each unit sold. Identify the research category into which this market research falls.

answer

Here the researcher needs to study the effect of the discount on the demand for body wash. The objective of this research is to establish the cause and effect relationship between the discount and the demand for body wash. Therefore, this can be categorized as causal research.

question

26) Highspeed Motors is planning to introduce its new sports bike into the market. It collects data on prices, designs, features, and performance of sports bikes manufactured by other companies from their respective Web sites. What type of data is being used by Highspeed motors in this case?

answer

Highspeed Motors is using secondary data for its research.

question

27) Ryan has been appointed by Target Internationals, a hardware manufacturing firm, as a marketing researcher and has been asked to conduct marketing research to produce new insights of consumer attitude on its vacuum tubes. Ryan begins the research process by defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives. Mention the next step that Ryan will follow to continue with the research.

answer

After defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives, the researcher develops the most efficient plan for gathering the needed information, and will estimate the cost of conducting the research.

question

28) Axis Centre, a department store, has installed CCTV cameras to record consumer actions. Which research approach has been adopted by Axis and why?

answer

Axis has adopted observational research approach to gather fresh data by observing the consumers' actions in the store.

question

29) As a marketing manager of Kids Care, a manufacturer of baby soaps, Tim plans to analyze customer attitudes by using the focus group research approach. How will he conduct the research in this case?

answer

Student Answers will vary. Tim selects 8 first-time mothers who can adequately represent the users you want to target. He also appoints a skilled moderator to facilitate the discussion among these women to ensure everyone participates and stays on track. The moderator provides questions based on the "script" prepared by Tim. The discussions are recorded for further analysis.

question

30) Copra, a manufacturer of cigarettes, conducts a survey before launching its new range of herbal cigarettes. What is the basic purpose of undertaking such a survey by Copra?

answer

Copra undertakes the survey to assess people's knowledge, beliefs, preferences, and satisfaction and to measure these magnitudes in the general population.

question

31) Greenfoods, a manufacturer of ready-to-eat foods, conducts over 60,000 customer surveys each month through its retail outlets. What risk is Greenfoods likely to face by putting out so many surveys each month?

answer

By putting out so many surveys each month, Greenfoods may run the risk of creating "survey burnout" and seeing response rates drop sharply.

question

32) As a marketing researcher of a firm, you plan to conduct behavioral research to develop marketing insight. What procedure would you follow in this case?

answer

In order to conduct behavioral research, the marketing researchers need to develop consumer insight by analyzing store scanning data, catalog purchases, and customer databases.

question

33) A questionnaire used in a survey contains a question such as: "Retail-R-Us offers the best everyday prices" and the responses that the respondents can opt for are: "Strongly Disagree," "Disagree," "No opinion," "Agree," "Strongly Agree." Identify and define the type of closed-end question that has been exemplified in this case.

answer

The question mentioned above is a Likert Scale question. A Likert Scale is a statement with which the respondent shows the amount of agreement or disagreement.

question

34) Suppose, as a marketing manager of a firm, you plan to conduct market research using qualitative measures. For the purpose of developing consumer insight you have distributed among the respondents a picture of a man and woman in a coffee shop, and have asked the respondents to make up a story about what is happening in the picture. Identify and define the type of question used in this case.

answer

The marketing manager has used Thematic Apperception Test in this case. In Thematic Apperception Test, a picture is presented and respondents are asked to make up a story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture.

question

35) The Bledsoe Marketing Research group has been hired to administer a series of questions to shoppers in a local mall. If questions on the survey questionnaire have only two possible responses (such as "yes/no"), what type of questions are these?

answer

Questions of this type are closed-end questions that are dichotomous in nature.

question

36) As a marketing researcher, if you plan to conduct your research using qualitative measures like brand personification, what are you likely to ask the respondents in order to elicit their impression on your brand?

answer

Student Answers will vary. When the marketing researcher uses the brand personification approach to get inside consumers' minds and find out what they think or feel about brands and products, he is likely to ask the respondents what kind of person they think of when the brand is mentioned.

question

37) Jane is a marketing researcher of a cellular service providing firm. She is conducting market research before the firm decides to launch its 4G services. After deciding on the research approach and instruments, what is the next step that Jane should follow? What are the three things that she is required to consider in this step?

answer

After deciding on the research approach and instruments, Jane must design a sampling plan. In order to design the plan, Jane has to decide upon the sampling unit (whom she should survey?), the sample size (how many people should she survey?), sampling procedure (how should she choose the respondents?).

question

38) A marketing research firm has instructed its research associates to collect primary data by stopping people at a shopping mall or busy street corner and request an interview on the spot. Which contact method is being used by the researchers in this case? What probable risk may the researchers face while using this method?

answer

The researchers are using intercept interviewing method for collecting primary data in this case. The researchers run the risk of including nonprobability samples while using this method.

question

39) Aromas is a popular brand of cosmetic products. During the last quarter, the company suffered a drop in sales of some of its more popular offerings. In an attempt to find out the problem, Aromas designed an online questionnaire for its existing customers, who can fill out the questionnaire and also leave their comments and suggestions for improvement. What are the problems that Aromas is likely to face by using this method of contacting its customers?

answer

Student Answers will vary. Aromas is using online contact method to gather customer feedback. The major problems of using this method are: • samples may be small and skewed • online panels and communities can suffer from excessive turnover • such online market research can suffer from technological problems and inconsistencies

question

40) When American Airlines decided to review new ideas aimed at first-class passengers on very long flights, like an ultra high-speed Wi-Fi service and 124 channels of high-definition satellite cable TV, their first step in the marketing research process was to ________. A) develop the research plan B) define the problem and research objectives C) collect the information D) analyze the information E) make the decision

answer

question

41) The marketing research process begins by ________. A) developing a research plan B) defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives C) analyzing the internal environment D) reading marketing research journals E) contacting a professional research consultant

answer

question

42) When American Airlines asked "1) What types of first-class passengers would respond most to ultra high-speed Wi-Fi service and 2) How many are likely to use it at different price levels?", it was ________. A) setting specific research objectives B) conducting exploratory research C) outlining decisions D) defining the problem E) designing a research plan

answer

question

43) Which of the following is considered to be the last step in the marketing research process? A) presenting findings B) analyzing information C) controlling the environment D) arriving at a decision E) drafting the report

answer

question

44) If the goal of marketing research is to shed light on the real nature of a problem and to suggest possible solutions or new ideas, the research is said to be ________. A) descriptive B) quantitative C) primary D) secondary E) exploratory

answer

question

45) Unistar Inc., is an FMCG company that produces a wide range of offerings such as grocery items and personal care products. If Unistar wants to estimate the demand for its new line of body moisturizers, which are all priced at $18, it should opt for ________ research. A) descriptive B) exploratory C) prescriptive D) causal E) qualitative

answer

question

46) When American Airlines asked how many first-class passengers would purchase in-flight Internet service at $25, they were conducting ________ research. A) causal B) exploratory C) secondary D) ethnographic E) descriptive

answer

question

47) Researchers usually start their investigation by examining some of the rich variety of low-cost and readily available ________ data, then collect ________ data if the needed data don't existing or are dated, inaccurate, incomplete or unreliable. A) primary; secondary B) secondary; primary C) primary; econometric D) secondary; econometric E) exploratory; econometric

answer

question

48) A company would like to study the impact of advertising expenditure on sales and sales revenue. This is an example of ________ research. A) prescriptive B) causal C) secondary D) exploratory E) qualitative

answer

question

49) The marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which stage of the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place? A) defining the problem B) analyzing the information C) drafting the report D) developing the research plan E) collecting information

answer

question

50) Designing a research plan calls for decisions on all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) research objectives B) data sources C) research approaches D) research instruments E) sampling plans

answer

question

51) ________ data are data that were collected for another purpose and already exist. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Primitive D) Cross-sectional E) Ordinate

answer

question

52) Before Sandra opened her florist shop she read all she could about the floral industry. She also consulted several published research reports to understand growth patterns in the local area with particular interest in the location of florists throughout the city. This ________ helped her to decide on the location of her store. A) primary data B) secondary data C) primitive data D) tertiary information E) licensed information

answer

question

53) Primary data can be collected in several ways. Installing CCTV cameras in a retail store whereby consumers' actions can be recorded is an example of ________ research. A) focus group B) survey C) observational D) behavioral E) experimental

answer

question

54) ________ research approach uses concepts and tools from anthropology and other social science disciplines to provide deep cultural understanding of how people live and work. A) Cognitive B) Inductive C) Archaeological D) Ethnographic E) Deductive

answer

question

55) The goal of ethnographic research is to ________. A) capture cause-and-effect relationships by eliminating competing explanations of the observed findings B) understand consumers' behavior by observing a sample group discussing various topics of interest at length C) study demographic variables such as age, gender, income, education, and so on, in relation to consumer buying patterns D) analyze customers' purchasing behavior through catalog purchases and customer databases E) immerse the researcher into consumers' lives to uncover unarticulated desires that might not surface in any other form of research

answer

question

56) As the marketing manager of Cominform Pvt. Ltd., a manufacturer of health drinks, you have selected 10 individuals who match the profile of your target customer, to participate in a discussion on changing lifestyle trends related to health. You have also hired a skilled moderator to facilitate the discussion and ensure that everyone participates and stays focused on the topic. The moderator provides questions and probes based on the "script" prepared by you. The discussions are also recorded for further analysis. Which of the following methods of acquiring primary data is being used in this case? A) observational research B) surveys C) behavioral data D) experiments E) focus groups

answer

question

57) Why must researchers avoid generalizing from focus group participants to the whole market? A) Participants' responses are not reliable. B) Most of the participants are likely to be ignorant about the topic of discussion. C) The size of the group is too small and the sample is not drawn randomly. D) Most of the participants are likely to exhibit similar tastes and preferences. E) The participants usually come from diverse backgrounds.

answer

question

58) Which of the following is used to assess people's knowledge, beliefs, preferences, and satisfaction and to measure these magnitudes in the general population? A) observational research B) descriptive research C) quantitative research D) survey research E) experimental research

answer

question

59) Orville Redenbacher popcorn yielded deep consumer insights from its ________ research, which suggested that the essence of popcorn was that it was a "facilitator of interaction." A) cognitive B) inductive C) archaeological D) ethnographic E) deductive

answer

question

60) The most scientifically valid research is ________ research. A) observation B) focus group C) survey D) behavioral E) experimental

answer

question

A) Experimental B) Behavioral C) Observational D) Focus group E) Descriptive

answer

question

62) Which of the following rules must be kept in mind while framing a questionnaire? A) Use broad and loosely defined words in the questions. B) Avoid using response bands. C) Ensure that fixed responses overlap. D) Frame hypothetical questions. E) Allow for the "other" in fixed-response questions. Answer "other" in fixed-response questions.

answer

question

63) Because of its flexibility, ________ are the most common technique of collecting primary data. A) questionnaires B) telephonic interviews C) behavioral research studies D) experimental designs E) focus groups

answer

question

64) ________ questions allow respondents to Answer in their own words and often reveal more about how people think. A) Open-end B) Dichotomous C) Likert scale D) Multiple choice E) Semantic differential

answer

question

65) Which of the following is true of qualitative research? A) It is a structured measurement approach that permits a range of possible responses. B) It is indirect in nature, so consumers may be less guarded. C) It requires large sample sizes. D) Its results can be easily generalized to broader populations. E) It generally results in similar results and conclusions across researchers.

answer

question

66) A scale that connects two bipolar words is called a ________. A) dichotomous question B) multiple-choice question C) Likert scale D) semantic differential E) word association

answer

question

67) A question that respondents can Answer in an almost unlimited number of ways is called a ________ question. A) structured B) closed-end C) completely unstructured D) dichotomous E) multiple choice

answer

question

68) "Truancy should be checked in schools: 1) Strongly disagree, 2) Disagree, 3) Neither agree nor disagree, 4) Agree, 5) Strongly agree." This is an example of a ________. A) Likert scale B) semantic differential C) multiple choice question D) Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT) E) dichotomous question

answer

question

69) An item in a questionnaire states that "most politicians cannot be trusted." Respondents are required to provide their Answers by choosing any one of the following options: 1) Strongly disagree, 2) Disagree, 3) Neither agree nor disagree, 4) Agree, 5) Strongly agree. This is an example of a ________. A) semantic differential B) word association question C) Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT) D) Likert scale E) dichotomous question

answer

question

70) If a marketing researcher chooses to use word associations, the researcher is using ________ questions. A) closed-end B) Likert scale C) open-end D) rating scale E) semantic differential

answer

question

71) In which of the following types of tests is a picture presented and respondents are asked to make up a story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture? A) semantic differential test B) word association test C) story completion test D) thematic apperception test E) picture test

answer

question

72) The question "What is your opinion of the measures taken by the government to control inflation?" is an example of a ________ question. A) semantic differential B) word association C) completely unstructured D) story completion E) dichotomous

answer

question

73) In which of the following qualitative methods are subjects asked to complete an incomplete stimulus? A) word association B) projective techniques C) visualization D) brand personification E) laddering

answer

question

74) ________ requires people to create a collage from magazine photos or drawings to depict their perceptions. A) Brand personification B) Projective technique C) Visualization D) Laddering E) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique

answer

question

75) During his research about people's perceptions of Broadway musicals, Gerry asked people to create collages, on their own, out of magazine photos, which is a technique called ________. A) brand personification B) projective technique C) visualization D) laddering E) transformation

answer

question

76) The primary purpose of ________ is to identify the range of possible brand associations in consumers' minds. A) experimental research B) dashboarding C) laddering D) semantic differentials E) word associations

answer

question

77) The John Deere brand might make someone think of a rugged, Midwestern male who is hardworking and trustworthy, which the brand management folks would learn through ________ research. A) brand personification B) projective technique C) visualization D) laddering E) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique

answer

question

78) If a researcher asks a consumer why s/he wants to buy a Nokia cell phone, and learns, "They look well built" (attribute); then asks "Why is it important that the phone be well built?" and learns "It suggests Nokia is reliable" (a functional benefit); then asks "Why is reliability important?" and learns "Because my colleagues or family can be sure to reach me" (an emotional benefit), the researcher is using a technique called ________. A) brand personification B) projective technique C) visualization D) laddering E) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique

answer

question

79) With respect to the sampling plan, three decisions must be made: 1) the sampling unit — who is to be surveyed; 2) sample size — how many people should be surveyed; and 3) ________. A) sample cost — how much does sampling cost B) surveyor skill — who should conduct the survey C) sample security — how should the sample data be protected D) sampling procedure — how should respondents be chosen E) sample supervisor — who leads the sampling effort

answer

question

80) Which of the seven main metaphors in the ZMET reflects a sense of mastery, vulnerability, and well-being? A) Balance B) Transformation C) Journey D) Container E) Control

answer

question

81) Which of the seven main metaphors in the ZMET reflects changes in substance and circumstance? A) Balance B) Transformation C) Journey D) Container E) Control

answer

question

82) During a ZMET study, Chloe selected images that, when entered into the computer program, suggested the metaphor related to the meeting of past, present, and future, or the ________ metaphor. A) Balance B) Transformation C) Journey D) Container E) Control

answer

question

83) During a focus-group session, one set of participants indicated that Dell computers reminded them of a surfer, Apple computers of a mad scientist, and IBM was equated to Ebenezer Scrooge from Charles Dickens's tale, "A Christmas Carol." Which of the following qualitative research approaches relates to the approach described above? A) projective techniques B) visualization C) brand personification D) laddering E) brand architecture

answer

question

84) According to the concept of ________, a series of increasingly more specific "why" questions can reveal consumer motivation and consumers' deeper, more abstract goals. A) word association B) projection C) visualizing D) brand personification E) laddering

answer

question

85) ________ measure the interest or emotions aroused by exposure to a specific ad or picture. A) Tachistoscopes B) Polygraphs C) Galvanometers D) Audiometers E) GPS systems

answer

question

86) ________ flash an ad to a subject with an exposure interval that may range from less than one hundredth of a second to several seconds. A) Tachistoscopes B) Audiometers C) Polygraphs D) GPS systems E) Galvanometers

answer

question

87) ________ attached to television sets in participating homes now record when the set is on and to which channel it is tuned. A) Tachistoscopes B) Polygraphs C) GPS systems D) Audiometers E) Galvanometers

answer

question

88) Which of the following statements about telephone interviewing is true? A) It usually takes a long time to gather information through telephone interviews. B) The interviewer is unable to clarify questions if respondents do not understand them. C) The response rate for telephone interviews has been typically lower than for mailed questionnaires. D) The US government generally encourages telemarketing by firms. E) Telephone interviewing in the US is getting more difficult because of consumers' growing antipathy toward telemarketers.

answer

question

89) If a marketing researcher wishes to reach those people who would not give personal interviews or whose responses might be biased or distorted by interviewers, he or she should use ________. A) mail questionnaires B) telephonic interviews C) online interviews D) focus groups E) observational research

answer

question

90) Which of the following is considered to be the most versatile of all the contact methods? A) mail questionnaires B) telephone interviews C) personal interviews D) online interviews E) field trials

answer

question

91) In ________ interviews, researchers stop people at a shopping mall or busy street corner and request an interview on the spot. A) intercept B) arranged C) group D) structured E) behavioral

answer

question

92) Which of the following is an advantage of personal interviews? A) It is a relatively inexpensive method of gathering information. B) The possibility of interviewer bias is minimized. C) Participants can choose to respond at their own convenience. D) It facilitates anonymous responses. E) Interviewers can record additional observation about the respondent such as body language.

answer

question

93) Which of the following is one of the key disadvantages of online market research? A) Online research is expensive. B) Online research is time consuming. C) People tend to be dishonest online. D) Online research lacks versatility. E) Samples can be small and skewed.

answer

question

94) Which of the following is an advantage of online research? A) Samples are generally representative of the target population. B) Members of online panels and communities tend to have low turnover. C) Online research is relatively free of technological problems and inconsistencies. D) People tend to be honest and thoughtful online. E) Online research is slow but gathers detailed information.

answer

question

95) The ________ phase of marketing research is generally the most expensive and the most prone to error. A) contact B) research planning C) questionnaire design D) interview design E) data collection

answer

question

96) After collecting the relevant information, the next step in the marketing research process is to ________. A) develop the research plan B) define the problem and research objectives C) present the project report D) make the final decision E) analyze the acquired data

answer

question

97) After computing averages and measures of dispersion for the major variables and applying advanced statistical techniques and decision models in the hope of discovering additional findings from the gathered information, researchers ________. A) define the problem, the decision alternatives, and the research objectives B) present findings relevant to the major marketing decisions facing management C) evaluate the costs associated with data collected D) analyze the appropriateness of the data sources used E) develop the research plan

answer

question

98) Why do firms employ more than one persona to gather information about target consumers? A) Within a group, consumers usually exhibit similar tastes and preferences. B) The distribution of income and wealth are more or less equal across different customer segments. C) Although customers have unique needs, essentially their basic needs and requirements are the same. D) Any target market may have a range of consumers who vary along a number of key dimensions. E) The firms want to provide consumers with a greater number of product choices.

answer

question

99) A ________ has been defined as a coordinated collection of data, systems, tools, and techniques with supporting software and hardware by which an organization gathers and interprets relevant information from business and environment and turns it into a basis for marketing action. A) marketing metric B) marketing channel system C) marketing decision support system D) marketing research system E) database management system

answer

question

100) All of the following are considered to be among the seven characteristics of good marketing research EXCEPT ________. A) the scientific method B) research creativity C) multiple methods D) ethical marketing E) independence of models and data

answer

question

101) After developing a research plan, a marketing researcher should define the problem and research objectives.

answer

FALSE

question

102) The goal of exploratory research is to shed light on the real nature of the problem and to suggest possible solutions or new ideas.

answer

TRUE

question

103) James collected primary data when he distributed a survey to dorm residents to discover their attitudes and opinions on campus life.

answer

TRUE

question

104) Secondary data are data freshly gathered for a specific purpose or for a specific research project.

answer

FALSE

question

105) The goal of ethnographic research is to immerse the researcher into consumers' lives to uncover unarticulated desires that might not surface in any other form of research.

answer

TRUE

question

106) Researchers should generalize findings from focus group participants to the whole market.

answer

FALSE

question

107) Keeping a survey short and simple and contacting customers no more than once a month are two keys to drawing people into the data collection effort.

answer

TRUE

question

108) A good example of collecting behavioral data would be when a store uses scanners to read barcodes on products selected by consumers.

answer

TRUE

question

109) Behavioral research is the most scientifically valid research.

answer

FALSE

question

110) Experiments call for selecting matched groups of subjects, subjecting them to different treatments, controlling extraneous variables, and checking whether observed response differences are statistically significant.

answer

TRUE

question

111) Owing to its greater flexibility, a questionnaire is by far the most common instrument used to collect primary data.

answer

TRUE

question

112) Qualitative research techniques are relatively structured measurement approaches that permit limited possible responses.

answer

FALSE

question

113) A questionnaire should contain sophisticated and uncommon words.

answer

FALSE

question

114) If a marketing researcher decides to use a Likert scale, the researcher has chosen a technique wherein the respondent reviews a statement that shows the amount of agreement/disagreement with some product, service, or concept.

answer

TRUE

question

115) A dichotomous question is a question with three or more Answers.

answer

FALSE

question

116) A scale that describes the respondent's intention to buy a particular product is called a rating scale.

answer

FALSE

question

117) Visualization requires people to create a collage from magazine photos or drawings to depict their perceptions.

answer

TRUE

question

118) When Bank of America followed female baby boomers at home and while they shopped to observe things the shoppers might not have been able to articulate, they were using ethnographic research.

answer

TRUE

question

119) Safeway supermarket's scanner data shows that high-income people don't necessarily buy the more expensive brands. This is an example of survey research.

answer

FALSE

question

120) A question that respondents can Answer in an almost unlimited number of ways like "What is your opinion of Cracker Barrel?" is a completely unstructured question.

answer

TRUE

question

121) The type of open-ended question where a picture is presented and respondents are asked to make up a story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture is word association.

answer

FALSE

question

122) When a market researcher asks increasingly more specific "why" questions to reveal consumer motivations and deeper, more abstract goals, s/he is using visualization.

answer

FALSE

question

123) A tachistoscope flashes an ad to a subject with an exposure interval that may range from less than one hundredth of a second to several seconds and asks the respondent to describe what s/he recalls.

answer

TRUE

question

124) Samples of less than 1% of a population can often provide good reliability, with a credible sampling procedure.

answer

TRUE

question

125) Probability sampling allows confidence limits to be calculated for sampling error and makes the sampling more representative.

answer

TRUE

question

126) The response rate is usually very high for mail questionnaires.

answer

FALSE

question

127) If a marketing researcher is looking for a contact method that can gather information quickly and allow the interviewer to clarify questions if necessary, he or she will choose the telephone interview method.

answer

TRUE

question

128) A good illustration of what is called the arranged interview occurs when interviewers stop people in a shopping mall or on a busy street and solicit information necessary to their research effort.

answer

FALSE

question

129) Online surveys are fast because the survey can automatically direct respondents to applicable questions and transmit results immediately.

answer

TRUE

question

130) Marketing ________ are a structured way to disseminate the insights gleaned from the two complementary approaches to measuring marketing productivity within the organization. A) metrics B) decision support systems C) dashboards D) segments E) mix models

answer

question

131) Two complimentary approaches to measure marketing productivity are ________ and marketing-mix modeling. A) quality ratios B) salesperson satisfaction rates C) marketing metrics D) retailer satisfaction indices E) customer feedback surveys

answer

question

132) Which of the following refers to the set of measures that helps firms to quantify, compare, and interpret their marketing performance? A) marketing diagnostics B) marketing information systems C) marketing simulation D) marketing intelligence E) marketing metrics

answer

question

133) London Business School's Tim Ambler believes the evaluation of marketing performance can be split into two parts: ________. A) long-term results and changes in brand equity B) short-term results and changes in brand equity C) long-term results and changes in consumer perceptions D) short-term results and changes in profitability E) changes in market share and changes in profitability

answer

question

134) Which of the following is an external marketing metric that companies need to monitor? A) resource adequacy B) staffing or skill levels C) active innovation support D) market share E) relative employee satisfaction

answer

question

135) Which of the following is an internal marketing metric that companies need to monitor? A) market share B) consumer satisfaction C) relative perceived quality D) total number of customers E) relative employee satisfaction

answer

question

136) Marketing ________ analyze(s) data from a variety of sources, such as retailer scanner data, company shipment data, pricing, media, and promotion spending data, to understand more precisely the effects of specific marketing activities. A) metrics B) mix models C) forecasting D) intelligence databases E) decision systems

answer

question

137) When the marketers of a mobile phone manufacturing company want to determine the impact of individual media such as television and online display ads on sales as well as that of trade activities like every day low price, off-shelf display and so on, they usually use ________. A) marketing metrics B) market segmentation strategies C) market capitalization techniques D) market basket analysis E) marketing-mix models

answer

question

138) A ________ scorecard records how well the company is doing year after year based on measures such as the average perception of the company's product quality relative to its chief competitor. A) customer-performance B) stakeholder-performance C) marketing balanced D) vendor E) generic

answer

question

139) If a company actively tracks the satisfaction of its suppliers, banks, and distributors, it is using what is called a ________ scorecard. A) customer-performance B) stakeholder-performance C) marketing balanced D) vendor E) generic

answer

question

140) According to marketing consultant Pat LaPointe, the ________ metrics measurement pathway of the marketing dashboard reflects how prospects become consumers. A) customer B) unit C) cash-flow D) brand E) productivity

answer

question

141) According to marketing consultant Pat LaPointe, the ________ metrics measurement pathway of the marketing dashboard focuses on how well marketing expenditures are achieving short-term returns. A) customer B) unit C) cash-flow D) brand E) productivity

answer

question

142) Marketing expenses and investments as inputs can be quantified only in the long run, whereas the resulting outputs such as broader brand awareness, enhanced brand image, greater customer loyalty, and improved new product prospects manifest themselves in the short run.

answer

FALSE

question

143) Marketing-mix modeling is used to estimate causal relationships and measure how marketing activity affects outcomes.

answer

TRUE

question

144) Marketing accountability means that marketers must more precisely estimate the effects of different marketing investments.

answer

TRUE

question

145) Especially popular with such companies as Procter & Gamble, marketing-mix modeling is used to allocate or reallocate expenditures.

answer

TRUE

question

146) Marketing-mix modeling focuses on baseline sales or long-term effects instead of incremental growth.

answer

FALSE

question

147) Management can assemble a summary set of relevant internal and external measures in a marketing dashboard for synthesis and interpretation.

answer

TRUE

question

148) A stakeholder-performance scorecard tracks the satisfaction with the company and its products and services among such entities as suppliers, banks, and stockholders.

answer

TRUE

question

149) Relative perceived quality is an example of an external marketing metric.

answer

TRUE

question

150) Willingness to change is an internal marketing metric.

answer

TRUE

question

151) A customer-performance scorecard tracks the satisfaction of various constituencies who have a critical interest in and impact on the company's performance: employees, suppliers, banks, distributors, retailers and stockholders.

answer

FALSE

question

152) What are the major shortcomings of marketing-mix modeling?

answer

The major shortcomings of marketing-mix modeling are: • Although marketing-mix modeling helps to isolate effects, it is less effective at assessing how different marketing elements work in combination. • Marketing-mix modeling focuses on incremental growth instead of baseline sales or long-term effects. • The integration of important metrics such as customer satisfaction, awareness, and brand equity into marketing-mix modeling is limited. • Marketing-mix modeling generally fails to incorporate metrics related to competitors, the trade, or the sales force.

question

various constituencies who have a critical interest and impact your company's performance. List four constituencies that might be included.

answer

The stakeholder-performance scorecard could track the satisfaction of employees, suppliers, banks, distributors, retailers, and stockholders.

question

154) As a marketing controller of a company you have been asked to develop a customer-performance scorecard for your company's toy division. List three measures you might include.

answer

Student Answers will vary. The three measures that might be included are: 1. percentage of new customers to average number of customers 2. percentage of lost customers to average number of customers 3. percentage of win-back customers to average number of customers

STUDY

Chief Information Officer Decision Support Systems Educational Technology Transaction Processing Systems

Management Information Systems (Chapter 2) – Flashcards 29 terms

Matthew Carle

29 terms

Preview

Management Information Systems (Chapter 2) – Flashcards

question

transaction processing systems (TPS)

answer

a computerized system that performs and records the daily routine transactions necessary to conduct business, such as sales order entry, hotel reservations, payroll, employee record keeping, and shipping

question

business intelligence

answer

a contemporary term for data and software tools for organizing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help managers and other enterprise users make more informed decisions

question

management information systems (MIS)

answer

provides middle managers with reports on the organization's current performance

question

decision- support systems (DSS)

answer

focuses on problems that are unique and rapidly changing, for which the procedure for arriving at a solution may not be fully predefined in advance

question

executive support systems (ESS)

answer

information systems at the organization's strategic level designed to address unstructures decision making through advanced graphics and communications

question

portal

answer

uses a web interface to present integrated personalized business content

question

digital dashboard

answer

displays on a single screen graphs and charts of key performance indicators for managing a company

question

enterprise applications

answer

systems that span functional areas, focus on executing business processes across the business firm, and include all levels of management

question

enterprise systems (enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems)

answer

integrate business processes in manufacturing and production, finance and accounting, sales and marketing, and human resources into a single software system

question

supply chain management (SCM) systems

answer

help suppliers, purchasing firms, distributors, and logistics companies share information about orders, production, inventory levels, and delivery of products and services so they can source, produce, and deliver goods and services efficiently

question

interorganizational system

answer

automate the flow of information across organizational boundaries

question

customer relationship management (CRM) systems

answer

provides information to coordinate all of the business processes that deal with custoemrs in sales, marketing, and service to optimize revenue, customer satisfaction, and customer retention

question

knowledge management systems (KMS)

answer

collect all relevent knowledge and experience in the firm, and make it available wherever and whenever it is neeed to improve business processes and management decisions

question

electronic business (e-business)

answer

the use of digital technology and the internet to execute the major business processes in the enterprise

question

electronic commerce (e-commerce)

answer

the process of buying and selling goods and services electronically involving transactions using the internet, networks, and other digital technologies

question

e-government

answer

the application of the internet and networking technologies to digitally enable government and public sector agencies' relationships with citizens, business, and other arms of government

question

collaboration

answer

working with others to achieve shared and explicit goals

question

teams

answer

have a specific mission that someone in the business assigned to them

question

social business

answer

the use of social networking platforms (facebook, twitter, and internal coporate social tools) to engage employees, customers, and suppliers

question

telepresence

answer

an integrated audio and visual environment that allows a person to give the appearance of being present at a location other than his or her true physical location

question

cyberlocker

answer

online file-sharing services that allow users to upload files to secure online storage up to 16 terabytes

question

information systems department

answer

maintains the hardware, software, data storage, and networks that comprise the firm's IT infrastructure

question

programmers

answer

highly trained technical specialists who write the software instructions for computers

question

systems analysts

answer

constitute the principle liasons between the information systems groups and the rest of the organization

question

information systems managers

answer

leaders of teams of programmers and analysts, project managers, physical facility managers, telecommunications managers, or database specialists

question

chief information officer (CIO)

answer

a senior manager who oversees the use of information technology in the firm

question

chief security officer (CSO)

answer

in charge of the informations systems security for the firm and is responsible for enforcing the firm's information security policy

question

chief privacy officer (CPO)

answer

responsible for the firm's knowledge management program

question

end users

answer

representatives of departments outside of the information systems group for whom applications are developed

STUDY

Charts And Graphs Decision Support Systems Inventory Control System Long Range Planning Supply Chain Management Systems Analysis Transaction Processing System Transaction Processing Systems

Exam 1: Chapter 2 – Flashcards 65 terms

Matthew Carle

65 terms

Preview

Exam 1: Chapter 2 – Flashcards

question

All of the following statements regarding IBM notes are true except which one?

answer

it began as an email and messaging client

question

Supply chain management systems are more externally oriented than enterprise systems

answer

True

question

_____ is a collaboration tool that supports remote, synchronous collaboration

answer

video conferencing

question

DSS are used by managers to make decisions about problems that are unusual and not specified in advance

answer

True

question

Global firms can collaborate from different locations at the same time using synchronous collaboration tools

answer

True

question

To monitor the status of internal operations and the firms relations with external environment, managers, need____systems.

answer

transaction processing

question

Which of the following is not one of the four main classifications for collaboration tools identifies by space/matrix?

answer

remote/colocated

question

You would use an MIS to help determine if your business should introduce a new product line

answer

False

question

Operational managers use ESS primary to solve specific problems

answer

False

question

An organization's MIS and DSS supple an ESS with summarized information

answer

True

question

Which of the following decisions requires knowledge based on collaboration and interaction?

answer

Should we work with outside vendors on new products and services

question

A business process in the_______function is producing bills of material

answer

manufacturing and production

question

To consolidate the relevant knowledge and experience in the firm and make it available to improve business processes and management decision making, you could use a

answer

KMS

question

For non routine decision making, senior managers rely on management information systems

answer

False

question

______allows you to communicate with avatars using text messaging

answer

A virtual world

question

All of the following are reasons for the increased business focus on collaboration and teamwork, except for

answer

the need for more efficient work hierachies

question

In______, digital technology and the internet are used to execute th major business processes in the enterprise

answer

e-business

question

Most TPS's use sophisticated mathematical models are statistical techniques

answer

False

question

A TPS is an information system that keeps track of all the daily routine transaction of a business

answer

True

question

An information systems manager

answer

manages data entry staff

question

An inventory control system is an example of an MIS

answer

False

question

Which type of system would use to forecast the return on investment if you used new suppliers with better delivery track records

answer

DSS

question

Cross-functional systems are being phased out in favor of systems that support business processes within a single functional group, such as human resources

answer

False

question

You would use a _______in order to determine which of your suppliers has the best and worst records for keeping to your production schedule?

answer

MIS

question

To manage relationships with your customers, you would use a________system

answer

CRM

question

Production tasks are coordinated through the use of social networks in social business

answer

False

question

Which of the following systems is designed to support organization-wide process coordination and integration?

answer

enterprise applications

question

Which of the following is the greatest obstacle in enabling collaboration between employees at different, distant corporate locations?

answer

time zones

question

What is the most important function of an enterprise application?

answer

enabling business functions and departments to share information

question

Production tasks are coordinated through the use of social networks in social business

answer

False

question

Which type of system integrates supplier, manufacturer, distributor, and customer logistics processes?

answer

Supply-chain management system

question

A key word in social business is "conversations"

answer

True

question

The function_________is responsible for identifying customers

answer

Sales and marketing

question

What system will help you set up in inexpensive system that allows customers to see real-time statistics such as views and clicks through about their current banner ads

answer

Extranet

question

Decision-support systems are most commonly used by operations management level of an organization

answer

False

question

DSS use internal information as well as information from external sources

answer

True

question

To forecast trends in your suppliers industry that could affect your firm over the next five years, you would use a

answer

ESS

question

To monitor the status of internal operations and the firms relations with the external environment, managers need_____systems

answer

Transaction processing

question

______systems are known as enterprise systems

answer

enterprise resource planning

question

An example of a cross functional business process is

answer

creating a new product

question

A____system collects data from various key business processes and stores the data in a single comprehensive data repository, usable by other parts of the business

answer

enterprise

question

A______is typically a major source of data for other systems

answer

transaction processing systems

question

Which of the following tools would you use to evaluate and choose a collaboration tool for your organization?

answer

the time/space collaboration and social tool matrix

question

A_____social networking tool creates business value by connecting the members of an organization through profiles, updates, and notifications that are tailored to internal corporate uses

answer

enterprise

question

Global firms can collaborate from different locations at the same time using synchronous collaboration

answer

True

question

The principal liaison between the information systems groups and the rest of the organizations is a

answer

system analyst

question

Executive support systems are information systems that support the

answer

long-range planning activities of senior managment

question

Non-typical business problems with causes and effects that are rapidly changing are typically handled by which type of information system?

answer

DSS

question

Which of the following decisions requires knowledge based on collaboration and interaction?

answer

Should we work with outside vendors on new products and services?

question

Which of the following systems would you expect to deliver integrated, personalized business content through a web portal interface?

answer

executive support systems

question

Which type of systems integrates supplier, manufacturer, distributor, and customer logistics processes.

answer

supply chain management system

question

The_____function is responsible for identifying customers

answer

sales and marketing

question

An example of a cross functional business process is

answer

decision support

question

A TPS is an information system that keeps track of all the daily routine transactions of a business

answer

True

question

To manage relationships with your customers, you would use an_____system

answer

CRM

question

______allows you to communicate with avatars using text messaging

answer

a virtual world

question

A relocation control system that reports summaries on total moving, house hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions would fall into the category of

answer

management information systems

question

Which level of the organization are ESS specifically designed to serve?

answer

senior management

question

Which of the following is a firm's CPO responsible for?

answer

ensuring that company complies with existing data privacy laws

question

Which of the following is a firm's CPO responsible for?

answer

TPS with MIS capabilities

question

DSS use internal information as well as information from external sources

answer

True

question

The____helps design programs and systems to find new sources of knowledge or to make better us of existing knowledge in organizational and management processes

answer

CKO

question

If your main supplier was late delivering goods, which type of system would you use to update your production schedule?

answer

TPS

question

Using the internet to buy or sell goods is called

answer

e-commerce

question

____is a collaboration tool that supports remote, synchronous collaboration

answer

video conferencing

STUDY

Computer Based System Credit Card Companies Decision Support Systems Key Performance Indicators Planning And Decision Making Systems Analysis

IS Chapter 12 MC – Flashcards 40 terms

Pat Coker

40 terms

Preview

IS Chapter 12 MC – Flashcards

question

_____ is the process by which organizational goals are achieved through the use of organizational resources.

answer

Management

question

Which of the following is not a basic role of managers?

answer

entrepreneurial

question

Being a figurehead and leader is part of the _____ managerial role.

answer

interpersonal

question

Being an entrepreneur, disturbance handler, and negotiator is part of the _____ managerial role.

answer

decisional

question

In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers examine a situation and identify and define the problem.

answer

intelligence

question

In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers construct a model that simplifies the problem.

answer

design

question

Success in the _____ phase of the decision-making process results in resolving the original problem, and failure leads to a return to previous phases.

answer

implementation

question

In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers test potential solutions "on paper."

answer

choice

question

Which of the following is not a reason why managers need IT support?

answer

The number of alternatives is decreasing.

question

Decisions today are becoming _____ complex, due to _____ uncertainty in the decision environment.

answer

neither more nor less, decreased

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a structured decision?

answer

The first three phases of the decision-making process need not occur in any particular sequence

question

The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ______ decision.

answer

structured

question

________ decisions are more common at lower organizational levels.

answer

Structured

question

Rank-and-file employees tend to make more _________ decisions.

answer

Structured

question

Calculating gross pay for hourly workers is an example of ________ decision making.

answer

Structured

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of unstructured decisions?

answer

Standard solutions exist.

question

When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, the decision is said to be:

answer

unstructured

question

A large foreign automobile manufacturer is considering where to build a new manufacturing plant in the United States. They are making which type of decision?

answer

unstructured

question

Which type of decision requires a combination of standard solution procedures and individual judgment?

answer

semistructured

question

A company's annual employee evaluation best fits which type of decision?

answer

semistructured

question

_____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.

answer

Operational control

question

_____ is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational goals.

answer

Management control

question

Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

answer

structured and operational control

question

Computer support is least for which of the following problems?

answer

unstructured and strategic planning

question

Searching for valuable business information in a database, data warehouse, or data mart is referred to as _____.

answer

data mining

question

_____ provides users with a view of what is happening, whereas _____ addresses why it is happening.

answer

Multidimensional data analysis, data mining

question

Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?

answer

Data mining

question

A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use:

answer

data mining

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of DSSs?

answer

They support only lower- and middle-level managers.

question

At the end of a semester, a student knows that she must achieve a grade of 81 or higher on her final exam to get an A in the course. She has just performed what kind of analysis?

answer

Goal-seeking

question

_____ attempts to find the value of the inputs necessary to achieve a desired level of output.

answer

Goal-seeking analysis

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational decision support systems?

answer

They are standalone systems.

question

A(n) _____ provides rapid access to timely information and direct access to management reports.

answer

digital dashboard

question

Which capability of digital dashboards enables users to obtain the latest data available on key performance indicators or some other metric, ideally in real time?

answer

Status access

question

Which of the following information systems are very user friendly, supported by graphics, and provide exception reporting and drill down?

answer

digital dashboards

question

Digital dashboards provide all of the following capabilities except:

answer

transaction processing

question

The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?

answer

digital dashboards

question

The primary distinguishing characteristic of geographical information systems is:

answer

every record or digital object has an identified geographical location

question

Geocoding involves:

answer

integrating maps with spatially oriented databases and other databases

question

Today, geographical information systems are being combined with _____ to form geospatial technologies.

answer

global positioning systems

STUDY

Clinical Decision Support System Decision Support Systems Evidence Based Medicine Health Computing Long Term Care Facilities Meet Your Needs

HIM FINAL EXAM PRACTICE – Flashcards 268 terms

Henry Lowe

268 terms

Preview

HIM FINAL EXAM PRACTICE – Flashcards

question

A radilogy information system is which of the following?

answer

Source system

question

When an EHR is integrated into the daily routine of clinicians it is said to be in what stage of existence?

answer

Adoption

question

Which of the following is a fundamental change in how medicine is practiced using health IT?

answer

Clinical transformation

question

Which of the following is a program that assures there is documented approval for altering an application?

answer

Change control

question

What health information exchange is a sophisticated structure that enables both receipt of data and the ability to query an exchange for data?

answer

CONNECT

question

What is interoperability?

answer

The ability to share health information with other health IT systems

question

Revenue cycle management is accomplished through use of which of the following systems?

answer

Form creation system

question

Structured data are which of the following?

answer

question

Infusion pumps and robotics are examples of which of the following?

answer

Smart peripherals

question

Ideally, clinical documentation in an EHR should be performed

answer

At the point of care

question

The source of drug-drug contraindication information in a computerized provider order entry system is

answer

Drug knowledge databases

question

Which of the following is an example of clinical decision support?

answer

Workgroup tool

question

A standard vocabulary is used to achieve what type of interoperability?

answer

Semantic

question

A way to send secure message over the internet is which of the following?

answer

Virtual private network (VPN)

question

Healthcare information is primarily for which of the following?

answer

Provider use in the management of care

question

To arrive at information______ are required.

answer

Data

question

______ data analytics is where health information is captured, reviewed, and used to measure the quality of care provided.

answer

Clinical

question

What is the first stage of transforming raw data into meaningful analytics?

answer

Data capture

question

Which of the following may be used to capture the data for storage in a database?

answer

Data mining

question

Which of the following data visualization tool is used when displaying trends?

answer

Graphs

question

The _____ is a management report of process measures.

answer

Dashboard

question

Which of the following is where a nurse enter data using a tablet computer when conducting a patient assessment while at the bedside?

answer

Human-computer charting

question

_____ is key to the knowledge discovery process.

answer

Data mining

question

The clinical data_____ lends itself to data mining as it encompasses multiple source of data.

answer

Warehouse

question

Which decision support systems could deliver a reminder to a physician that it is time for the patients flu shot?

answer

Clinical

question

The _____ would be used to help find actionable insights to drive enterprise performances.

answer

Executive information system

question

A _____ generated scorecard could be used by manager to monitor readmission rates in order to track trends and identify opportunities for improvement

answer

Decision support system

question

The exchange of email communication between the patient and physician on a question regarding medication is an example of _____ health informatics.

answer

Consumer

question

True or False. In all cases, a covered entity may deny an individual's request to restrict the use or disclosure of his or her PHI

answer

False

question

Which of the following is a covered entity under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

answer

Pharmacy

question

Which types of health records are subject to the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

answer

Health records in any format

question

What does the acronym PHI stand for?

answer

Protected Health Information

question

Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity ____.

answer

Can deny access to psychotherapy notes

question

In which of the following situations must a covered entity provide an appeal process for denials to requests from individuals to see their own health information.

answer

When a licensed healthcare professional has determined that access to PHI would likely endanger the life or safety of the individual.

question

Which of the following statements is true in responding to request from individuals who wish to access their PHI?

answer

A cost based fee may be charged for making copy of the PHI

question

How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to PHI under HIPAA rules?

answer

30 days

question

How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to his or her PHI?

answer

60 days

question

Which of the following provide a complete description to patients about how PHI is used in a healthcare facility?

answer

Authorization

question

Which of the following statements is true of the notice of privacy practices?

answer

It must be provided to every individual at the first time of contact or service with the covered entity.

question

Which of the following is unsecured PHI?

answer

PHI that is present on a stolen device such as a laptop or cellphone.

question

The primary reason that healthcare organizations develop business continuity plan is to minimize the effects of which of the following?

answer

Computer downtime

question

Critique this statement: HIPAA represents an attempt to establish best practices and standards for health information security.

answer

This is a true statement

question

A risk analysis is useful to _____

answer

Identify security threats

question

Which of the following is a technique that can be used to determine what information access privileges an employee should have?

answer

Context-based

question

The HIPAA data integrity standard requires that organization do which of the following?

answer

Keep documented logs of system access and access attempts

question

Which of the following is required by HIPAA standards?

answer

A written contingency plan

question

Which of the following is true regarding HIPAA security provisions?

answer

Covered entities must conduct employees security training sessions every six months for all employees.

question

The Hospital standardization movement was inaugurated by the

answer

American College of Surgeons

question

HIM has been recognized as a profession since

answer

1928

question

The HIM profession is changing due to

answer

Changes in technology

question

The new model of HIM practice is

answer

Information focused

question

The traditional model of HIM practice was

answer

Department based

question

The organization that accredits HIM education program is

answer

CAHIM

question

Our college has applied to become accredited by CAHIM. Which of the following is the name of the interim stage of accreditation?

answer

Candidacy

question

Which of the following is the virtual network used by AHIMA members?

answer

Engage

question

Which of the following functions governs the HIM profession?

answer

House of Delegates

question

The primary focus of AHIMA is to

answer

Foster professional development of its members

question

Which of the following certifications is administering by CCHIM?

answer

Registered Health information Technician

question

The acronym IDS refers to

answer

Integrated delivery systems

question

Which healthcare professional assists physicians in clinical assessments and patient education?

answer

Physician Assistant

question

Which of the following medical practitioner is not considered a generalist?

answer

Cardiology

question

Which healthcare provider utilizes ultrasound, computed tomography, or MRIs?

answer

Radiologic technologist

question

Which of the following is a surgical specialty?

answer

Orthopedics

question

Which of the following statements is true about registered nurses (RNs)?

answer

RNs are required to have a license in the state in which they practice

question

Which of the following perform a wide array of tests on body fluids, tissues, and cells to assist in the detection, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases and illnesses?

answer

Clinical laboratory scientists

question

Respiratory therapists treat patients with limited mobility

answer

False

question

Audiologists provide comprehensive diagnostic and treatment /rehabilitative services for authority, vestibular, and related impairments.

answer

True

question

Physical therapy assistants carry out the treatment plans created by the physical therapists.

answer

True

question

Which of the following laws created the HITECH Act?

answer

American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

question

Until the World War II, where was. Pat healthcare provided?

answer

Home

question

An HIM student has asked you why Medicare reimburses healthcare providers through prospective payment systems. Which of the following pieces of legislation would you use as your explanation?

answer

Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982

question

Which of the following legislation authorized the creation of the Office of National Coordinator for Health information Technology?

answer

ARRA

question

Which of the following best describes Medicaid?

answer

Federally mandated healthcare program for low income people

question

Required the gradual implementation of a prospective payment system (PPS) for Medicare reimbursement.

answer

Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982

question

Gave the states funds on a matching basis for maternal and infant care, rehabilitation of crippled children general public health work, and aid for dependent children under age 16

answer

Social Security Act of 1935

question

Required concurrent review of Medicare and Medicaid patients

answer

Public law 92-603 of 1972

question

Patient protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010

answer

Provided an individual mandate to have minimum acceptable coverage or pay a tax penalty.

question

Utilization Review Act of 1977

answer

Required that hospitals conduct continued stay reviews for Medicare and Medicaid patients

question

Which of the following is NOT an example of an administration support services?

answer

HIM

question

Who has the primary responsibility to guide the direction of the hospital?

answer

Chief Executive Officer

question

Which of the following is an example of a federally run hospital?

answer

question

Which service diagnosed and treats patients who have acute and/or chronic sling disorders?

answer

Respiratory Therapy

question

Dr. Smith has. Even granted permission by Community hospital to perform cardiac Catheterizations. This permission is called

answer

Clinical privileges

question

Acute care hospitals provide a short term care to diagnose or treat an illness

answer

True

question

A registered nurse performs patient assessments, creates care plans, and evaluates the appropriateness of treatment and effectiveness of care

answer

True

question

Pharmaceutical services are considered part of the clinical support services

answer

True

question

The average length of stay for an acute care hospitals is 21 days or less

answer

False

question

Physical therapies are only one member of the rehabilitation service team.

answer

True

question

Which of the following statements is true about behavioral health?

answer

Insurance coverage generally places restrictions on the psychiatric care such as a limit on the number of outpatient visits.

question

My daughter fell and cut herself tonight. Though it is not an emergency, I believe she needs stitches and she should see someone tonight for treatment. What type of setting would I most likely access?

answer

Freestanding ambulatory care center

question

Most patients in long term care facilities require impatient nursing and related services for more than how many consecutive days?

answer

question

What type of facility offer palliative care for end of life care so that the patient may live life as fully and as comfortable as possible?

answer

Hospice

question

Which of the following settings provides ambulatory care to low income patients and receives funding from many sources?

answer

Voluntary agency

question

Manages cost, quality, and access to services

answer

Managed care

question

A 13 yr long international effort with three principal goals (1) to determine the sequence of the three billion DNA subunits (2) to identify all human genes, and (3) to enable genes to be used in further biological study

answer

Human Genome Project

question

Provided emergency services and urgent care for walk in patients

answer

Freestanding ambulatory care centers

question

Care that offers patients access to constant nursing care while recovering at home

answer

Subacute Care

question

Care provided by different caregivers at several different levels of the healthcare systems

answer

Continuum of care

question

The publication To Error is Human stated that as many as how many patients die each year from preventable medical mistakes?

answer

98,000

question

To "create social and physical environments that promote good health for all" is a goal of which of the following organizations?

answer

Healthy people 2020

question

Which of the following is a nonprofit, no governmental organized?

answer

National Academy of Medicine

question

Which federal agency monitors healthy precautions for international travelers?

answer

CDC

question

Which of the following documents from the National Academy of Medicine addresses the duplication and contrasting approaches to performance measures by the six major governmental healthcare programs that serve nearly 100 millions Americans?

answer

Leadership by example

question

There are six federal agencies that provide healthcare to over 100 million people

answer

True

question

Healthcare policy is only formulated at the federal level

answer

False

question

The delivery of healthcare in the United States is based on a well researched master lab designed to contain costs, increases patients access to providers, and ensure excellent quality of care

answer

False

question

Healthy people 2020 is the third iteration of this document.

answer

True

question

Comparative effectiveness research is a major focus of the patient centered outcomes research institute

answer

True

question

Which of the following is an example of a primary purpose of the health record?

answer

Patient Care

question

I work for an organization that utilizes health record data to prove or disprove the efficacy of a health care treatment. What type of organization do I work for?

answer

Research

question

Which of the following is an example of an institutional user of the health record?

answer

Third party payer

question

Which of the following is an example of an individual user?

answer

Patient

question

Health departments use the health record to monitor outbreaks of diseases. Which type of use is this?

answer

Public health and research

question

What microfilm format is inefficient when patients have multiple admissions on microfilm?

answer

Roll

question

What type of paper based storage system conserves floor space by eliminating all but one or two aisle?

answer

Mobile filing units

question

What feature of the filing folder helps locate misfiled within the paper based filing system?

answer

Color coding

question

Who'd of the following is a tool used to track paper based health records?

answer

Outguide

question

What should be done when the HIM department error or accuracy rate is too high based on policy?

answer

Corrective action should be taken.

question

The forms design committee

answer

Provides oversight for the development, review, and control of forms and computer screens.

question

In a paper based system, individual health records are organized in a standardized order in which of the following processes?

answer

Assembly

question

Reviewing a health record for missing signatures and missing medical reports is called

answer

Analysis

question

Two patient's records were filed together by mistake. This is an example of

answer

Overlay

question

Which of the following describes incomplete records that are not completed by the physician within the time frame specified in the healthcare facility's policies?

answer

Delinquent records

question

One of the advantages of a DMS is that it can

answer

Control workflow

question

How are amendments handled in the EHR?

answer

The amendment must have a separate signature, date, and time.

question

Version control of documents in the EHR requires?

answer

Policies and procedures to control which versions is displayed

question

Which of the following is a risk of copying and pasting?

answer

Copying the note in the wrong patient's record

question

When I key in 10101063, the computer displays it as 10/10/1963. What enables this?

answer

Input mask

question

Which of the following is controlled by patients?

answer

Personal health record

question

Where will you find clinical decision support?

answer

Electronic health record

question

Which of the following systems is used to track whether or not a request for information has been processed?

answer

Release of information

question

With which department does the HIM department interact to perform audits and monitor outcomes?

answer

Quality improvement

question

What type of speech recognition is used when the physician edits the document?

answer

Front end

question

The overall goal of documentation standards is

answer

To ensure what is documented in the health record is complete and accurately reflects the treatment provided to the patient.

question

A hospital that participates in the Medicare and Medicaid programs must follow

answer

The Conditions of Participation

question

When defining its legal health record, a healthcare provider organization must do which if the following?

answer

Assess the legal environment

question

Which of the following is the health record component that addresses the patient's current complaints and symptoms and lists the patient's past medical, personal, and family history??

answer

Medical history

question

General documentation guidelines apply to

answer

All categories of healthcare records

question

Health record entries should be documented at the time the services they describe are rendered

answer

True

question

Only individuals authorized by the organization's policies should be allowed to enter documentation in the health record

answer

True

question

When an error is made, the erroneous information can be obliterated

answer

False

question

Auto authentication is the preferred method of authentication.

answer

False

question

A patient's gender, phone number, address, next of kin, and insurance policy holder information would be considered what kind of data?

answer

Administrative data

question

Patient history questionnaires, problem lists, diagnostic tests results, and immunization records are commonly found in which type of record?

answer

Ambulatory record

question

What type of health records may contain family and caregiver input?

answer

Behavioral Health Records

question

The ambulatory surgery record contains information most similar to which of the following?

answer

Hospital operative records

question

Which group focuses solely on accreditation of rehabilitation programs and services?

answer

CARF

question

Which types of health record contains information about the means by which the patient arrived at the healthcare setting and documentation of care provided to stabilize the patient?

answer

Emergency care

question

A patient's registration forms, property list, RAI, care plan, and discharge or transfer for documentation would be found most frequently in which type of health record?

answer

Long term care

question

Which of the following would not be found in a physical exam?

answer

General condition

question

An attending physician requests the advice of a second physician who then reviews the health record and examines the patient. The second physician records his or her evaluation in what type of report?

answer

Consultation

question

Written or spoken permission to proceed with care is classified as

answer

Expressed consent

question

What specialized type of progress note provides healthcare professionals impressions of patient problems with detailed treatment action steps?

answer

Care plan

question

Which of the following reports provides information on tissue removed during a procedure?

answer

Pathology report

question

A growth and development record may be found in what type of record?

answer

Pediatric

question

Many services such as surgery, infusions, and other diagnostics procedures that once required an over night hospital stay for the patient, no longer requires that level of care.

answer

True

question

CMS requires that healthcare providers inform their patients about general patient rights afforded to them.

answer

True

question

Healthcare provider organizations normally have patients sign an acknowledgment acknowledging that the healthcare provider organization is kit responsible for the loss of or damage to the patient's valuables.

answer

True

question

The subjective, objective, assessment, plan (SOAP) method came from the

answer

Problem oriented health record

question

Which of the following electronic record technological capabilities would allow paper based health records to be incorporated into a patient's EHR?

answer

Documentation imaging technology

question

The problem list is part of which of the following?

answer

Problem oriented health record

question

The paper health record has been scanned and is now available digitally. What is this known as?

answer

It is known as imaging

question

Nursing documentation within the health record will be

answer

Both subjective and objective

question

payers and the government are not concerned with how a physician documents in a health record.

answer

False

question

Only physicians document in the health record

answer

False

question

HIM professionals document in the health record

answer

False

question

Management of health record information is a fundamental component of information governance

answer

True

question

If data granularity is the goal of collecting the data, clinical terminologies is the best choice

answer

False

question

The SNOMED CT preferred term includes the semantic tag

answer

True

question

The three main core components of SNOMED CT are the SNOMED CT identifier, concepts, and descriptions.

answer

False

question

Category I CPT includes E/M, Anesthesia, surgery, radiology, pathology, and laboratory band medicine.

answer

True

question

Nursing terminologies are used for reimbursement of nursing care for Medicare patients.

answer

False

question

Mental disorders

answer

DSM-5

question

Diseases of Oncology

answer

ICD-O-3

question

Inpatient procedures

answer

ICD-10-PCS

question

States of functioning

answer

ICF

question

Diseases for morbidity

answer

ICD-10-CM

question

Which of the following is standard for drugs under the meaningful use program?

answer

RxNorm

question

Which of the following is standard for supplies under HIPAA?

answer

HCPCS

question

Which of the following is standard for clinical lab test results?

answer

LOINC

question

Which type of HCPCS level II code is not published by CMS?

answer

Dental procedures

question

RxNorm names for clinical drugs contain information on which of the following?

answer

Ingredients

question

The core clinical data set definitions are incorporated into the inpatient prospective payment.

answer

False

question

Data elements specified in OASIS-C1 are collected on long term care patients.

answer

False

question

HEDIS collects standardized data from health records in clinics and hospitals.

answer

True

question

The UMLS includes terminologies but excludes classifications.

answer

False

question

The common clinical data set is used in home healthcare settings.

answer

False

question

A data element is a single or individual fact that represents the smallest unique subset of larger data.

answer

True

question

A data set is which of the following ?

answer

A recommended list of data elements that support a specific healthcare industry.

question

Which of the following is a purpose of the creation of data dictionary?

answer

Create support for structured data collections.

question

Which of the following are the two most common types of database found in healthcare?

answer

Relational and object oriented data bases?

question

An index creates a definition for terms that are within a database.

answer

False

question

There is usually only one source of data within a healthcare organization.

answer

False

question

Refers to the creation of business owners over a specific areas of the data. Based on the business need, the business owners are responsible to create business rules and definitions when collecting specific data to support patient care and their business operations.

answer

Data ownership

question

Data quality focuses on entering data into the system that is true, accurate, and relevant to patient care needs and business operations needs.

answer

Data quality

question

Data stewardship is the evaluation of the data collection based on business need and strategy to ensure the data meets the requirements of patient care and organizational needs. Data stewardship and data ownership are closely connected.

answer

Data stewardship

question

Refers to the creation of documentation to justify business decisions made based on the different data collection and storage systems that are used within an organization.

answer

Data modeling

question

This concept focuses on how the data is being entered into the system, where the data is going within the system, where the same data might exist in multiple areas, and how it is being integrated into other applications.

answer

Data standardization and integration

question

Correct The first professional association for health information managers was established in what year?

answer

question

The first professional association for health information managers was established in what year?

answer

1928

question

The hospital standardization program was started by _______

answer

American College of Surgeons

question

The formal approval process for academic programs in health information management is called which of the followin

answer

Accreditation

question

Which of the following is the formal process for conferring a health information management credential?

answer

Certification

question

Which of the following is a traditional HIM role?

answer

Tracking record completion

question

Which of the following functions governs the HIM profession?

answer

AHIMA house of Delegates

question

Which of the following make up a virtual network of AHIMA members?

answer

AHIMA Engaged

question

Which of the following is an arm of AHIMA that promotes research in health information management?

answer

AHIMA Foundation

question

Which of the following best describes the mission of AHIMA?

answer

Community of professionals providing support to members and strengthening the industry and professoin

question

Which professional organization sponsors the CTR certification?

answer

NCRA

question

Which of the following places an emphasis on treating individual patients at the level of care required by their course of treatment and extends from their primary care providers to specialists and ancillary providers?

answer

Continuum of care

question

Someone who wishes to sit for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) certification should contact which organization?

answer

AAPC

question

In order to qualify for an AHIMA fellowship, what minimal educational level is needed?

answer

Associates Degree

question

Which of the following qualify for CEUs?

answer

College course

question

.as of 2014, what percent of the U.S. Economy was represented by healthcare spending?

answer

17.5

question

What is the ideal ratio of medical generalist to specialist?

answer

40:60

question

Which of the following is considered an Allied Health professional?

answer

Licensed Practical Nurses

question

Which of the following laws created Medicare and Medicaid?

answer

Public law 89-97 of 1965

question

What is the name of the process to determine whether medical care provided to a specific patient is necessary according to pre-established objective screening criteria at time frames specified

answer

Utilization review

question

HITECH was a portion of which bill?

answer

American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009

question

Critique this statement: Once someone has earned the registered health information technician (RHIT) credential, it is a lifetime certification.

answer

This is incorrect as RHITs have to become recertified.

question

What is the name of the type of beds in a hospital that are defined by those authorized by the state?

answer

Licensed

question

The "C" in CIO stands for:

answer

Chief

question

Health information management department are considered which of the following

answer

Ancillary Support Service

question

Which of the following is the fastest growing sector to offer services for Medicare recipients?

answer

Home Health

question

Which of the following is the health profession that focuses on the eyes and related structures?

answer

Optometry

question

Public law 89-97 of the 1965 created a number of amendments to which Act?

answer

Social Security Act

question

The Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology was created as part of which Act?

answer

American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

question

Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record?

answer

Educate Medical Students

question

Which of the following is an institutional user of the health record?

answer

Third party payers

question

How do patient care managers and support staff use the data documented in the health record?

answer

Evaluate the performance of employees

question

An HIM student asked an HIM director why the hybrid record is so challenging. What is the HIM directors response?

answer

It is because we have to Manage both the electronic and paper media.

question

What is the process of ensuring that a record is available for every patient seen at the healthcare facility?

answer

Reconciliation

question

Dr. Smith dictated his report and then immediately edited it. What type of speech recognition is being used?

answer

Front end

question

Critique this statement: Data and information mean the same thing.

answer

This is a false statement because data is raw facts and figures and information is data converted into a meaningful format.

question

The use of the health record by a clinician to facilitate quality patient care is considered ______ .

answer

A primary purpose of the health record

question

How do accreditation organizations use the health record?

answer

To determine whether standards are being met

question

How long should the MPI be retained?

answer

Permanently

question

Deficiencies in a health record include which of the following ?

answer

Missing document

question

Which of the following is true about document imaging?

answer

Documents can be indexed

question

Which of the following is part of qualitative analysis review?

answer

Checking that only approved abbreviations are used

question

Which of the following is the most efficient filing system?

answer

Unit numbering filing system

question

Which of the following creates a chronological report of the patient's condition and response treatment during a hospital stay.

answer

Progress notes

question

Which the health format is the most commonly used by healthcare settings as they transition to electronic records?

answer

Hybrid records

question

What is the end result of a review process that shows voluntary compliance with guidelines of an external, non profit organization?

answer

Accreditation

question

Which part of the medical history documents the nature and duration of the symptoms that caused a patient to seek medical attention as stated in the patient's own words?

answer

Chief complaint

question

Which of the following is an example of administration information?

answer

Patient's address

question

Which of the following statements is true of the process that should be followed in making corrections in paper based health record entires?

answer

The reason for the change should be noted

question

Which of the following types of facilities is generally governed by long term care documentation standards?

answer

Subacute care

question

Which of the following includes names of the surgeon and assistants, date, duration, and description of the procedure and any specimen ms removed?

answer

Operative report

question

A patient's registration forms, personal property list, RAI/MDS and care lab and discharge or transfer documentation would be found most frequently in which type of health record?

answer

Long term care

question

Exhibit group focuses on accreditation of rehabilitation programs and services?

answer

CARF

question

A healthcare organization, when defining its legal health record must:

answer

Assess the legal environment, system limitations, and HIE agreements

question

Written or spoken permission to proceed with care is classified as _____.

answer

Express consent.

question

The subjective, objective, Assessment plan (SOAP) came from the:

answer

Problem oriented health record

question

The management of health information is a fundamental component of which of the following ?

answer

The overall information governance model

question

Who responsible for communicating information relevant to national issues and keeping members informed of regional affairs that affect HIM?

answer

AHIMA component Associations

question

Which group brings together stakeholders to address issues related to the future of the HIM profession and education?

answer

Council for excellence in education

question

Whack of the following is the accreditation organization for HIM. Programs?

answer

CCAHIM

question

Which of the following is true about AHIMA certification program?

answer

Candidates must pass an examination before obtaining any of the credentials

question

Which of the following classes of AHIMA membership requires that individuals have interest in HIM and will abide by the AHIMA code of ethics?

answer

Active membership

question

Which of the following. Entities are at head of the AHIMA volunteer structure and hold responsibility for managing the property, affairs, and operations of AHIMA?

answer

Board of the Directors

question

The accreditation program of AHIMA is concerned with which if the following ?

answer

Establishing standards for the content of college programs in health information management

question

Which organization should be contacted regarding the Certified healthcare documentation specialist exam?

answer

Association for healthcare documentation integrity

question

Which of he following make up virtual network of AHIMA members who communicate via web based program managed by AHIMA?

answer

Engage

question

Which of the following. Is a surgical specialty?

answer

Anesthesiology

question

Which of he following carries out the operational tasks necessary to support the organization mission and goals?

answer

Staff

question

Two types of practitioners can hold the degree of Doctor of Medicine. They are:

answer

Physician and surgeon

question

Patients in hospice care are expected to live a maximum of ____ days.

answer

180

STUDY

Brick And Mortar Decision Support Systems Electronic Data Interchange Enterprise Information System Enterprise Information Systems Enterprise Resource Planning Project Team Members Systems Analysis

CH. 2 Systems Integration – Flashcards 50 terms

Jill Lopez

50 terms

Preview

CH. 2 Systems Integration – Flashcards

question

Systems integration means

answer

that you allow a heterogeneous (hodgepodge) IS to communicate or integrate and share information (or data) seamlessly with one another.

question

Systems integration is

answer

a key issue for an organization for its growth - Management needs to pay close attention to this issue.

question

Silos are

answer

basically compartmentalized operating units isolated from their environment.

question

Horizontal Silos

answer

The POSDCORB (Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting and Budgeting) a Classification of organizations into departments like Accounting and Human Resources

question

Vertical Silos

answer

Organizations also divided roles in hierarchical layers from strategic planning to management control and operation control. CEOs and Presidents plan long-term strategy, midlevel management focuses on tactical issues and on the execution of organizational policy whereas the lower-level management task is to focus on the day-to-day operations of the company.

question

The problem of functional silos gave birth to

answer

business process re-engineering (BPR).

question

The cross-functional organizational structure breaks the functional silos by

answer

opening up the informational flows from one department to another.

question

A silo information system is inefficient, inaccurate, and expensive because

answer

The system creates bottlenecks for everyone and information is not available in real-time.

question

Web-based systems today

answer

use a distributed architecture which allows the sharing of applications and data resources between the client and the server computers.

question

information systems that are used for generating reports for mid-level managers are known as:

answer

MIS

question

A(n) ________ provides a visual dashboard of strategic information to top level management in real-time

answer

ESS

question

A side benefit of integration is that the organization is forced to ________ its hardware, software, and it-policies

answer

standardize

question

Systems integration means allowing access to a shared data resource by people from different ________ areas of the organization.

answer

functional

question

At the physical level, systems integration means providing seamless connectivity between ________ systems.

answer

heterogeneous

question

One step in the systems integration process is to develop a policy on whether older, ________ systems will be supported and maintained.

answer

legacy

question

ERP systems come with built-in ________ for a variety of functions such as entering a customer order.

answer

processes

question

staff support (knowledge workers professionals)

answer

Decision support systems (DSS)

question

operational support (line managers and operators)

answer

Transaction support systems (TSS)

question

communications and collaborations support (clerical staff)

answer

Office automation system (OAS)

question

Infrastructure support (IT staff)

answer

Operating and database system (ODBS)

question

Logical system integration

answer

Develop information systems that allow organizations to share data with all of its stakeholders based on need and authorization.

question

Physical system integration

answer

Provide seamless connectivity between heterogeneous systems.

question

Business process reengineering involves

answer

changing the mindset of the employees in the organization, encouraging and enabling them to do their tasks in a new way.

question

Drivers for system integration strategy

answer

keeping up with technology exploiting new sales opportunity improving internet efficiency competitive pressures collaborative working exploiting new purchasing opportunities

question

Steps in Integrating Systems

answer

1. Resource categorization 2.Compliance and standards 3.Legacy systems support 4. Middleware tools 5.Authentication and authorization policies 6.Centralized IT services and support 7.Back-up, recovery, and security 8.Hardware and software standardization

question

1.Resource categorization

answer

Instituting IT support for an integrated systems environment is necessary to avoid support and maintenance problems with the integrated system.

question

2.Compliance and standards

answer

Develop a single sign-on policy because all employees and external partners will need access to an integrated system from anywhere, anytime.

question

3.Legacy systems support

answer

Develop a policy in support of older legacy applications.

question

4. Middleware tools

answer

Middleware tools are essential for integration in the short term if existing applications must be used by the organization.

question

5.Authentication and authorization policies

answer

Single sign-on policy for application and data access because all employees and external partners will need access to an integrated system from anywhere, anytime.

question

6.Centralized IT services and support

answer

The IT staff needs to be able to support all applications and platforms with a centralized IT help desk support.

question

7.Back-up, recovery, and security

answer

A good back-up and recovery system is essential if there is a system failure or a major disaster.

question

8.Hardware and software standardization

answer

Develop organization standards and policy on acquisition of new hardware and software which is aligned with organization IT strategy.

question

Benefits of Systems Integration

answer

Increased Revenue and Growth Leveling the Competitive Environment Enhanced Information Visibility Increased Standardization

question

Limitations of Systems Integration

answer

High Initial Set-up Costs Power and Interdepartmental Conflicts (due to the sharing of information) Long-term and Intangible ROI (Usually several years) Creativity Limitations (Restricts Creativity and Independence)

question

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems are

answer

integrated, multi-module application software packages designed to serve and support several business functions across an organization.

question

ERP systems are

answer

typically commercial software packages that facilitate collection and integration of information related to various areas of an organization.

question

ERP systems enable

answer

the organization to standardize and improve its business processes to implement best practices for its industry.

question

ERP's Role in Logical Integration

answer

ERP systems require organizations to focus on business process rather than on functions. ERP systems come with built-in processes for a wide variety of common business functions. An ERP system implements best practices via specific built-in steps for processing a customer order in terms of: order entry. routing through departments. communication of output to various parties.

question

ERP's Role in Physical Integration

answer

Before installing the ERP system, an organization may have to upgrade or install middleware or get rid of their legacy system's hardware and software. Integration is also required at the Data level, Client level, and at the Application level. A good ERP implementation improves operational efficiency with better business processes that focuses on organizational goals rather than on individual departmental goals. Improved efficiency with a paperless flow and electronic data interchange (EDI) or business-to-business (B2B) commerce environment with partners.

question

Implications for Management

answer

Silos do not work. Most organizations lose out in the long-term when information is not shared in real time across the functional boundaries within the company. System integration has many hidden benefits. Allows decision making to be cascaded to all departments Allows employees at lower-levels to make better decisions while interacting with clients or partners. System integration has many challenges. Replacing old hardware and software Working with IT consultants Human challenges, such as impact on IT staff, department heads losing control of data, and rumors of layoffs Systems integration raises many new ethical issues. Possibility of some employees exploiting information for personal advantage and illegal access of information. Remedies can consist of: Develop policies on ethical usage of information. Install proper security software and hardware (like firewalls). Allocate resources for training and education on accessing information.

question

1. What are functional silos and how did they evolve in organizations?

answer

Functional silos evolved when organizations became larger and complex structures. This happens when companies have separations of responsibilities and duties into departments. When departments form in a company they tend to need different things, and then develop their own methods of obtaining their goals, or use methods laid out by higher-ups. Each department operates separately with little or no interaction with each other; they are autonomous and function without the rest of the company.

question

2. What is the relationship between organizational functional silos and IS functional silos?

answer

The relationship between these two types of functional silos is that they both serve the needs of a department, but this is done in two different ways. Traditional functional silos operate as independent units with their required information; changes made within these silos are not propagated to other departments. With a IS functional silo there is no online sharing of data and creates a situation where data has integrity or currency issues.

question

3. Compare and contrast centralized, decentralized, and distributed IT architectures. Which do you think is most appropriate for ERP and why?

answer

Centralized systems are usually based on servers, mainframes, and supercomputers, where all the data, software, and resources are stored on the server and are accessed via dumb terminal computers, that is nothing is really stored on the satellite computers. On other hand, decentralized is just the opposite we have multiple small computers with the information and software they need, this gives them full control over what takes place, but may lead to less real time cooperation. Finally, distributed architecture is a combination of both centralized and decentralized architectures with their own applications and tools, accessing data and resources from a shared and very centralized network location. I think the most appropriate system for ERP is the distributed architecture as it blends both centralized and decentralized, and boasts better data consistency and integrity.

question

4. List the horizontal and vertical levels of systems that exist in organizations.

answer

Vertical Levels of systems à going down Strategic Management Tactical Management Functional Operations Horizontal Levels of systems à going across Human Resources Accounting Finance Marketing Manufacturing MIS

question

5. What is logical integration and how is it different from physical integration?

answer

Logical or Human systems focus on integration of business process and people changes for successful use of system by getting people to share information across functional areas with relative ease. On the other hand, physical systems integration involves building a system architecture that supports many different applications, and get them to work together seamlessly.

question

6. Describe at least five steps involved in systems integration.

answer

Step 1 - Resource categorizing - take inventory of hardware and software and seek vendors that comply with this technology Step 2 - Compliance and standards - check to see what kinds of standards are used for database support JDBC/ODBC Step 3 - Legacy systems support - develop support for older systems Step 4 - Middleware tools - tools that are used to support legacy systems, and are a short term solution to fixing the problem Step 5 - Authentication and authorization Policies - Create standards that users can login and log off to create information protection, to hide sensitive information.

question

7. What are the key benefits and limitations of systems integration?

answer

Some of the key benefits to Systems Integration: · The increase of Revenue and Growth · Enhanced information visibility · Standardization of data · Better business practices and · Levels the competitive environment with competitors. Some of the Limitations of Systems Integration: · High initial setup costs · ROI with benefits showing up after long time · Power and Inter-departmental Conflicts.

question

8. What is the role of ERP systems in systems integration?

answer

ERP can play a crucial role in systems integration, with Logical systems integration it forces companies to focus on business processes and practices instead of focusing on function alone. Also ERPs allow for co-influence of departments which forcibly removes the Silo concepts from a business. With physical integration ERP systems force companies to focus on upgrading and removing legacy systems, and also forces companies to improve flexibility and fluidity throughout the system.

question

9. Summarize the role of management in systems integration.

answer

Management has several integration issues it has to face, first I has to accept that Silos do not work and to begin accepting an integrated information system to store and use data. They also have to understand that Systems Integration has many hidden benefits and many challenges; they will need to look to make improvements while not underestimating the challenges. Likewise they will have to overcome the challenges without missing the very possible and very intangible benefits of an Integrated System. Finally integrated systems also raise many ethical issues, with more electronic transactions taking place, customer information becomes more often a source of information, but that information is private to the customer, and could pose many problems if it were to be released to the public. Such an example would be the TJX incident.

STUDY

Business Management Decision Support Systems Human Resource Management Organizational Psychology Performance Management System

Human Resource Management Exam 3 Chap 9-12 – Flashcards 67 terms

Mary Moore

67 terms

Preview

Human Resource Management Exam 3 Chap 9-12 – Flashcards

question

High-Performance Work System

answer

The right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals.

question

brand alignment

answer

The process of ensuring that HR policies, practices, and programs support or are congruent with an organization's overall culture (or brand), products, and services.

question

HR dashboard

answer

A display of a series of HR measures, showing human resource goals and objectives and progress toward meeting them.

question

learning organization

answer

An organization that supports lifelong learning by enabling all employees to acquire and share knowledge.

question

transaction processing

answer

Computations and calculations involved in reviewing and documenting HRM decisions and practices.

question

cloud computing

answer

The practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the internet to store, manage, and process data.

question

continuous learning

answer

Each employee's and each group's ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions in a learning organization

question

decision support systems

answer

Computer software systems designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data.

question

HRM audit

answer

A formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions, based on identifying key HRM functions and measures of business performance.

question

expert systems

answer

Computer systems that support decision making by incorporating the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area.

question

HR analytics

answer

Type of assessment of HRM effectiveness that involves determining the impact of, or the financial cost and benefits of, a program or practice.

question

employee engagement

answer

The degree to which employees are fully involved in their work and the strength of their job and company commitment.

question

performance management

answer

The process through which managers ensure that employees activities and outputs contribute to the organization's goals.

question

critical-incident method

answer

Method of performance measurement based on managers' records of specific examples of the employee acting in ways that are either effective or ineffective.

question

management by objectives (MBO)

answer

A system in which people at each level of the organization set goals in a process that flows from top to bottom, so employees at all levels are contributing to the organization's overall goals; these goals become the standards for evaluating each employee's performance.

question

simple ranking

answer

Method of performance measurement that requires managers to rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer.

question

behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)

answer

Method of performance management that rates behavior in terms of a scale showing specific statements of behavior that describe different levels of performance.

question

forced-distribution method

answer

Method of performance measurement that assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories.

question

paired-comparison method

answer

Method of performance measurement that compares each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.

question

graphic rating scale

answer

Method of performance measurement that lists traits and provides a rating scale for each trait; the employer uses the scale to indicate the extent to which an employee displays each trait.

question

mixed standard scales

answer

Method of performance measurement that uses several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait.

question

behavioral observation scale (BOS)

answer

A perfomance measurement method which uses all behaviors necessary for effective performance to rate performance at a task

question

organizational behavior modification (OBM)

answer

A plan for managing the behavior of employees through a formal system of feedback and reinforcement.

question

360-degree performance appraisal

answer

Performance measurement that combines information from the employee's managers, peers, subordinates, self, and customers.

question

calibration meeting

answer

Meeting at which managers discuss employee performance ratings and provide evidence supporting their ratings with the goal of eliminating the influence of rating errors.

question

involuntary turnover

answer

Turnover initiated by an employer (often with employees who would prefer to stay.)

question

voluntary turnover

answer

Turnover initiated by employees (often when the organization would prefer to keep them.)

question

outcome fairness

answer

A judgement that the consequences given to employees are just.

question

procedural justice

answer

A judgement that fair methods were used to determine the consequences an employee receives.

question

interactional justice

answer

A judgement that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employee's feelings into account.

question

hot-stove rule

answer

Principle of discipline that says discipline should be like a _____ , giving clear warning and following up with consistent, objective, immediate consequences.

question

progressive discipline

answer

A formal discipline process in which the consequences become more serious if the employee repeats the offense.

question

alternative dispute resolution

answer

Methods of solving a problem by bringing in an impartial outsider but not using the court system.

question

open-door policy

answer

An organization's policy of making managers available to hear complaints.

question

peer review

answer

Process for resolving disputes by taking them to a panel composed of representatives from the organization at the same levels as the people in the dispute.

question

mediation

answer

Nonbinding process in which a neutral party from outside the organization hears the case and tries to help the people in conflict arrive at a settlement.

question

arbitration

answer

Binding process in which a professional arbitrator from outside the organization (usually a lawyer or judge) hears the case and resolves it by making a decision.

question

employee assistance program

answer

A referral service that employees can use to seek professional treatment for emotional problems or substance abuse.

question

outplacement counseling

answer

A service in which professionals try to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another.

question

job withdrawl

answer

A set of behaviors with which employees try to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally.

question

role

answer

A set of behaviors that people expect of a person in a particular job.

question

role ambiguity

answer

Uncertainty about what the organization expects from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.

question

role conflict

answer

An employee's recognition that demands of the job are incompatible or contradictory.

question

role overload

answer

A state in which too many expectations or demands are placed on a person.

question

job involvement

answer

The degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.

question

organizational commitment

answer

The degree to which an employee identifies with the organization and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf.

question

job satisfaction

answer

A pleasant feeling resulting from the perception that one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values.

question

role analysis technique

answer

A process of formally identifying expectations associated with a role.

question

exit interview

answer

A meeting of a departing employee with the employee's supervisor and/or a human resource specialist to discuss the employee's reasons for leaving.

question

job structure

answer

The relative pay for different jobs within the organization.

question

pay level

answer

The average amount (including wages, salaries, and bonuses) the organization pays for a particular job.

question

pay structure

answer

The pay policy resulting from job structure and pay level decisions.

question

minimum wage

answer

The lowest amount that employers may pay under federal or state law, stated as an amount of pay per hour.

question

Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)

answer

Federal law that establishes a minimum wage and requirements for overtime pay and child labor.

question

exempt employees

answer

Managers, outside sales-people, and any other employees not covered by the FLSA requirement for overtime pay.

question

nonexempt employees

answer

Employees covered by the FLSA requirements for overtime pay.

question

benchmarking

answer

A procedure in which an organization compares its own practices against those of successful competitors.

question

job evaluation

answer

An administrative procedure for measuring the relative internal worth of the organization's jobs.

question

hourly wage

answer

Rate of pay for each hour worked.

question

piecework rate

answer

Rate of pay for each unit produced.

question

salary

answer

Rate of pay for each week, month, or year worked.

question

pay policy line

answer

A graphed line showing the mathematical relationship between job evaluation points and pay rate.

question

pay grades

answer

Sets of jobs having similar worth or content, grouped together to establish rates of pay.

question

pay range

answer

A set of possible pay rates defined by a minimum, maximum, and midpoint of pay for employees holding a particular job or a job within a particular pay grade.

question

pay differential

answer

Adjustment to a pay rate to reflect differences in working conditions or labor markets.

question

delayering

answer

Reducing the number of levels in the organization's job structure.

question

skill-based pay systems

answer

Pay structures that set pay according to the employees' levels of skill or knowledge and what they are capable of doing.

STUDY

Computer Based System Decision Support Systems Planning And Decision Making

Management Information Systems Chapter 12 – Flashcards 25 terms

August Dunbar

25 terms

Preview

Management Information Systems Chapter 12 – Flashcards

question

unstructured decisions

answer

Nonroutine decisions in which the decision maker must provide judgement evaluation, and insights into the problem definition; there is no agreed upon procedure for making such decision

question

structured decisions

answer

decisions that are repetitive, routine, and have a definite procedure for handling them

question

semistructured decisions

answer

Decisions in which only part of the problem has a clear-cut answer provided by an accepted procedure

question

intelligence

answer

the first of Simon's four stages of decision making, when the individual collects information to identify problems occurring in the organization

question

design

answer

Simon's second stage of decision making, when the individual conceives of possible alternative solutions to a problem

question

choice

answer

Simon's third stage of decision making, when the individual selects among the various solution alternatives

question

implementation

answer

Simon's fourth stage of decision-making, when the individual puts the decision into effect and reports on the progress of the solution

question

classical model of management

answer

Traditional description of management that focused on its formal functions of planning, organizing, coordinating, deciding, and controlling.

question

behavioral models

answer

descriptions of management based on behavioral scientists' observations of what managers actually do in their jobs

question

managerial roles

answer

expectations of the activities that managers should perform in an organization

question

interpersonal role

answer

Mitzberg's classification for managerial roles where managers act as figureheads and leaders for the organization

question

informational roles

answer

Mintzberg's classification for managerial roles where managers act as the nerve centres of their organizations, receiving and disseminating critical information

question

decisional roles

answer

Mintzberg's classification for managerial roles where managers initiate activities, handle disturbances, allocate resources, and negotiate conflicts

question

data visualization

answer

Technology for helping users see patterns and relationships in large amounts of data by presenting the data in graphical form.

question

geographic information system (GIS)

answer

system with software that can analyze and display data using digitized maps to enhance planning and decision-making

question

sensitivity analysis

answer

models that ask "what if" questions repeatedly to determine the impact of changes in one or more factors on the outcomes

question

pivot table

answer

spreadsheet tool for reorganizing and summarizing two or more dimensions of data in a tabular format

question

balanced scorecard method

answer

Framework for operationalizing a firms strategic plan by focusing on measurable financial, business process, customer, and learning and growth outcomes of firm performance.

question

key performance indicators (KPIs)

answer

Measures proposed by senior management for understanding how well the firm is performing along specified dimensions.

question

business performance management (BPM)

answer

attempts to systematically translate a firm's strategies (e.g., differentiation, low-cost producer, market share growth, and scope of operation) into operational targets

question

drill down

answer

The ability to move from summary data to lower and lower levels of detail.

question

group decision-support systems (GDSS)

answer

An interactive computer-based system to facilitate the solution to unstructured problems by a set of decision makers working together as a group

question

Location analytics

answer

Ability to gain insights from the location (geographic) component of data, including location data form mobile phones, output from sensors or scanning devices, and data from maps

question

Operational intelligence

answer

Business analytics that deliver insight into data, streaming events and business operations

question

Predictive Analytics

answer

The use of data mining techniques, historical data, and assumptions about future conditions to predict outcomes of events, such as the probability a customer will respond to an offer or purchase a specific product

STUDY

Data Type Database Systems Databases Decision Support Systems

7132 Module 06 Chapter 6 Practice Quiz – Flashcards 34 terms

Alexander Barker

34 terms

Preview

7132 Module 06 Chapter 6 Practice Quiz – Flashcards

question

Data warehouse routinely uses ____ structures in its complex, multilevel, multi source data?

answer

2NF

question

In a ____ situation, one key determines multiple values of two other attributes and those attributes are independent of each other

answer

MULTIVALUED dependency

question

A relational table must not contain a(n) _____

answer

REPEATING GROUP

question

From a structure point of view, 3NF is better than ____

answer

2NF

question

For most businesses transactional databases, we should normalize relations into ____

answer

3NF

question

Dependacies based on only part of a composite primary key are known as ____ dependancies

answer

Partial

question

If you have three different transistive dependencies, _____ different determinant(s) exist a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

answer

c)3

question

an atomic attribute ______ a) cannot exist in a relational table b) cannot be further subdived c) displays multiplicity d) is always chosen to be a foreign key

answer

b) cannot be further subdivided

question

a table that is 1NF and includes no partial dependencies is said to be in _____ a)BCNF b)2NF c)3NF d) 4NF

answer

b) 2NF

question

_____ yields better performance a)Denormalization b)Normaliation c)Atomization d)Compression

answer

a) Denormalization

question

an example of denormalization is using a ____ denormalization table to hold report data. This is required when creating a tabular report in which the columns represent data that are a) transitive b) 3NF c) component d) temporary

answer

d) temporary

question

Before converting a table into 3NF, it is imperative that the table already be in ____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 4NF d) BCNF

answer

b)2NF

question

A table that displays data redundancies yields ____ a) consistancies b) anomalies c) fewer attributes d) more entities

answer

b) anomalies

question

A table that is in 2NF and contains no transtive dependencies is said to be in _____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF

answer

c) 3NF

question

Some very specialized applications may require normalization beyond the ____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF

answer

d) 4NF

question

Normalization works through a series of stages called normal forms. For most purposes in business database design _____ stages are as high as you need to go in the normalization a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

answer

b) 3

question

In a(n) _____ diagram the arrows above the attributes indicate all the desirable dependencies a) Chen b) dependency c) functionality d) ER

answer

b) dependency

question

____ databases reflect the evergrowing demand for greater scope and depth in the data on which decision support systems increasingly reply a)normalized b) datawarehouse c) temporary

answer

b) datawarehouse

question

an attribute that is part of a key is known as a(n) ____ atrribute a) important b) nonprime c) prime d) entity

answer

c) prime

question

a table where all attributes are dependent on the but are independent of eachother, and no row contains two or more multivalued facts about an entity is said to be in _____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF

answer

d) 4NF

question

A table where every determinant is a candidate key is said to be in ____ a) BCNF b) 2NF c) 1NF d) 4NF

answer

a) BCNF

question

A ____ derives its name from the fact that a collection of multiple entries of the same type can exist for any single key attribute occurrence a) partial dependency b) transitive dependency c) repeating group d) primary key

answer

c) repeating group

question

Improving ____ leads to more flexible queries a) atomicity b) Normalization c) denormalization d) derived attribute

answer

a) atomicity

question

1NF, 2NF, and 3NF are ______ a) normalization stages b) anomalies c) repeating groups d) atomic attributes

answer

a) normalization stages

question

To generate a surrogate key, Microsoft Access uses a(n) ______ data type. a) character b) sequence c) AutoNumber d) Identity

answer

c) AutoNumber

question

of the following normal forms, ____ is mostly of theoretical interest. a) 1NF b) 3NF c) BCNF d) DKNF

answer

d) DKNF

question

Most Designers consider the BCNF as a special case of the _____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF

answer

c) 3NF

question

In the real-world environment, we must strike a balance between design integrity and _____ a) robustness b) flexibility c) uniqueness d) ease of use

answer

b) flexibility

question

Attribute A _______ attribute B if all of the rows in the table that agree in value for attribute A also agree in value for attribute B a) determines b) derives from c) controls d) owns

answer

a) determines

question

Granularity refers to ______ a) the size of the table b) the level of detail represented by the values in a table's row c) the number of attributes represented in a table d) the number of rows in a table

answer

b) the level of detail

question

Data redundancy produces data anomalies True/False

answer

True

question

If a table has multiple candidate keys and one of those candidate keys is a composite key, the table can have __________ based on this composite candidate key even when the primary key chosen is a single attribute a. Boyce-Codd normal forms b. Redundancies c. Time-variances d. Partial dependencies

answer

Partial dependencies

question

A good relational DBMS excels at managing denormalized relations True/False

answer

False

question

Atomic attributes are attributes that can be further subdivided True/False

answer

False

STUDY

Data Analysis Tools Data Mining Tools Database Systems Decision Support Systems Online Transaction Processing

CH 13 MC – Flashcards 40 terms

Shelby Arnold

40 terms

Preview

CH 13 MC – Flashcards

question

Implementing BI in an organization involves capturing not only business data (internal and external) but also the ____.

answer

metadata

question

Analyzing decision support data to generate information is part of ____.

answer

business intelligence

question

Data mining is part of the "____" section of the business intelligence framework.

answer

Processes

question

A data mart is part of the "____" section of the business intelligence framework.

answer

Governance

question

____'s main goal is to provide a comprehensive and consistent definition of all data within an organization.

answer

MDM

question

The ____ contains business data extracted from the operational database and from external data sources.

answer

data store

question

____ are in charge of presenting the data to the end user in a variety of ways.

answer

Data visualization tools

question

____ provide a unified, single point of entry for information distribution.

answer

Portals

question

Data is captured from the OLTP system and placed on the ____ on a near-real time basis.

answer

data warehouse

question

BusinessObjects is a(n) ____ tool.

answer

OLAP

question

Had ____ been as pivotal to business operations a few years back, crises precipitated by the likes of Enron, WorldCom, and Arthur Andersen might have been avoided.

answer

governance

question

____ systems provided no data extraction/integration process.

answer

Traditional mainframe-based online transaction processing

question

From the data analyst's point of view, decision support data differ from operational data in three main areas: time span, granularity, and ____.

answer

dimensionality

question

A characteristic of decision support data is ____.

answer

high query activity

question

A characteristic of operational data is ____.

answer

high normalization

question

In 2008, Wal-Mart, the world's largest company, had over four ____ of data in its data warehouses.

answer

petabytes

question

Data ____ implies that all business entities, data elements, data characteristics, and business metrics are described in the same way throughout the enterprise.

answer

integration

question

____ can serve as a test vehicle for companies exploring the potential benefits of data warehouses.

answer

Data marts

question

There are 12 rules that define a(n) ____.

answer

data warehouse

question

The basic star schema has four components: facts, ____, attributes, and attribute hierarchies.

answer

dimensions

question

Computed or derived facts are sometimes called ____ to differentiate them from stored facts.

answer

metrics

question

In a star schema, dimensions are normally stored in ____.

answer

dimension tables

question

In a star schema, attributes are often used to search, filter, or classify ____.

answer

facts

question

The ____ dimension of a data cube provides a framework from which sales patterns can be analyzed and possibly predicted.

answer

time

question

The attribute hierarchy provides a top-down data organization that is used for two main purposes: ____ and drill-down/roll-up data analysis.

answer

aggregation

question

Fact and dimension tables are related by ____ keys.

answer

foreign

question

In a typical star schema, each dimension record is related to thousands of ____ records.

answer

fact

question

A ____ schema is a type of star schema in which the dimension tables can have their own dimension tables.

answer

snowflake

question

____ splits a table into subsets of rows or columns and places the subsets close to the client computer to improve data access time.

answer

Partitioning

question

In a MOLAP system, the MOLAP ____ allows end users to interact with the MOLAP server and request data for analysis.

answer

GUI

question

The reliance on ____ as the design methodology for relational databases is seen as a stumbling block to its use in OLAP systems.

answer

normalization

question

Decision support data tend to be non-normalized, ____, and pre-aggregated.

answer

duplicated

question

The ____ schema is designed to optimize data query operations rather than data update operations.

answer

star

question

ROLAP extends ____ so that it can differentiate between access requirements for data warehouse data and operational data.

answer

SQL

question

A ____ index is based on 0 and 1 bits to represent a given condition.

answer

bitmapped

question

Conceptually, MDBMS end users visualize the stored data as a three-dimensional cube known as a ____.

answer

data cube

question

A MOLAP system stores data in an MDBMS, using proprietary ____ and array technology to simulate the multidimensional cube.

answer

matrix

question

What is one of the main characteristics of OLAP systems?

answer

They support client/server architecture

question

What is a characteristic of ROLAP?

answer

It uses the star schema

question

A(n) ____ is a dynamic table that not only contains the SQL query command to generate the rows, but also stores the actual rows.

answer

materialized view

STUDY

Decision Support Systems Finance And Accounting Systems Analysis Transaction Processing System Transaction Processing Systems

CH. 2 T/F – Flashcards 20 terms

Ewan Tanner

20 terms

Preview

CH. 2 T/F – Flashcards

question

1) Enrolling employees in benefits plans is a business process handled by the finance and accounting function.

answer

question

2) Operational management is responsible for directing the day-to-day operations of the business and therefore needs transaction-level information.

answer

question

3) Functional systems that support business processes within a single functional group, such as human resources, are being phased out in favor of cross-functional systems.

answer

question

4) Transaction processing systems are most commonly used by the senior management level of an organization.

answer

question

5) In social business, firms use social networks for coordinating production tasks.

answer

question

6) A transaction processing system is a computerized system that performs and records the daily routine transactions necessary to conduct business.

answer

question

7) A hotel reservation system is a typical example of a management information system.

answer

question

8) You would use an MIS to help decide whether to introduce a new product line.

answer

question

9) Management information systems typically support nonroutine decision making.

answer

question

10) Most MISs use sophisticated mathematical models or statistical techniques.