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Adverse Drug Events
Decision Support Systems
Health Computing
Medicare And Medicaid Services
Pharmacology
Pharmacology Final Review-2 – Flashcards 75 terms

Richard Molina
75 terms
Preview
Pharmacology Final Review-2 – Flashcards
question
which of the following is a primary benefit of the use of computerized physician order entry (CPOE) for patient medications
answer
decreases prescribing and transcription errors
question
incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. durign the encounter, the provider can make the pt more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by
answer
both A and B-turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
question
actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following except
answer
prescribing a 3rd drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
question
Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. this is a type__ allergic drug reaction
answer
IV
question
cost effectiveness analysis compares 2 or more tx or programs that are
answer
not necessarily therapeutically equivalent
question
herbs and supplements are regulated by the Food and Drug administration
answer
false
question
drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that
answer
is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
question
which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions
answer
3 month old female
question
the 1st step in the prescribing process according to the world health organizations is
answer
diagnosing the patient's problem
question
pharmacogenetic testing is required by the FDA prior to prescribing
answer
cetuximab
question
drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property
answer
desensitization or down regulation with continuous use
question
which of the following statements about bioavailability are true
answer
bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms
question
a potential harmful effect to patients who take some herbal medication is
answer
lead poisoning
question
pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include
answer
bioavailability
question
a provider may consider testing for cyp2d6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer
answer
reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
question
the role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to
answer
educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care
question
the point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the
answer
onset of action
question
david presents to the clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. he is rxd cromolyn sodium (opticrom) eye drops. education regarding cromolyn eye drops includes
answer
he should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eye drops
question
the pediatric research equity act requires
answer
all applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies
question
influenza vaccine may be administered annually to
answer
pregnant patients
question
if a patient is allergic to sulfonamide antibiotics he or she will most likely have cross sensitivity to
answer
all of the above-loop diuretics, sulfonylureas, thiazide diuretics
question
there is often cross sensitivity and cross resistance between penicillins and cephalosporins due to
answer
both drug classes contain a beta lactam ring that is vulnerable to beta lactamase producing organisms
question
Liza is breastfeeding her 2 mth old son and has an infection that requires an abx. what drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant
answer
all of above-maternal drug levels, half-life, lipid solubility
question
monitoring for patients who are on long term antifungal therapy with ketoconazole includes
answer
AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin
question
drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include
answer
antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate
question
tuberculin purified protein derivative PPD
answer
may be administered the same day as the MMR and or varicella vaccine
question
attenuated vaccines are also known as
answer
live vaccines
question
developmental variation in renal fxn has what impact on rxing for infants and children
answer
lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than 6 mths
question
Lauren is a 13yr old who comes to clinic with a 4 day history of cough, low grade fever, and rhinorrhea. when she blows her nose or cough the mucous is greenish yellow. the appropriate abx to prescribe would be
answer
none
question
patients who are taking antiretroviral ART need to have the following monitored
answer
lipid levels
question
to prevent the development of peripheral neuropathy in patients taking isonizid for TB, the pt is also prescribed
answer
pyridoxine(Vitamin B 6)
question
the centers for disease control recommends all newborn infants receive prophylactic administration of __ within 1 hr of birth
answer
erythromycin opthalmic ointment
question
Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes
answer
instill carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until canals are clear
question
resistance to antiretroviral ART therapy is measured by
answer
determining plasma viral RNA on two successive measurements
question
predictors for successful treatment with antiretroviral therapy in HIV positive patients includes
answer
the patient is strictly adherent to ART regimen
question
at which stage/classification of htn should drug therapy be instituted according to JNC-7 report
answer
stage 1
question
if not chosen as the first drug in htn tx, which drug class should be added as second step becuase it will enhance the effects of most other agents
answer
diuretics
question
because of its action on various body systems, the patient taking a thiazide or loop diuretic may also need to receive
answer
potassium supplements
question
in teaching about the use of sublingual nitroglycerine, the patient should be instructed
answer
to place on tablet under the tongue if chest pain occurs and allow it to dissolve
question
despite good blood pressure control, a NP might change a patient's drug from an ACEI to an angiotensin II receptor blocker ARB because the ARB
answer
does not produce a dry hacky cough
question
felicity has been prescribed colesipol to tx her hyperlipidemia. unlike other antilipidemics, this drug
answer
exchanges chloride ions for negatively charged acids in the bowel
question
furosemide is added to a tx regimen for heart failure which includes digoxin. monitoring for this combination includes
answer
serum potassium
question
Jacob has htn for which a calcium channel blocker has been prescribed. this drug helps control blood pressure because it
answer
decreases the amount of calcium inside the cell
question
the NP orders a thyroid panel for a pt on amiodarone. the pt tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test is ordered. which is the correct response
answer
amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and cause hypothroidism
question
increased life expectancy for pts with heart failure has been associated with the use of
answer
ace inhibitors, especially when started early in the disease process
question
when considering which cholesterol lowering drug to prescribe which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment
answer
coronary artery disease risk level
question
janice has elevated LDL, VLDL, and trigyceride levels. Niaspan an extended relsease form of niacin is chosen to treat her hyperlidemia. due to its metabolism and excretion, which of the following labs should be monitored
answer
serum creatinine
question
while taking an ARB, pts need to avoid certain OTC meds without first consulting the provider because
answer
both A and B-cimetidine is metabolized by the CYP3A4 isoenzymes and non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs reduce prostaglandin levels
question
when starting a pt on a statin, education would include
answer
all of above-if they stop med, their lipid levels will return to pretreatment, medication is a supplement to diet therapy and exercise, if they have any muscle aches or pain, they should contact their provider
question
angina is produced by an imbalance b/t o2 supply and demand in myocardium. which of the following drugs help to correct this imbalnce by increasing MOS
answer
ACE inhibitor
question
which of the following drugs has been associated with increased risk for MI in women
answer
estrogen replacement
question
TX for heart failure including drug therapy are based on the stages developed by the ACC/AHA. stage A pts are tx with
answer
drugs for hypertension and hyperlipidemia if they exist
question
monitoring of a pt who is on a lipid lowering drug includes
answer
lipid profile with attention to serum LDL, 6-8 wks after starting therapy then again in 6 wks
question
to reduce mortality all pts with angina regardless of class, should be on
answer
aspirin 81-325mg/d
question
which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule
answer
dose of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level
question
serum digoxin level are monitored for potential toxicity, monitoring should occur
answer
because a reference point is needed in adjusting a dose
question
dulcea has type 2 DM and high tricglycerides. she has gemfibrozil prescribed to tx her hypertriglycerideemia. A hx of the following might contraindicate the use of the drug
answer
gall bladder disease
question
pts how have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on
answer
ACE inhibitors
question
art is a 55y/o smoker who has been dx with angina and placed on nitrates. he c/o HA after using nitrate. appropriate reply would be
answer
"Headaches are common side effects with these drugs. how severe are they?"
question
Pt teaching r/t amplopidine includes
answer
avoid grapefruit juice as it affects the metabolism of this drug
question
the choice of diuretic use in tx htn is based on
answer
level of kidney fxn with a thiazide diuretic being used for an estimated glomerular filtration rate higher than the mid 40 range
question
some research supports that testosterone replacement therapy may be indicated in which of the following dx in men
answer
all of above- age related decrease in cognitive fxn, metabolic syndrome, decreased muscle mass in aging men
question
while on testosterone replacement, H/H levels should be monitored. levels suggestive of excessive erythorcytosis or abuse are
answer
hemoglobin 17.5g/dl or hematocrit 54%
question
when treating suspected gonorrhea in a non-pregnant pt, the pt should be concurrently tx for chlamydia with
answer
azithromycin 1 gm PO x1
question
the goal of testosterone replacement therapy is
answer
testosterone levels in the mid-normal range in 1 week after an injection
question
when rxing phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors such as sildenafil, viagra, pts should be screened for use of
answer
nitrates
question
ongoing monitoring is essential after tx for gonorrhea. the pt should be rescreened for gonorrhea and chlamydia in
answer
3-6 mths
question
monitoring of an older male pt on testosterone replacement therapy includes
answer
digital rectal prostate screening exam at 3 and 6 mths after starting therapy
question
men who are rxd PDE-5 inhibitors for erectile dysfunction should be educated regarding the adverse effects of the drug which include
answer
hearing loss
question
the choice of diuretic use in tx htn is based on
answer
level of kidney funciton with a thiazide diuretic being used for an estimated glomerular filtration rate higher that the mid 40 range
question
male pts who should not be rxd PDE-5 inhibitors include
answer
those who have had an acute myocardial infarction in the past 6 mths
question
Sophie presents to the clinic with a malodorous vaginal discharge and is confirmed to have trichomonas infections. tx for her would include
answer
metronidazole 2 gm PO x 1 dose
question
monitoring of male pts who are using PDE-5 inhibitors includes
answer
blood pressure
question
Helima presents with a c/o vaginal discharge that when tested meets the criteria for bacterial vaginosis. tx of bacterial vaginosis in a non-pregnant symptomatic women would be
answer
metronidazole 500mg PO BID x 7days
question
A test of cure is recommended after tx chlamydia in which pt population
answer
pregnant patients
Client Care
Decision Support Systems
Diagnostic Test Results
Health Computing
Nursing
Secondary Data Analysis
Informatics Final Exam – Flashcards 76 terms

Daniel Jimmerson
76 terms
Preview
Informatics Final Exam – Flashcards
question
A nursing informatics specialist is preparing an in-service program for staff on healthcare informatics and information technology. The nurse would emphasize which component as the focus?
answer
Information
question
A nurse asks the nursing informatics specialist, "What is the difference between computer literacy and computer fluency?" Which information would the nursing informatics specialist integrate into the response?
answer
Computer literacy refers to the ability to perform tasks with a computer.
question
While reading a journal article on the evolution of nursing informatics, at which time would the nurse expect to find a discussion about the shift in definition from a technology orientation to more of an information orientation?
answer
Mid-1980s
question
When describing how new systems for information are organized, which would the nursing informatics specialist explain as being used?
answer
Data
question
A nursing informatics specialist is characterized by colleagues as an informatics innovator. This nurse would demonstrate the ability to:
answer
generate informatics theory.
question
When reviewing a client safety database, the nurse understands that which is used?
answer
Aggregated data
question
A nursing informatics specialist is describing the benefits of informatics to a group of agency staff. Which would the nurse identify as a primary benefit for healthcare in general?
answer
Increase in the usability of data
question
A nurse involved in informatics identifies the need for information and demonstrates ability to locate, evaluate, and effectively use it. The nurse is demonstrating which competency?
answer
Information literacy
question
A nurse is presenting an in-service program on nursing informatics competencies. When describing the need for computer fluency for nursing informatics competencies, which would the nurse include as characterizing this concept?
answer
Lifelong learning
question
Which action would a nurse identify as the current focus of today's practice informatics?
answer
Capturing data at the point of care
question
A client tells the nurse, "I'm not so sure that I like the computer as my chart. I've heard so many horror stories of security problems on the computer." Which response by the nurse demonstrates understanding of the recent strategic planning goals aimed at inspiring confidence and trust in health information technology?
answer
"We are doing everything possible to protect the confidentiality of your health information."
question
A nurse interested in nursing informatics is reading a journal article about early computerized clinical information systems. Which information would the nurse most likely find as characteristic of these early systems?
answer
Different software systems were created for different areas.
question
An nursing informatics specialist is working as part of group tasked with evaluating the current health information technology system in the facility. As part of the evaluation process, the nurse is reviewing the initial strategic plan developed for the nationwide implementation of health information technology. Which result would lead the nurse to determine that the system has met the initial goals?
answer
A collaborative governance was developed to support information use for population health.
question
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client, integrating information from the client's history and physical examination, laboratory and diagnostic test results, and medications using the new informatics system adopted by the facility. The nurse understands that informatics facilitates the task because it focuses on:
answer
using information technology.
question
For which is information literacy considered essential?
answer
Evidence-based practice
question
A nurse-manager is looking at ways to improve the admission process from the emergency department to the inpatient unit. Which tool would be most appropriate for the nurse-manager to use?
answer
Flowchart
question
A nurse administrator is involved in process improvement and uses a chart to examine the relationships among complex processes. The chart resembles a fishbone. The administrator has used which type of chart?
answer
Cause-and-effect chart
question
A nurse-manager is working on the schedule for unit staffing. To determine the needs accurately, the nurse manager would use:
answer
patient classification system.
question
A nurse administrator is part of a committee working on evaluating information systems for the agency for future purchase. Which role would be most important for the nurse administrator to fulfill?
answer
Nursing services advocate
question
A nurse administrator is evaluating the various steps involved with client care on a unit based on the staff's complaints that there is a fair amount of duplication of services and variation in care. Which tool would the nurse administrator most likely use?
answer
Flowcharting
question
A nurse manager is using real-time information on key performance indicators to guide decision making. Which is the nurse using?
answer
Dashboards
question
A nurse administrator is working as part of group that conducts surveys of clients about their healthcare experiences. Which aspect would be most important to address?
answer
Employing a core set of questions
question
A nurse administrator is reviewing a report about the agency's nursing units and the care they provide. The results have been compared and benchmarked to similar units from other agencies. The administrator is reviewing a report from the:
answer
National Database of Nursing Quality Indicators (NDNQI).
question
When describing the role of the nurse administrator in relation to information management systems, which would be expected as a basic skill?
answer
Using spreadsheets
question
A nurse administrator is evaluating several human resource management systems to determine if one would be appropriate for the agency. To make the decision, the nurse administrator evaluates each system to see if it meets the minimum requirements. Which characteristic would lead the nurse to reject a system?
answer
Minimizing allowances for staff self-scheduling
question
A nurse administrator who is using project management software wants to ensure that the project stays on time and on budget. The nurse administrator also identifies key tasks that must occur during the project to keep it on target. The administrator would most likely use which tool to track the project's status?
answer
Gantt chart
question
A nurse administrator is using a spreadsheet for forecasting. Which action would the administrator do first?
answer
Obtain data spanning several years
question
A nurse administrator is reviewing numerous client surveys returned from clients recently hospitalized on a specific nursing unit. The clients voiced dissatisfaction with care because of miscommunication among staff, poor scheduling of client procedures, and lack of adequate transport services. The nurse administrator is examining:
answer
throughput.
question
A nurse using a clinical information system is required to document the same data in more than one area because the data do not "flow over" to the other areas and the data fields are not universally designed. Which component is lacking?
answer
Interoperability
question
A nurse is creating a password for use in accessing the healthcare information system in the agency. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to do in creating this password?
answer
Select a combination of letters and numbers
question
A nursing informatics specialist is describing the use of health information technology to meet national safety goals to a group of nurse managers. The nurse specialist determines that the group needs additional teaching by which statement?
answer
"Alarms should be used on all devices to ensure prompt response to safety issues."
question
When adopting the electronic healthcare record (EHR), which aspect would be considered the ultimate goal?
answer
Client as the most important focus
question
A nursing informatics specialist is describing the similarities and differences between the two types of radio frequency identification (RFID) to a group of agency administrators. Which type would a nursing informatics specialist include as being associated with the passive type?
answer
Readable from a distance of 1 to 10 feet
question
A nursing informatics specialist is working as part of a group that is working with an agency that is transitioning from the paper record to the electronic record. The nurse identifies that the agency is currently at stage 3 of the adoption model because:
answer
flow sheets for clinical documentation are in place.
question
The use of which method would be most effective in providing data protection from entry by outsiders?
answer
Firewall
question
An administrative group at an agency involved in adopting healthcare information technology is developing a strategic plan. Which component would they include?
answer
Expenditures offset by client outcome benefits
question
A nurse is working on a committee involved in adopting electronic healthcare systems for the agency. Currently, the agency has clinical documentation, a clinical decision support system (CDSS) with error checking, and a picture archive and communication system (PACS) in place. The committee determines that the agency is at which stage of adoption?
answer
Stage 3
question
A nurse is working as part of a committee involved in creating passwords for the healthcare agency's network. Which password would be the strongest?
answer
NuRs1N9gY
question
A nursing informatics specialist is conducting a seminar on the need for uniformity in user design for data entry screens based on the understanding that:
answer
most providers approach user design using a paper chart thinking process.
question
A nurse is preparing to access a client's electronic record. The system verifies that the nurse is the person logging into the system and grants access to the information. This process is known as:
answer
authentication.
question
When developing a plan for workflow redesign and the use of computerized documentation, which item would be the first thing to consider?
answer
The number of computers needed
question
When describing the various biometric methods for authentication, which method would the nursing informatics specialist identify as most secure?
answer
Iris scan
question
A nurse is reading a journal article about syndromic surveillance. The nurse would expect the article to describe this concept as:
answer
providing early detection of potential disease.
question
A nursing informatics specialist is conducting a seminar for agency staff about the benefits of a fully integrated electronic health record. The nurse specialist determines the need for additional teaching when the group identifies which aspect as a benefit to the client?
answer
Capability of decision support
question
Which statement best reflects information and health literacy?
answer
Expertise in information and health literacy is achieved with continuous practice.
question
A nurse is searching the Internet for journal articles on asthma and comes across an article that is published in an online journal. The nurse is aware of the factors affecting online journals, keeping in mind that:
answer
there will be no print version available to access the article.
question
A nurse is reviewing journal articles obtained from a database search and frequently notes that a specific work is being cited by authors. In addition, the nurse notices that this cited work is often the basis for the author's opinion. The nurse would identify this as:
answer
a seminal work.
question
A nurse is searching the Internet for information related to clinical trials and grants. Which site would the nurse most likely use to obtain quality information?
answer
The National Institutes of Health
question
A nurse is evaluating the information obtained from a search and notes that the majority of information is from reports of expert committees. The nurse interprets this research to be at which level of evidence?
answer
Level VII
question
A nurse wants to search for information about legal and ethical issues involving nursing. Which database would be most helpful for the nurse to use first in this search?
answer
CINAHL
question
A nurse is attempting to answer the following clinical question: How does the treatment of a myocardial infarction in women compare with that provided to men? When using the PICO process, which information would the nurse identify as "P"?
answer
Myocardial infarction
question
After searching a database for information on pain control, a nurse is reviewing a research article on the topic. While reading the article, the nurse notes that much of the research is based on the author's point of view. The nurse interprets this as:
answer
selection bias.
question
A nurse is conducting a database search. Which information would the nurse need to keep in mind?
answer
Each database has its own way for indexing search terms.
question
When searching PubMed, the nurse understands that this database uses a search term structure based on a:
answer
hierarchy
question
An nursing informatics specialist is developing an in-service presentation to stimulate interest in researching ways to solve clinical problems on the units. As part of the presentation, the specialist is planning to address seeking out information for nursing knowledge. How would the nurse specialist most likely describe the quest for knowledge?
answer
The process never stops.
question
A group of nurses are using the Star Model of Knowledge Transformation to apply the results of a research study to client care. The nurses have completed the discovery step and will now go onto which step?
answer
Summary
question
A nurse is using a library database to search for information related to cancer. The nurse includes the words "some" and "many" in the search. The search engine would identify these words as:
answer
stop words.
question
A nurse is reviewing several research articles found on the web after completing a PICO search. One of the articles provides an expert opinion of a professional society. The nurse interprets this to mean that the information is at which level of evidence?
answer
Lowest
question
Which statement best reflects the differences between a scholarly article and other forms of nonscholarly work such as a magazine, a newsletter, and a newspaper?
answer
An newspaper article can be written by anyone, including a nurse.
question
A nurse is working to develop information technology skills. Which behavior would best demonstrate the acquisition of these skills?
answer
Ability to use technology to develop a plan of care based on client information
question
A nurse is conducting a search of several databases simultaneously. The nurse is conducting which type of search?
answer
Federated
question
A nurse is searching the Internet for information about the nursing licensure in another state. Which site would be most appropriate for the nurse to access?
answer
National Council of State Boards of Nursing
question
A nurse is using the Cochrane Library to search for systematic reviews about treatment for hypertension. The nurse understands that systematic reviews help to reduce bias. When reading the review, the nurse notes that the review covers a wide range of databases and search terms. The nurse identifies this as reducing which bias?
answer
Indexing
question
When evaluating a website for health information, which question would be important for the nurse to ask to determine the validity and quality of the information?
answer
Is the date of the site's last update clearly specified?
question
A group of nurses who are working with the nurse manager are preparing to conduct a research study on the effects of 8-hour and 12-hour shifts on nurses working on a general medical-surgical unit. One of the nurses says, "I always have trouble finding relevant research articles." Which response by the nurse manager would be most appropriate to help this nurse?
answer
"Let's go together to ask the librarian for help in finding journals that specialize in research."
question
A nursing informatics specialist is planning to use a free statistical program available on the Internet. Which fact would be most important for the nurse specialist to keep in mind?
answer
Command lines are used to input data.
question
A nurse researcher is entering categorical data into a spreadsheet. Which action would be most important for the nurse to do?
answer
Code the data numerically
question
A nurse is gathering data for a research study and is using DataFerrett to access the data. When accessing the data, the nurse would need to keep in mind that these data are:
answer
from various federal agencies.
question
A nurse researcher accesses the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality site for information related to:
answer
healthcare information technology.
question
A nursing informatics specialist is working with the staff of an agency who is implementing electronic health records system. The nurse specialist would inform the staff to expect major changes in workflow:
answer
after the initial go-live period is over.
question
A nursing informatics specialist is preparing a seminar for a group of staff nurses about the use of informatics and nursing research. Which event would the nurse specialist most likely include as occurring first?
answer
Use of case studies to describe intervention effectiveness
question
Nurses on a unit are reviewing research to determine if a change in practice is necessary. Which activity would be most appropriate for the nurses to use as the best evidence for a change?
answer
Searching for a meta-analysis on the subject
question
A nurse is collecting data about wait times for certain diagnoses across all emergency departments in hospitals in the United States. The nurse is most likely using which source for the data?
answer
DataFerrett
question
A nurse is preparing to conduct a research study about a clinical topic and wants to obtain the most recent evidence on the topic. Which site would be most appropriate for the nurse to search?
answer
National Institute of Nursing Research
question
When describing business intelligence to a group of nurse managers, which definition would the nursing informatics specialist include?
answer
Process of turning financial, client, and quality data into usable information
question
A nurse is beginning to analyze data using descriptive data analysis in a spreadsheet. Which action would the nurse do first?
answer
Enter data on the row
Decision Support Systems
General Systems Theory
Health Computing
Informed Decision Making
Nursing
Personal Health Record
Teamwork And Collaboration
Informatics – Flashcards 47 terms

Tony Foust
47 terms
Preview
Informatics – Flashcards
question
Nursing Informatics
answer
A specialty that integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science to manage and communicate data, information, knowledge and wisdom in nursing practice.
question
What are the 3 sciences involved in Nursing Informatics?
answer
Nursing science, computer science, and information science
question
Information Theory
answer
Processing data to produce information and, in combination with knowledge and wisdom, using information to provide care
question
Describe another theory involved in Nursing Informatics
answer
a. Change Theory - unfreezing àmoving àrefreezing b. Systems Theory - interaction among parts c. Behaviorism - desired behaviors are reinforced d. Constructivism - reinterpret the world to fit new situations e. Adult learning - learn by doing, must know why they need to learn and value of learning
question
Describe the differences between an EMR and an EHR
answer
EMR- medical record from one location/provider EX: Epic (St. Anthony) Ex: Kiddos (Children) Ex: Compass (Barnes) One provider EHR- mulitple provider records combined
question
What is a PHR? Who is responsible for its maintenance?
answer
PHR- not official or correct and patient reported and can be merged to an EHR (Phone App, Flash drive, Smart Card Diary (Written)
question
What are 3 benefits and 3 limitations of a PHR?
answer
a. Barriers- motivation- time - security -access- b. Benefits- visibility - unconscious- repeat yourself - involved in health - saves time
question
What is the deadline for hospitals' compliance with the 'Meaningful Use' requirements of the American Reinvestment and Recovery Act (ARRA)?
answer
In 2015, penalty if unable to show meaningful use
question
Describe how a clinical information system (EMR or EHR) contributes to patient safety.
answer
Improves legibility, Provides greater continuity of care, Supports safe medication practices, Improves nursing workflow; eliminates redundant documentation, Provides access to up-to-date, accurate data for informed decision-making, Decision support based on assessment data
question
Give an example of data about a specific quality outcome measure that could be obtained from a clinical information system.
answer
Fall Preventions -Monitor how many patients fell out of bed
question
According to nursing researchers Staggers, Gassert, and Curran, what informatics competencies should be demonstrated by:
answer
a. Beginning Nurses? Should process basic information management and computer technology. Access data, desktop software, & decision support. b. Experienced Nurses? Highly skilled in information systems to support their major area of practice. Make judgments on basic trends and patterns. c. Nursing Informatics Specialists? Meet the information needs of practicing nurses by integrating and applying information, computer science, and nursing science. d. Informatics Innovators? Conduct informatics research and generate informatics theory.
question
Define the term 'computer fluency'
answer
Understanding computers and related systems. It includes a working vocabulary of computer and information system components, the fundamental principles of computer processing and a perspective for how non-technical people interact with technical people.
question
What does the acronym QSEN mean?
answer
Quality and Safety Education for Nurses
question
Name the 6 categories of QSEN.
answer
a. Patient-Centered Care b. Teamwork & Collaboration c. Evidence Based Practice d. Quality Improvement e. Safety f. Informatics
question
Name 3 nursing literature bibliographic databases.
answer
a. Omid b. Medline c. PubMed
question
How do the Boolean operators affect a literature search?
answer
a. "And" = search only records in which BOTH criteria are met b. "Or" = search returns any record with EITHER criteria c. "Not" = criteria returns records that do NOT have the designated criteria
question
Define the 7 Levels of Evidence described in the Sewell & Thede textbook.
answer
a. Level 1 - evidence from a systematic review or meta-analysis of all relevant randomized controlled trials (RCTs) or evidence-based clinical practice guideline based on systematic review of RCTs. b. Level 2 - Evidence obtained from at least one well-designed RCT. c. Level 3 - Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trails without randomization. d. Level 4 - Evidence from well-designed-case control and cohort studies. e. Level 5 - Evidence from systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies. f. Level 6 - Evidence from single descriptive or qualitative study. g. Level 7 - Evidence from the opinion of authorities and/or reports of expert committees.
question
Define the term 'research practice gap'.
answer
"Nurses must expedite closing the research practice gap in order to make dramatic, needed improvements to our healthcare delivery system." (Pg. 206 in the book)
question
Name two factors that cause a research practice gap.
answer
a. Access to research b. Attitude c. Time d. Def: the discrepancy between research on effective clinical practice and direct care provided to patients
question
Define the term 'seminal work'.
answer
Seminal work refers to work frequently cited by others or influences the opinions of others
question
Provide a brief definition of 'just culture'.
answer
Just culture is the place that you work will not take serious action for making an error. Professionals do make mistakes, although if you make a reckless mistake you will be accountable.
question
Discuss examples of barriers to a just culture; how can these barriers be reduced?
answer
a. Time consuming b. Cost c. Individual Slips d. People who make reckless errors e. Medicare/Medicaid/other mandatory reporting of errors f. Stuck in the mud/stick administration and/or managers
question
How can informatics be used to monitor errors and support a just culture?
answer
a. Barcodes- help with support errors b. Familiar with technology c. Interventions
question
What is BCMA and how does it contribute to patient safety?
answer
Barcode- scan the patient, is this the right patient, order, and medication.
question
What are some of the limitations of BCMA?
answer
a. Errors in barcode on the medicine b. Cost c. Equipment malfunction d. Incorrect use of equipment
question
If you were a nursing manager, what report data could help you monitor the use of BCMA technology on your nursing unit?
answer
a. Hooked to the patient record system because when it is scanned it will go to the document. (IS this happening 100% of the time) b. Does the staff like the system? Liking it will cause them to use it, rather than ignore it.
question
Define telenursing and describe how it occurs.
answer
Use of technology to deliver care over a distance.
question
Describe at least 2 examples of patient assessments that may be accomplished using telenursing.
answer
a. Hooked up to an ecectric spirometer connected to a computer b. Telecare nurses decide, direct, and coordinate care rather than provide it directly.
question
What are some benefits and limitations of telenursing?
answer
a. Benefits: The nurse is always in contact with their patients. Beneficial to the elderly, allows in home care. b. Limitations: The nurse is not always physically with their patient, can break, less personal.
question
What is the Leapfrog Group and how can a healthcare organization meet the CPOE criteria to be recognized by this group?
answer
Organization to help hospitals with their safety. You must score a certain score. Physicians enter the meds (75% electronically). Also, they must correct 50% of ordering errors.
question
How can CPOE contribute to patient safety?
answer
a. Drug interactions b. Dosing errors c. Public reporting (competition)
question
What are potential barriers to CPOE?
answer
a. Cost b. Physician resistance c. Missing data d. Unethical approach
question
Define bioinformatics.
answer
Development and application of computational tools to acquire, store, organize, archive, analyze, and visualize biological data.
question
How did the Human Genome Project utilize bioinformatics?
answer
a. 3.5 billion (info found on Small Group Topics) b. Mapped DNA
question
Describe an example of data about a specific disease or condition that could be contained in a bioinformatics database.
answer
Polycystic Kidney Disease
question
Name two examples of nursing or medical decision support.
answer
Prevention of adverse drug events -Allergies and Drugs Decision Support, DNR and Code Support
question
What does the term 'alert fatigue' mean and how can it impact decision support systems?
answer
Growing apathetic and forget about the alerts
question
What are the benefits and limitations of clinical decision support systems?
answer
a. Benefits- Real time patient info and patient piece of mind b. Limitations- Stop finding and too complex
question
Name 4 ways a nurse can follow HIPAA guidelines for securing patient data.
answer
a. Don't share information in public areas (elevators, cafeterias, hallways, public restrooms) b. Don't share information with anyone not directly involved with the patient's care. c. Patient may not want family to know details of care. d. Don't look up friends, family, celebrities or other patients on other floors. e. Don't speak of the patients outside of the hospital to family, friends, neighbors, etc.
question
What are 4 basic guidelines for quality documentation and reporting?
answer
Factual -Legal -Libel (written) and slander (spoken) Accurate and Complete Current Organized
question
Name 5 types of patient data typically found in a hospital's clinical information system?
answer
a. Labs & Lab Results b. Vital Signs c. Orders d. Height/weight e. Demographics
question
Define the legal term 'non-discoverable'.
answer
a. Outside sources cannot access this, especially in court/insurance company b. Cannot be used against a person in court
question
How would an Incident Report become discoverable in court?
answer
If you added to the chart's documentation that you wrote an Incident Report
question
Define the term 'professional negligence'.
answer
a. Failure to provide the standard of care resulting in injury to the patient b. Has to be injury, injury related.
question
Define the term 'cyberchondriac' and discuss its positive attributes.
answer
-Indicates a person who has concerns about health and searches for health information on the web -Positive attributes: -Online info. influenced the discussions they had with their healthcare provider -Affected people's understanding of any health problems they had and improved their health management
question
Name an example of a health numeracy skill.
answer
a. Deciding timing of medication dosages b. Def: ability of a consumer to interpret and act on all numerical info. such as graphical and probabilistic info. needed to make effective health care decisions
question
Describe the components of the chart.
answer
a. Vital signs (blood pressure, statistical data) b. Biographical data (address, phone number, relatives) c. Labs d. Orders e. Weights, height, age, DOB
Decision Support Systems
Efficacy And Safety
Health Computing
Molecular Biology
Roles And Responsibilities
Store And Forward
Middle School Science questions – Flashcards 763 terms

Matthew Carle
763 terms
Preview
Middle School Science questions – Flashcards
question
technology
answer
the application of science through the use of special procedures or devices
question
dependent variable
answer
a variable that is not under the expirementer's control
question
constant
answer
not changing or varying
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meter
answer
a standard of measurement equal to a little over a yard
question
metric
answer
a standard of measurement
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millimeter
answer
a standard of measurement equal to one thousandth of a meter
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centimeter
answer
a standard of measurement equal to one hundredth of a meter
question
decimeter
answer
a standard of measurement equal to one tenth of a meter
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kilometer
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a standard of measurement equal to one thousand meters
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Celsius
answer
metric temperature scale on which water freezes at 0 degrees and boils at 100 degrees
question
Farenheit
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tempurature scale on which water freezes at 32 degrees and boils at 212 degrees
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law
answer
a statement of scientific fact
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theory
answer
an idea based on speculation
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hypothesis
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a theory which needs further investigation
question
volume
answer
the space inside of an object
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mass
answer
the amount of matter an object contains
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property
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a trait or attribute
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control
answer
the standard against which experimental test results are compared
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density
answer
a measure of a quantity of mass per unit of volume
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lipid
answer
any group of organic compunds consisting of fats, oils, and related substances; a part of the structural components of a living cell
question
monomer
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a single organic molecule that can join in long chains with other molecules
question
amino acid
answer
nitrogen-containing organic molecules that from the basic buliding units of proteins
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nucleic acid
answer
a complex acid found in living cells
question
aromatic
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a class of organic chemical compounds that contains one or more rings of carbon atoms
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polymer
answer
a compound with repeating small molecules such as starch and nylon
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petroleum
answer
crude oil found in sedimentary rocks and consisting mainly of hydrocarbons
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synthetic
answer
a substance made by a chemical process
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hydrocarbon
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an organic chemical containing only hydrogen and carbon
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organic compound
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elements that exist together naturally without synthetic chemicals
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saturated
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containing the maximum amount of absorbed solvent
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unsaturated
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having double or triple carbon atoms
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DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
answer
substance carrying an organism's genetic information
question
density
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a measure of quantity such as mass or electric charge per unit volume
question
solvent
answer
a substance in which other substances are dissoloved
question
freezing point
answer
the temperature at which a liquid becomes a solid
question
alloy
answer
any mixture of two or more materials
question
antifreeze
answer
a liquid that lowers the freezing point
question
solubility
answer
the capacity for one substance to dissolve another
question
supersaturated
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a chemical solution that contains a greater amount of solute than normally possible, often as a result of cooling
question
electrolyte
answer
a chemical compound which separates into ions in a solution
question
ionization
answer
a process in which an atom or molecule loses or gains electrons
question
dissociation
answer
the process by which an ionic solid will separate into its ions in a solution
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ion
answer
an electrically charged atom or atom group
question
positive ion
answer
an atom missing one or more of its electrons
question
covalent
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a chemical bond between two atoms created by sharing a pair of electrons
question
neutral
answer
with zero electric charge
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formula
answer
a set of symbols representing chemical composition
question
oxidation number
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the number of associated electrons in a compound
question
polar molecule
answer
chemical compund with an unequally distributed electric charge
question
nonpolar
answer
chemical compunds with an equally distributed electric charge
question
hydrate
answer
a compound containing water molecules
question
bond
answer
an attractive force that binds atoms and ions in a molecule
question
ductile
answer
moldable, as in the characteristic of metals
question
radioactive
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the emission of energy in the form of streaming particles by substances such and uranium or plutonium
question
transition element
answer
an element in groups of three through twelve of the periodic table
question
semiconductors
answer
a partially conductive solid
question
transuranium
answer
having an atomic number over 92
question
allotropes
answer
one of several different forms in which a chemical element occurs, each with different physical properties but the same atomic compostion
question
sublimation
answer
a chemical process in which a solid is directly converted to a gas
question
diatomic
answer
having two atoms per molecule
question
ionic
answer
relating to matter in the form of charged atoms or groups of atoms
question
metallic
answer
containing or made of metal
question
alkali
answer
a chemical substance that is water soluble, neutralizes acid, and forms salts with them
question
noble gas
answer
a chemically non-reactive gas
question
distillation
answer
the process of separating a mixture by evaporation and condensation
question
colloid
answer
a suspension of small particles dispersed in another substance
question
solution
answer
the state of one substance being dissolved in another substance
question
mixture
answer
a substance containing several ingredients which have been blended together
question
Tyndall effect
answer
the scattering of light by minute particles in its path, such as dust in the air
question
compound
answer
a substance made by combining two or more different elements
question
suspension
answer
a dispersion of fine solid particles in a liquid
question
heterogenous
answer
a chemical substance consisting of different and distinguishable materials
question
element
answer
a substance that can not be broken down into a simpler one by a chemical reaction
question
tungsten
answer
a specific metallic chemical element with a very high melting point
question
proton
answer
a stable, elementary particle that is a component of all atomic nuclei; carries a positve charge equal to that of the electron's negative charge
question
atomic number
answer
the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of an element
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isotope
answer
a form of an element with the same atomic number
question
periodic table
answer
a table of chemical elemetns arranged according to their atomic numbers
question
neutron
answer
an elementary particle without an electric charge
question
electron
answer
a stable, negatively charged elementary particle with a small mass that is a basic ingredient of matter and orbits the nucleus of an atom
question
quark
answer
a basic component of particles
question
metalloid
answer
a nonmetallic element that had properties between those of a metal and a nonmetal
question
particle
answer
a basic unit of matter; a molecule, atom, or electron
question
nitrogen
answer
an element common in the Earth's atmosphere
question
metal
answer
a chemical element that is usually a shiny solid and conducts heat or electricity
question
machine
answer
a device that makes work easier to preform
question
simple machine
answer
any device that only requires the application of a single force to work
question
Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA)
answer
the factor by which a machine multiplies the force put into it
question
device
answer
a tool or machine which perfroms a particular task or function
question
gear
answer
a toothed wheel that enagages another toothed mechanism in order to transmit motioin from one rotating body to another
question
efficiency
answer
the measure of a machine's energy effectiveness
question
wheel and axel
answer
a simple machine consisting of a large wheel rigidly secured to a smaller wheel or shaft, called an axel
question
ramp
answer
a sloped surface used to move from one level to another
question
screw
answer
a simple machine of the inclined-plane mtype consisting of a spirally threaded, cylindrical rod that engages into a similarily threaded hole
question
James Watt
answer
engineer and inventor whose improvements of the steam engine led to its wide use in industry
question
lever
answer
a rigid bar that pivots around a fulcrum and is used to move or lift a heavy load at one end by applying force to the other
question
wedge
answer
a block that is thick at one end and thinner at the other, used to secure or separate two objects
question
pulley
answer
a wheel with a grooved rim over which a belt or chain or chain can move to change the direction of a pulling force
question
fulcrum
answer
th point about which a lever turns
question
inclined plane
answer
slanted surface used to raise or lower an object
question
pivot
answer
an object on which a larger object turns
question
output force
answer
energy or power produced by a system
question
input force
answer
power or energy that enters a device and is recovered in the form of work or some other output effect
question
applied force
answer
a force which is applied to an object by a person or another object
question
expand
answer
to cause something to increase in size or volume as a result of a rise in temperature or a decrease in pressure
question
buoyant force
answer
a force that causes objects in a liquid to float or rise to the surface or upward in gas
question
Archimedes
answer
Greek mathemetician, physicist, and inventor, best known for the lever and the pulley
question
viscosity
answer
the property orf a fluid that resists flowind
question
diffusion
answer
the random movement of atoms, molecules, or ions, from one site in a medium to another, resulting in complete mixing
question
sublimation
answer
the change of ice to vapor or vapor to ice without a liquid stage
question
kilocalorie
answer
a unit of energy equal to a nutritional calorie
question
boiling point
answer
the degree of temperature at which a liquid turns to gas
question
heat of fusion
answer
the heat released when liquid water freezes to solid ice
question
plasma
answer
a hot ionized gas made up of ions and electronsfound in the sun, stars, and fusion reactors
question
pascal
answer
a unit of pressure equal to one newton per square meter
question
SI unit
answer
a unit of measure in the International System of Units
question
compressed
answer
redused in volume by pressure
question
solid
answer
a substance that retains its shape
question
liquid
answer
a substance whose shape can change but whose volume cannot
question
gas
answer
a substance that is neither a solid nor a liquid and that has the ability to expand
question
redox
answer
an abbreviation for oxidation-reduction, a process in which there is an electron transfer
question
precipitate
answer
a suspension of small solid particles formed in a solution as the result of a chemical reaction
question
reactant
answer
a substance undergoing a chemical reaction
question
Antoine Lavoisier
answer
French chemist know as the "father" of modern chemistry
question
exothermic
answer
a reaction that produces heat
question
endothermic
answer
a reation that abosorbs heat
question
decompostion
answer
chamical change in which a substance is broken down into two or more simpler substances
question
combustion
answer
process in which a substance reacts forcefully with oxygen to produce heat and light
question
catalyst
answer
a chemical that increases the rate of a chemical reaction
question
corrosion
answer
process in which a substance, such as metal, is destroyed gradually by a chemical action
question
reduction
answer
a chemical reaction which brings about a grain in hydrogen, a loss in oxygen, or an increase in electrons
question
synthesis
answer
the process of forming a complex compound from a chemical reaction involving two or more simpler elements
question
endergonic
answer
a chemical reaction in which energy is abosorbed
question
acid
answer
a corrosive substance with a pH less than seven; turns blue litmus paper red
question
ammonia
answer
a colorless, pungent, water soluble gas made up of nitrogen and hydrogen
question
indicator
answer
an organic compund that changes color in acid or base
question
titration
answer
a way of determining the concentration of a solution
question
base
answer
a chemical compound having pH between eight and fourteen; reacts with acids to form salts
question
pH
answer
a measure of acidity or alkalinity
question
buffer system
answer
a substance that minimizes a change in the pH of a soluton by neutralizing added acids and bases
question
polyester
answer
a synthetic polymer used in making textile fibers
question
detergent
answer
a cleansing substance, especially a synthetic liquid that dissolves dirt and oil
question
hydronium
answer
the positive ion containing three hydrogen and one oxygen formed when an acid dissolves in water
question
saponification
answer
the reaction of an ester with metallic base and water which produces soap
question
neutralization
answer
the addition of substances to neutralize water so that it is neither acidic nor alkaline
question
compressional wave
answer
a wave that moves in the same direction as the periodic motion of the medium
question
frequency
answer
the number of wavelengths that passes a fixed pont every second
question
amplitude
answer
the measurement of the height of a transverse wave
question
transverse wave
answer
a wave that cause the crosswise disturbance of a medium
question
interference
answer
process in which two or more waves overlap and combine to form a new wave
question
rarefaction
answer
the less dense region of a compressional wave
question
refraction
answer
the change in direction that occurs when a light wave passes from medium to another of a different density
question
standing wave
answer
a stationary wave which occurs when two waves of equal frequency and intensity traveling in oppostite directions combine
question
acoustics
answer
the scientific study of sound
question
decibel
answer
a unit of relative loudness
question
resonator
answer
a hollow chamber filled with air that amplifies sound
question
echolocation
answer
a way of locating an object using an emitted sound and the reflection back from it
question
overtone
answer
frequencies which are multiples of the lowest or main frequency
question
oscilloscope
answer
a device that uses a cathode ray tube to show waveforms
question
diffuse reflection
answer
1light that scatters in all directions when it strikes a rough surface
question
pigment
answer
colored material used to change the colors of other substances
question
reflecting telescope
answer
a telescope in which light from the object is initially focused by a concave mirror
question
opague
answer
not allowing light to pass into or through something
question
prism
answer
a glass object that can separate white light into a spectrum
question
optical axis
answer
an imaginary line passing horizontally through the center of a compound lens system
question
cone cells
answer
the cells in the retina which only function in relatively bright light
question
polarize
answer
to cause light to vibrate within certain planes
question
astigmatism
answer
an optical lens defect in which light rays are prevented from meeting at a single pont, producing an imperfect image
question
incandescent
answer
a light emitted as a result of being heated to a high temperature
question
focal point
answer
the point where rays from a lens converge
question
retina
answer
a light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye that receives an image from the lens and sends it to the brain
question
coherent light
answer
light waves that vibrate with constant phase relationships that are produces by a laser or a combination of two prisms
question
laser
answer
a device which emits a focused beam of light
question
parallel circut
answer
a closed circut in which the current divides into two or more paths before recombining to complete the circut
question
resistance
answer
the tendancy for a material to oppose the flow of electrons
question
electroscope
answer
a device used to detect and measure an electric charge
question
ampere
answer
the SI unit of electric charge
question
ohm
answer
the SI unit of electrical current
question
watt
answer
the SI unit of power
question
volt
answer
the unit of electromotive force and electric potential
question
filament
answer
a thin wire conductor in a light bulb
question
series circut
answer
a circut through which the electrical current flows in a single continuous path.
question
kilowatt
answer
a unit of electricity equal to 1,000 watts
question
static electricity
answer
a stationary electric charge that builds up on an insulated object
question
conductor
answer
a substance or medium that allows heat, electricity, light, or sound to pass along it or through it
question
kinetic energy
answer
energy that a body possesses becasue of its motion
question
transformer
answer
a device that changes electrical energy from one alternating circut to another
question
electromagnetic
answer
a soft metal core made into a magnet by the passage of electricity through a coil surrounding it
question
solenoid
answer
a type of electromagnetic constructed so that the core moves, usually linearly, when electricity is passed through it
question
magnetic field
answer
a space surrounding a magnetized body or current-carrying circut
question
aurora
answer
a phenomenon occuring in the night sky around the polar regions, caused by gases in the atmosphere which interact with solar particles
question
compass
answer
a device for finding direction which uses a magnetized needle that automatically swings to the magnetic north
question
magnetic domain
answer
a small, magnetized region of a magnetic surface
question
galvanometer
answer
an instrument used to measure electric current by means of a coil in a magnetic field that moves a pointer or light
question
polarity
answer
the quality or having two oppositely charges poles, one positive and one negative
question
magnet
answer
a piece of metal that has the power to draw iron or steel objects toward it and to hold or move them
question
transmutation
answer
the process that changes one element into another through nuclear delay
question
srong force
answer
the force that holds particles together in a nucleus
question
alpha particle
answer
a positive particle consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons; the nucleus of a helium atom
question
alpha radiation
answer
the least-penetrating type of radiation; can be stopped by a sheet of paper
question
cloud chamber
answer
a device used to detect the movement of high energy particles as they pass through a chamber of supersaturated vapor
question
Geiger counter
answer
a device used to detect and measure radiation
question
beta particle
answer
an electron created by radioactive emission
question
tracer
answer
a radioactive isotope that can be detected by the radiation it emits
question
bubble chamber
answer
a chamber in which the trail of a particle can be observed as a line of bubbles created by a particle
question
chain reaction
answer
a series of nuclear reactions in which neutrons produced by a fission cause more friction
question
displacement
answer
the amount of movement in a particular direction
question
force
answer
a physical influence that tends to change the postion of an object with mass
question
inertia
answer
the tendancy for a body at rest to stay at rest, or a body in motion to stay at motion, unless acted upon by a force
question
friction
answer
resistance encountered by a moving object
question
static friction
answer
resistance between two objects that are in contact but are not moving
question
sliding friction
answer
the frictional resistance an object in motion experiences
question
velocity
answer
the speed at which something moves or happens
question
acceleration
answer
the rate at which something increases in velocity
question
centripetal
answer
moving or pulling toward a center or axis
question
gravity
answer
the force that tends to pull all bodies in Earth's sphere toward the center of the Earth
question
calculus
answer
a branch of mathematics that studies continuously changing quantities
question
air resistance
answer
the force of air pushing against a moving object
question
weight
answer
the gravitational force exerted on a mass
question
momentum
answer
the motion of a body and its resistance to slowing down
question
matter
answer
a substance or material of a particular kind
question
photovoltaic
answer
a photoelectric cell that detects and measure light intensity
question
solar thermal
answer
the use of radiation from the sun to produce heat energy
question
renewable
answer
an unlimited supply or resource
question
fractional distillation
answer
the separation of components from a volatile liquid that have different boiling points
question
turbine
answer
a machine which uses steam or another fluid in motion to move rotation blades; the rotay motion is then turned into electrical or mechanical power
question
generator
answer
a device that converts mechanical energy into electricity
question
biomass
answer
the mass or organisms in the ecosystem, measured in terms of weight per unit of area
question
sedimentary
answer
used to describe ricks formed from eroded material
question
geothermal energy
answer
the heat energy found below the earth's surface
question
fossil fuel
answer
fuel made from decomposed remains of prehistoric plants and animals
question
gamma radiation
answer
high-energy electromagnetic raditation
question
mechanical advantage
answer
the ratio output force to input force for a machine
question
law of conservation of mass
answer
the scientific law which states that mass can be neither created nor destoyed during a chemical reaction, only changed from one form to another
question
decay
answer
to undergo spontaneous disintergration
question
copper
answer
a reddish brown metallic chemical element that bends easily and is a good conductor of electricty and heat
question
aluminum
answer
a light metallic element that is ductile, malleable, and resistant to corrosion
question
focal length
answer
the distance from the center of a lens to the focal point
question
specific heat
answer
the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of substance by one degree
question
photosynthesis
answer
process by which plants use sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to make food; also produces a large part of the oxygen in the atmosphere
question
Linnaeus
answer
system of naming plants and animals
question
nucleus
answer
the part of a cell which contains genetic material
question
carbon dioxide
answer
a nonpoisonous gas created by respiration and by the decomposition of living organisms
question
chloroplasts
answer
structures in the cells of leaves contain chlorophyll
question
endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
answer
a net-like system within the cytoplasm involved in the synthesis, modification, and transportation of cellular materials
question
virus
answer
an organism that causes an infectious disease
question
species
answer
a group of related organisms sharing common characteristics
question
kingdom
answer
the scientific classifications into which organisms are grouped
question
organelles
answer
compartments within cells that perform specific functions; the nucleus, for example
question
mitiosis
answer
the process by which a cell divides
question
meiosis cell
answer
division that produces reproductive cells
question
metaphase
answer
stage of mitosis when the chromosomes line up along the center of the cell
question
anaphase
answer
stage of mitiosis in which the chromosomes begin to separate
question
Punnett square
answer
tool used to show the potential offspring of two parents
question
chromosomes
answer
a structure in the nucleus of a cell composed of DNA and protein
question
phenotype
answer
the observable characteristics of a cell or organism
question
dominent
answer
gene that determines the characteristics in the organism
question
homozygous
answer
having two identical versions of a specific gene
question
heterozygous
answer
possessing two different forms of a specific gene
question
zoologist
answer
a person who specializes in animal life
question
flagellum
answer
a whip-like structure of a cell responsible for cell movement
question
pigment
answer
a naturally occuring substance in a plant thta gives the plant its color
question
bacillus
answer
a rod-shaped bacterium
question
bioremediation
answer
process used to clean up contaminated land using bacteria and organisms to neutralize soil contaminants
question
coccus
answer
a kind of bacterium with a spherical shape
question
fission
answer
the division of a single-celled organism into two equal parts
question
anaerobes
answer
a microorganism that does not require oxygen for growth
question
capsule
answer
structure that allows bacteria to stick to surfaces
question
spirillum
answer
a spiral-shaped bacterium
question
ribosome
answer
an organelle that produces protein in cells
question
cytoplasm
answer
cellular substance which surrounds the nucleus and holds genetic material
question
dinoflagellate
answer
a single-celled organism found in fresh and marine waters with characteristics of both plants and animals
question
fungus
answer
a plant-like organism which does not make chlorophyll
question
protozoan
answer
a single-celled organism that can move and feed on organic compounds
question
mycology
answer
the specialty of studying fungi
question
zygosphere
answer
a plant spore formed by meiosis
question
lichen
answer
a plant that is a combination of a fungus and an agla; commonly grows on trees or rocks
question
protist
answer
single-celled organism which has an eukarotic cell but is not a member of the plant, fungal, or animal kingdoms
question
spore
answer
an asexual reproductive structure which can produce a new organism; fungi, algae, and many other organisms produce spores rather than seeds
question
algae
answer
simple. rootless plants tha grow in water in proportion of availible nutrients
question
chlorophyll
answer
green pigment found in plants, algae, and some bacteria; needed to aid in the process of photosynthesis
question
African sleeping sickness
answer
disease transmitted by the bite of the tsetse fly
question
vascular
answer
relating to plants with tissues that have the ability to carry fluid
question
dicot
answer
flowering plant whose seedlings have two seed leaves; for example, a bean
question
gymnosperm
answer
a plant with bare seeds, as with the pines, where the seeds are attached at the base of the scales in the cone
question
xylem
answer
a type of plant tissue that carries water and dissolved minerals from the roots through the stem and leaves
question
angiosperm
answer
a flowering plant whose seeds have a covering of some kind, such as a pod or a fruit
question
phloem
answer
food-transporting tissue of a plant; also know as the inner bark
question
cone
answer
the seed-bearing part of pines and firs
question
monocot
answer
a flowering plant whose seedling has only one seed leaf; for example, grass
question
cuticle
answer
the waxy, protective layer which covers the stem, leaves, and flowers of many plants and helps provent water loss
question
moss
answer
small, leafy flowerless plant that grows in moist, shaded areas
question
fertilization
answer
the process of reproduction by pollination
question
ovule
answer
small structure in a seed plant that contains the eggs and, when fertilised by pollen , develpoes into seeds
question
stigma
answer
the part of the flower's female reproductive system taht receives the male pollen grains
question
germination
answer
the beginning growth of a seed or spore
question
symbiotic
answer
a close association between two different species in which both species benefit
question
anther
answer
the part of the flower which produces pollen
question
frond
answer
refers to the leaf structure of ferns or palms
question
endosperm
answer
the tissue of a seed containing the nutrients
question
sporophyte
answer
the spore-producing stage in the life cycle of a plant
question
ovary
answer
the lower part of the pistil that contains immature seeds
question
stomata
answer
tiny pore in the outer layer of a plant leaf that regulates the movement of gases(water vapor and others) between the plant and the atmosphere
question
respiration
answer
process by which energy is released by food
question
producer
answer
an organism which makes its own food
question
epidermis
answer
the outside layer of cells on a plant which helps prevent injury
question
mitochondrion
answer
energy-producing cellular organelles found outside the nucleus that convert food to energy
question
tropism
answer
plant growth toward or away from an environmental stimulus such as heat or light
question
stimulus
answer
the cause of physical response in an organism
question
hormones
answer
a regulating chemical in plants
question
vacuole
answer
a space in the cytoplasm of a cell which stores food and fluid
question
cell wall
answer
a tough, rigid structure outside of the cell membrance in plant cells
question
cnidarian
answer
invertebrate water animal which has tentacles
question
omnivores
answer
an animal whose food source consists of both plants and animals
question
herbivores
answer
an animal which feeds only on grass and other plants
question
vertebrate
answer
an animal with a backbone
question
carnivore
answer
an animal that eats other animals
question
polyp
answer
a cnidarian with a cylindrical body
question
medusa
answer
a cnidarian with a transparent, umbrella-shaped body
question
mimicry
answer
plants and animals which closely resemble another species as a form of protection
question
parasite
answer
an organism that lives and feeds on another living organism for competion of its life cycle, and which is typically detrimental to the host
question
symmetry
answer
the characteristic of being the same on both sides of a central dividing line
question
sea anemone
answer
colorful sea animal of the cnidarian family which attaches to rock or other nonliving material
question
sponge
answer
a sessile marine organism with a porous, fiberous skeleton
question
athropods
answer
invertebrate animals that have jointed bodies and jointed limbs
question
metamorphosis
answer
the change which takes place as an animal developes into an adult (tadpole to frog, caterpillar to butterfly)
question
radula
answer
a band of tissue containing rows of small teeth in the mouths of some mollusks
question
echinoderms
answer
a marine invertebrate animal with tube feet and five-part radially symmetrical bodies
question
molting
answer
an athropod's process of shedding an old exoskeleton
question
setae
answer
rigid, bristle-like structures in worms that assist in movement
question
mollusk
answer
an invertebrate with a soft, unsegmented body; usually has a shell
question
spiracles
answer
small opening in an insect along the side of the thorax or abdomen controlling the flow of air into and out of the body
question
appendage
answer
a body part that sticks out from the main part of the body
question
bivalve
answer
a mollusk with a hinged shell; oysters, mussels, and clams are examples
question
gizzard
answer
structure in invertebrates and fish where digestion occurs
question
crop
answer
a pouch in athe digestive tract of an insect or earthworm
question
exoskeleton
answer
gard, protective outer covering of an organism
question
reptile
answer
a cold-blooded animal which breathes air and lays eggs
question
amphibian
answer
a cold-blooded animal that spends time on land but breeds in water
question
endoskeleton
answer
the internal skeleton of an animal
question
cartilage
answer
the tough, elastic tissue in the body
question
mammal
answer
warm-blooded animals who are equipped to nurse their young
question
endotherm
answer
warm-blooded animal which can maintain its body temperature regardless of temperature changes in its environment
question
ectotherm
answer
cold-blooded animal which maintains its body temperature by taking in heat from its environment
question
venom
answer
a poisonous fluid produced and injected by an animal to protect itself or to subdue its prey
question
hibernation
answer
a dormant, sleeplike state accompanied by a very low body temperature and metabolic rate; certain animals fall into this during winter
question
notochord
answer
a rod of cells that supports the body of a chordate
question
scales
answer
bony plates on fish, some reptiles, and mammals
question
larva
answer
immature or early form of an insect, amphibian, or fish
question
down
answer
a covering of soft hair or fluffy feathers
question
manatee
answer
a very large, plant-eating mammal that lives in warm coastal waters
question
monotremes
answer
an egg-laying mammal
question
marsupial
answer
a mammal with a pouch used to carry their immature young
question
gestation
answer
the period of time when the embryo develops in the uterus
question
keratin
answer
fibrous protein found in hair, nails, feathers, and hooves
question
placenta
answer
vascular organ that supplies food and oxygen to the fetus inside the uterus of a pregnant mammal
question
preen
answer
the process birds go through to clean and to rub oil over their feathers
question
circulatory
answer
the body's blood-pumping system
question
contour
answer
contour feathers are the tail and wing feathers, the strong and stiff ones adapted for aerodynamics and speed
question
cyclic
answer
occuring repeatedly during specific intervals of time
question
social
answer
behavior of a species living together in a group
question
imprinting
answer
the early social attachment of animals that results in strong behavioral patterns specific to its own species
question
migration
answer
a cyclical behavior in which a group of animals move together from one region to another
question
pheromone
answer
a scent which is secreted by an animal, influencing behavior and development of other members of the same species
question
instinctive
answer
behavior in which an animal reacts out of a strong natural impulse
question
innate
answer
qualities which are present at birth
question
insight
answer
a learned behavior which allows animals to use past experiences to solve new problems
question
aggression
answer
a territorial behavior exhibited by the threatening actions of one animal to another
question
bioluminescence
answer
the light given off by some organisms such as fireflies
question
territorial
answer
animal tendency to protect an area from intruders of the same species, especially other males
question
tendons
answer
a connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone or other body part
question
dermis
answer
the layer of skin under the epidermis which contains blood, lymph vessels, sweat glands, and nerve endings
question
skeletal system
answer
the system of bones supporting the soft tissue and protecting the internal organs of the body
question
muscle
answer
an elastic tissue that functions to produce movement of body parts and body fluids
question
periosteum
answer
the connective tissue surrounding all bones of the body except those at the joints
question
ligaments
answer
the bands of tough tissue that connect bones or cartilage at a joint or that support an organ or muscle
question
melanin
answer
a dark brown or black pigment found in skin, hair, eyes, fur, or feathers of people, animals, and plants
question
joint
answer
the point at which two or more bones in the body come together
question
bruise
answer
a discoloration of the skin caused by injury to blood vessels
question
voluntary
answer
a controlled response
question
involuntary
answer
an uncontrolled response
question
nutrient
answer
a substance that provides nourishment for the body
question
digestion
answer
the breaking down of food in the body so that it can be used or excreted
question
salivary glands
answer
glands that producce and release digestive juices (saliva) in the mouth
question
carbohydrate
answer
food energy source for humans and animals such as sugar and starch
question
villus
answer
part of the small intestine
question
esophagus
answer
the pathway in the throat through which food moves between the throat and the stomach
question
enzyme
answer
a protein controlling biochemical reactions
question
chyme
answer
a mass of partially digested food and gastric secretions passed from the stomach to the small intestine
question
protein
answer
a food source rich in amino acids
question
peristalsis
answer
involuntary muscle contractions that transport food and waste through a tube-shaped organ such as the intestine
question
calorie
answer
a unit of energy equal to the heat needed to raise the temperature of one kg of pure water by one degree Calcius
question
atrium
answer
one of the upper chambers of the heart
question
ventricles
answer
the lower chambers of the heart
question
lymph
answer
fluid containing the white blood cells
question
pulmonary circulation
answer
the flow of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart
question
plasma
answer
the clear, yellow fluid part of blood
question
tricuspid
answer
a heart valve with three flaps; prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts
question
mitral
answer
a heart valve that lies between the left atrium and left ventricle; prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium when the left ventricle contracts
question
lymphatic
answer
a vessel that transports or contains lymph
question
platelets
answer
colorless cells whose main function is to control bleeding
question
cardiovascular system
answer
the system made up of heart, blood vessels, and blood
question
microscopic
answer
unable to be seen without the aid of a microscope
question
capillaries
answer
the thin blood vessels that connect small arteries with small veins
question
systemic circulation
answer
the circulation of the blood throughout the body
question
hypertension
answer
elevated blood pressure
question
coronary
answer
the arteries and veins that supply blood to and from the muscle tissue of the heart
question
diffusion
answer
the process of distributing nutrients to the cells
question
aorta
answer
the main artery leaving the heart
question
vena cava
answer
main veins leading into the heart
question
blood vessels
answer
tubes that carry blood throughout the body
question
bronchi
answer
the two main air passages leading from the trachea which allow air to move in and out of the lungs
question
urine
answer
the liquid waste product of vertebrates
question
cellular respiration
answer
the process by which glucose is converted into energy
question
alveoli
answer
air sacs in the lung
question
respiratory system
answer
the system of organs that process air in the body, including the nose, throat and lungs
question
asthma
answer
respiratory disease characterized by wheezing and shortness of breath
question
kidneys
answer
the pair of organs responsible for filtering waste liquid in the body
question
trachea
answer
the airway that leads from the larynx to the lungs
question
diaphragm
answer
muscular wall below the rib cage which expands the chest for breathing
question
emphysema
answer
lung disease in which the air sacs are dilated resulting in breathing impairment
question
excretory system
answer
the organs that elimate waste from the body
question
nephrons
answer
small tubes in the kidneys
question
urethra
answer
the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body
question
glucose
answer
a simple sugar which is the main source of energy for the body
question
lobe
answer
a rounded part of an organ, as in the lungs, brain, or liver
question
dialysis
answer
the mechanical filtering of waste products from the blood of a patient whose kidneys are not working properly
question
nervous system
answer
the body system that receives stimuli, decides on their importance, and sends nerve impulses to the organs of action; consists of the central nervous system ( brain and spinal cord) and the peripheral nervous system (all nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord)
question
neurons
answer
cells that transmit nerve impulses and are the basic units of the nervous system
question
axons
answer
the extensions of a nerve cell that transmit impulses outward or away from the cell body
question
dendrites
answer
extensions of a nerve cell that receive electrical signals
question
central nervous system
answer
the control network for the human body; is composed of the brain and spinal cord; one of the two major divisions of the nervous system
question
cerebellum
answer
part of the brain which controls and coordinates muscular activity and balance
question
retina
answer
a light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye which receives an image from the lens and sends it to the brain
question
hammer
answer
tiny bone located in the inner ear
question
brain stem
answer
the part of the brain closest to the spinal cord that controls involuntary functions like breathing and heart rate
question
saliva
answer
liquid secreted into the mouth by the salivary glands which moistens food and begins the breakdown of starches
question
peripheral nervous system
answer
the nerves in the body that lie outside of the brain and spinal cord
question
concave
answer
curved inward
question
convex
answer
curved outward
question
cranial
answer
relating to the skull
question
somatic system
answer
system that controls all voluntary systems within the body with the exception of reflex arcs
question
autonomic system
answer
the part of the nervous system that controls involuntary activity such as the action of the heart, lungs, and intestines
question
olfactory cells
answer
relating to the sense of smell
question
rods
answer
cells in the retina used to detect shape and movement
question
homeostasis
answer
the natural regulatory mechanism of the body
question
taste buds
answer
receptors primarily on the tongue that enable us to detect sweet, salty, sour and bitter
question
endocrine system
answer
the system of glands in the human body which is responsible for producing hormones
question
fraternal
answer
relating to twins that developed from two seperate ova, rather than a single ovum
question
identical
answer
relating to twins that developed from a single ovum in a single placental sac; these twins closely resemble one another
question
amniotic sac
answer
the sac which holds the baby in the uterus; contains the baby, placenta and amniotic fluid
question
reproduction
answer
the production of offspring
question
hormones
answer
produced by the endocrine glands, these substances act as messengers to cells and organs in the body
question
puberty
answer
the state of physical development when sexual reproduction first becomes possible
question
fetus
answer
in mammals, a stage of development in which all organs have formed, from the eighth week after conception until the moment of birth
question
embryo
answer
in mammals, the stage of development from conception to eight weeks
question
thyroid gland
answer
the gland which helps regulate growth and metabolism
question
thymus gland
answer
a gland involved in the development of cells of the immune system
question
pituitary gland
answer
the main gland of the endocrine system
question
pineal gland
answer
small gland responsible for production of melatonin
question
uterus
answer
the organ which holds and nourishes the embryo during development
question
immune system
answer
system that works to seek and kill invaders of the body
question
menstrual cycle
answer
monthly cycle of female hormonal changes from the beginning of one menstrual period to the beginning of the next
question
ovulation
answer
the ripening and release of an egg or eggs from the ovary for possible fertilization
question
scrotum
answer
the pouch of skin and muscle containing the testicles
question
umbilical cord
answer
the cord that carries blood, oxygen, and nutrients from the plancenta to the baby during pregnancy
question
gland
answer
an organ that produces and releases one or more substances for use in the body
question
tonsils
answer
organs at the back of the throat that help the body figh toff viral and bacterial infections
question
antibody
answer
a protein that combines with an antigen and counteracts in its effects
question
allergens
answer
any substance that triggers an allergic reaction
question
immunity
answer
a body's ability to resist a specific disease
question
communicable
answer
easily transmitted from one person to another
question
vector
answer
carrier of an infectious agent; capable of transmitting infection from one host to another
question
antigens
answer
a substance that simulates the production of antibodies
question
chronic illness
answer
a recurring ilness
question
asbestos
answer
a mineral fiber used in the past for fireproofing and insulation; banned by EPA because it was found to cause caner when inhaled
question
the molecules
answer
the smallest parts of matter
question
pathogens
answer
a disease-producing organism
question
chemotherapy
answer
the use of chemical agents to treat cancer and other diseases
question
abiotic
answer
nonliving
question
biotic
answer
living
question
chemosynthesis
answer
the process by which some bacteria use chemicals to provide the energy they need for life
question
evaporation
answer
the process in which a liquid is changed to a vapor without its temperature reaching the boiling point
question
condensation
answer
water droplets that form on cold surface when warmer air comes in contact with it
question
transpiration
answer
the loss of water vapor from a plant's surface
question
precipitaion
answer
the formation of rain, snow, or hail from moisture in the air
question
ecosystems
answer
a community of different species interacting with one another and their environment
question
biomes
answer
an ecological community of organisms and environments
question
taiga
answer
sub-arctic forests located south of a tundra
question
tundra
answer
treeless plain between the ice cap and the timber line that had permanently frozen subsoil
question
wetlands
answer
an area of land, marsh or swamp, where the soil near the surface is covered with water
question
acid rain
answer
rain that has becom acidic from mixing with industrial pollutants in the atmosphere (like oxidated sulphur and nitrogen)
question
recycling
answer
the processing of waste for reuse
question
solar energy
answer
using the sun as an energy source
question
nuclear energy
answer
energy released by nuclear fission or fusion
question
nitrogen cycle
answer
nitrogen circulation between air and plants
question
smog
answer
a mixture of fog and smoke which creates a type of pollution
question
energy pyramid
answer
a pyramid diagram showing the loss of useful energy at each steop in a food chain
question
covalent bonds
answer
chemical bonding where some atoms share electrons to hold a molecule together
question
molecule
answer
term used to describe a group of atoms connected by covalent bonds
question
compound
answer
substance made up of more than one element
question
states of matter
answer
solids, gases, liquids, and plasmas
question
element
answer
substance composed of only one type of atom
question
crystals
answer
solids in which the atoms are arranged in a repeating, orderly pattern
question
streak
answer
property revealed by rubbing a mineral on an unglazed seramic tile to determine the color of the mineral in powdered form
question
luster
answer
term used to describe how a mineral reflects light
question
halite
answer
salt or sodium cholride; colorless or white mineral occuring as cubic crystals
question
mineral properties
answer
luster, streak, hardness, and fracture
question
hardness
answer
strength of the structure of the mineral compared to the strength of its chemical bonds, tested through scratching
question
fracture
answer
one way that a mineral can break; smoothly curved, irregular, jagged, or splintery
question
silicon
answer
nonmetallic element found only as a compound with other elements in nature
question
clevage
answer
another way that a mineral can break; found mainly in crystalline minerals like diamonds which can break in straight planes when struck
question
sediment
answer
particles of eroded rock or other plant or animal matter that are transported and deposited by water, wind, ice, or gravity
question
foliated rock
answer
rock that has a layered appearance, formed or composed of separable layers
question
igneous rock
answer
type of rock formed by intense heat or from solidification of molten magma
question
sedimentary
answer
type of rock formed from eroded material or sediment
question
metamorphic
answer
type of rock characterized by a change in physical form, appearance, or character
question
lava
answer
type of molten rock that comes from a volcano; magma that has reached the surface of earth
question
intrusive rock
answer
type of rock that is formed by being forced into the holes, cracks, or layers of preexisting rocks while in a molten state
question
obsidian
answer
volcanic glass that is formed by rapid cooling of lava and usually black in color; used by early civilizations to make tools and special objects
question
magma
answer
molten rock that is in a liquid state under the earth's crust; forms igneous rock when cooled at earth's surface
question
coal
answer
black or dark brown sedimentary rock used as a fuel; formed by the decompostition of plant material
question
latitude
answer
how far north or south of the equarot a point id on earth's surface
question
prime meridian
answer
imaginary line that runs from north to south though Greenwich, England; at 0 degrees longitude, all other longitudes are figured from this one
question
longitude
answer
the east or west distance between a point on the earth and the prime meridian
question
map projection
answer
a flat map that shows our three-dimensional eath
question
cartography
answer
the study and creation of maps
question
elevation
answer
height of an area, object, or land form on the earth's surface above sea level
question
topographic map
answer
map showing the physical features and elevation of an area
question
coastal plain
answer
flat. low-lying land next to a sea coast
question
plateau
answer
an elevated, mostly level or flat area of land
question
volcano
answer
vent or opening in earth's surface through which molten magma (lava), ash, and gases are released
question
fault-black
answer
mountain formed by the uplift of land between faults or the lowering of land outside of the faults
question
equator
answer
imaginary circle around the surface of earth halfway between the North and South Poles
question
horizons
answer
layers of soil visible in a vertical cross section
question
oxidation
answer
chemical reaction where oxygen is combined with another element or compound to yield a different compund (example: iron + oxygen + rust)
question
carbonation
answer
process where dissolved carbon dioxide in rainwater creates carbonic acid and reacts with minerals in a rock to break it down
question
hydrolysis
answer
process where hydrogen in rainwater reacts with minerals in a rock to break it down
question
abraision
answer
form of weathering that occurs when sand or other small particles transported by air collide with surfaces and break them down
question
chemical weathering
answer
process in which rocks decompose or disintergrate by chemical processes such as oxidation, carbonation, or hydrolysis
question
mechanical weathering
answer
process where rocks are broken down into smaller pieces and their edges are rounded by abrasion, gravity, and freezing water
question
erosion
answer
the wearing away of land surface (soil) or rocks by wind, water, or ice
question
leaching
answer
process by which soil nutrients are carried away by water or washed deeper into the soil
question
limestone
answer
sedimentary rock formed mostly from the calcium carbonate remains of marine animals such as shells; used to make cement and lime
question
terrace farming
answer
transformation of a cary steep slope into usable farmland by creating a series of level steps or terraces; these terraces or steps retain water and keep plants and seeds from washing downhill
question
glacier
answer
very large mass of ice and snow that moves slowly downhill because of its own weight; is an agent of erosion; formed in areas where sonw falls faster than it melts
question
mass movement
answer
downhill movement of earth materials due to gravity
question
creep
answer
form of erosion caused by gravity where uphill particles fall downhill very slowly; form of mass movement
question
mudflow
answer
rapid downward movement of wet soil; form of mass movement
question
slump
answer
mass movement or lanslide where moving earth moves downward in a block or multiple blocks and can create a small upslope in the process
question
subsidence
answer
downward movement of earth
question
beach erosion
answer
the wearing away of a beach by tides, currents, and waves
question
wind erosion
answer
wind action primarily known for smoothing and rounding landscapes as sand and dust carried by wind wear away rocks and land surface
question
loess
answer
windblown, dusty, chalky soil or silt; usually yellowish-brown
question
striatioin
answer
scratch or groove on a rock formed by a glacier or stream
question
deposition
answer
opposite of erosion; also known as sedimentation; sediment which eroded from another location, was transported by wind,water, or ice, and deposited
question
deflation
answer
wind erosion where sand, clay, and silt particles are removed from the land's surface
question
eskers
answer
long, winding ridges of sand and gravel deposited by streams that flows in or under glaciers
question
glacial till
answer
rocks and material left behind by a glacier
question
moraine
answer
new landform crated by the accumulation of rocks, soil, and other debris carried and deposited by a glacier (glacial till)
question
cirque
answer
bowl-shaped valley with steep walls on a mountain eroded by a glacier
question
crust
answer
very thin outer layer of the earth (25 miles under the continents, two to three miles under the oceans); broken into pieces called plates
question
mantle
answer
thickest layer of the earth (about 1800 miles thick); made of hot, dense rock that flows and moves due to temperature differences in the mantle
question
outer core
answer
1800 miles beneath the crust; composed of nickel and iron in a liquid state due to high temperatures
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inner core
answer
very hot (4,000 to 9,000 degrees F) solid center of the earth composed mainly of nickel and iron; solid due to extremely high pressure; about 3200 miles below the earth's surface and about 800 miles thick.
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epicenter
answer
point on the earth's surface directly above the source of an earthquake
question
seismograph
answer
device that detects, measures, and records earthquake vibrations
question
seismologist
answer
scientist who measures and studies earthquakes
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Richter Scale
answer
collection of mathematical formulas that measure the strength of an earthquake; developed by Charles Richter in 1935
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tsunami
answer
huge ocean waves generated after an earthquake at sea where there is a sudden drop or rise of a large section of the ocean floor
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surface wave
answer
vibration from an earthquake that travels along the surface of the earth and can topple buildings during an earthquake
question
body waves
answer
vibration from an earthquake that travels deep within the earth; two types are primary and secondary waves
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primary wave
answer
type of body wave that compresses and expands rock as it travels through the earth
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secondary wave
answer
type of body wave that shakes and twists the earth sideways as it travels; moves at about half the speed of the primary wave
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magnitude
answer
measure of the size or energy of an earthquake
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elasticity
answer
property that alllows a material to bend and change shape
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seismic wave
answer
vibration that travels through the earth, usually due to an earthquake
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liquefaction
answer
process of changing a solid or gas into a liquid
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normal fault
answer
break in the earth's crust where a block of rocks shifts downwards
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strike-flip fault
answer
break in the earth's crust where rocks on either side of the fault split and slide past each other
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plate boundaries
answer
edges of the plates that make up the broken surface of the earth
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volcanic eruption
answer
violent discharge of steam, lava, and ash from a volcano; usually occurs on or near the continental plate boundaries; produces ash, granite and basalt
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sill
answer
flat mass of igneous rock between two layers of older, existing sedimentary rock; mass is usually horizontal
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volcanic neck
answer
massive, crudely cylindrical pillar of rock that was the inside (neck) of a volcano which filled with magma and hardened many years ago; is now exposed due to surface area erosion around the projection
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batholith
answer
huge mass of igneous rock (greater than 40 square miles) with no known bottom; believed to have solidified deep within the earth
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caldera
answer
large bowl-shaped volcanic depression formed at the top of a volcano when the vent collapsed; sometimes filled with water
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Krakatoa
answer
volcano on the Indonesian island of Rakata; has erupted many times throughout history with disastrous consequences
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Hawaiian Islands
answer
islands in the Pacific Ocean; formed in a nearly straight line because the Pacific plate moved very slowly over a hot spot in the Earth's mantle layer
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La Soufriere
answer
volcano on the Caribbean island of Montserrat known for its high levels of silica, a substance potentially hazardous to humans
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Kilauea
answer
youngest volcano on the Big Island of Hawaii; possibly the world's most active volcano with continuous eruptive activity since 1983
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tephra
answer
bits of solidified lava that fall from the air and can be as small as ash or as large as rocks
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Mt. St. Helens
answer
active volcano in Washington state that had a massive eruption in 1980 which produced tremendous amounts of ash
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composite volcanos
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tall, symmetrical, steep-sided volcanoes, also known as stratovolcanoes
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shield volcano
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flat, broad volcano such as Mauna Loa in Hawaii
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Paricutin Volcano
answer
Mexican volcano that appeared first as a crack in a cornfield then eventually produced 10 square miles of lava and buried most of Paracutin and nearby San Juan
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cinder cone
answer
volcanic cone that forms above ground around a vent; is made of cinders (loose volcanic fragments) and bombs (ashes and blobs of congealed lava)
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Pangaea
answer
name given to ancient super-continent consisting of all of earth's masses; theory was proposed by German meteorologist Alfred Wegener in 1915
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continental drift
answer
the gradual movement and formation of continents; idea supported by fossil evidence of same unique plants/animals on multiple continents
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plate tectonics
answer
theory that the earth's surface is broken into plates the size and position of which change over time; this theory supports the continental drift theory
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subduction zone
answer
an area on earth where two tectonic plates meet; one plate slides underneath the other, moves down into the mantle and melts
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fossils
answer
traces or remains of animals or plants from long ago
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lithosphere
answer
crust and the uppermost part of the earth's mantle
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asthenosphere
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lower layer of the mantle that flows and moves the plates of the earth
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ropy lava
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long trails of lava that form spirals
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magnetic reversals
answer
changes in earth's magnetism (evidenced in rods) due to slow movements in earth's liquid outer core; this phenomenon supports the idea that the sea floor is changing and spreading
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convection
answer
material movement in gases and liquids due to density or concentration differences which are often a result of heat
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fossil formation
answer
accomplished by permineralization, carbon film, or molds
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permineralization
answer
the process in which minerals are deposited into a bony fossil
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carbon film
answer
a type of fossil formation normally involving plants where a plant's oils leach out and only a black carbon film remains
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mold
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a type of fossil formation where an organism is buried in mud, clay, or another material which hardens, the organism decays, and an imprint of the organism is left in the hardened material
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rock record
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ancient history recorded in rock layers
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unconfomity
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a boundary seperating two or more rocks of markedly different ages, marking a gap in the geologic period
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index fossils
answer
fossils that existed during limited periods of time; used to determine the age of the rocks in which they are preserved
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carbon dating
answer
dating method that uses carbon-14 to determine the age of the materials
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uniformitarianism
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principle which states that sediments formed in ancient sedimentary rocks were deposited in the same way sediments are deposited today
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superposition
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principle stating that in undisturbed situations, the oldest layers of rock are on the bottom
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fossilized footprints
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evidence of early human ancestors found by Mary Leakey in Africa
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trilobite
answer
extinct marine organism that lived in earth's oceans for more than 200 million years; thought to be ancestor of today's joint-footed organisms; crabs, centipedes, spiders, etc.
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eon
answer
longest block of time in geology
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era
answer
period of time that is a sundivisioin of an eon
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period
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divisioin of an era into smaller time frames
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epoch
answer
division of a period into smaller time blocks
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Precambrian Eon
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time period from the formation of earth up until about 600 million years ago
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Phanerozoic Eon
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time period from 600 million years ago until now
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Paleozoic Era
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time period from about 600 million years ago to 245 million years ago when the super continent pangaea is thought to have been formed and the first fish, land plants, amphibians, and reptiles firs appeared; first era of the Phanerozoic Eon
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Mesozoic Era
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time period from between 245 million years ago to 5 million years ago when dinosaurs, the first birds, and mammals appeared; period ended by mass extinction; second era of the Phanerozoic Eon
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Cenozoic Era
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time period that spans from 65 million years ago until now; the Age of Mammals; the third era of the Phanerozoic Eon
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cyanobacteria
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organism from the Precambrian Eon that contained chlorophyll and contributed oxygen to earth's atmosphere through photosynthesis; created our oldest fossils
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Charles Darwin
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English scientist who wrote the book The Origin of Species (1859) and achieved lastingn fame for his theory of evolution
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evolution
answer
process of change over time
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Tyrannosaurus
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mobile, meat-eating dinosaur from the Jurassic period
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species
answer
group of organisms that normally breed only among themselves
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troposphere
answer
lowest layer of earth's atmosphere; extends from earth's surface up to about 8 miles high
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stratosphere
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atmospheric layer above the troposphere; 9 to 31 miles above the earth
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mesosphere
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layer above the stratosphere; about 31 to 50 miles above the earth
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thermosphere
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outermost layer of earth's atmosphere where gas molecules split apart into ions
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ionosphere
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lower part of the thermosphere; reflects radio waves
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sea breeze
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a breeze that forms when warmer air over the land rises and cooler costal air rushes in to replace it
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atmospheric pressure
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force exerted by the weight of the air; as altitude (height above earth's surface) increases, atmospheric pressure decreases because air is less dense, and vice versa (altitude decreases, pressure increases)
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water cycle
answer
continuous process of moving water from the earth to the atmosphere and back again; evaporation, condesation, precipitation
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ozone layer
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exists in the stratosphere; atmospheric layer of oxygen that exists as ozone and absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation
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jet stream
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fast moving river of air that flows from east to west over North America and directs our weather systems
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trade winds
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strong tropical winds blowing toward low pressure regioins at the equator; the blow from east to west in the Northern Hemisphere
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prevailing westerlies
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winds in the middle latitudes that generally blow opposite the trade winds; primarily responsible for blowing weather patterns across the United States
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doldrums
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areas near the equator where the is little or no wind
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conduction
answer
transfer of heat through materials
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convection
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heat transfer by circulation through a gas or liquid
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radiation
answer
energy or heat carried in waves or rays
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coriolis effect
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curving motion of wind or water caused by the earth's rotation
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chlorofluorocarbons
answer
also know as CFC's; chemical substances once used in refridgeratiors and air conditioners that destroy the ozone layer when they break down
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weather
answer
state of the atmosphere at a specific time and place
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humidity
answer
water vapor in the air
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tornado
answer
severe storm with a violent, rotating column of air that can have wind speeds greater than 150 miles per hour
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tropical storm
answer
organized thunderstorm over tropical waters with winds from 39 to 74 miles per hour; storm winds spin due to earth's rotation
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hurricane
answer
severe tropical storm with sustained winds of 75 miles per hour or more; starts over the ocean and is the most powerful type of storm on earth
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cirrus clouds
answer
high, thin, featherlike clouds of ice crystals
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altocumulus clouds
answer
white or gray medium altitude clouds that usually occur in layers or patches of wavy rounded masses or rolls
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stratus clouds
answer
low, gray, uniform cloud layer that usually covers the sky
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cumulonimbus clouds
answer
thunderstorm cloud that is extremely dense and tall, associated with lightning, thunder, hail and sometimes tornadoes
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dew point
answer
specific temperature when water vapor in the air condenses
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precipitation
answer
water that falls to earth as rain, snow, hail or sleet
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climate
answer
average weather pattern of a region that occurs over many years and is influenced by latitude, ocean currents, mountains, and large bodies of water
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deforestation
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destruction of forests
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greenhouse effect
answer
warming of the earth's atmosphere due primarily to heat trapped by gases such as carbon dioxide, methane and water vapor; deforestation adds to this problem because it removes trees that would have removed carbon dioxide from the air and reduced the greenhouse effect
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El Nino
answer
weather pattern usually occurring every 3 to 5 years when abnormally warm surface waters occur in the Pacific Ocean near Peru
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Gulf Stream
answer
warm ocean current that flows from the Gulf of Mexico along the east coast of the U.S. and northeast across the Atlantic Ocean
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desalinization
answer
process of removing salt from water
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upwelling
answer
upward motion of cold, dense, nutrient-rich water toward the surface
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continental shelf
answer
shallow bottom just offshore of most continents between the beach (edge of the water) and a sharp underwater drop-off where the bottom plunges steeply
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wavelength
answer
distance from crest to crest of a wave
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current
answer
stream of water that moves horizontally in the ocean
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ocean pollution
answer
major causes include: 1) toxic (poisonous) trash and chemicals that get into our food chain, 2) oil, primarily occurring as runoff from the land, and 3) dangerous debris like plastics that can entangle animals and harm marine life when eaten
question
tides
answer
the daily, regular rise and fall of the ocean waters due to the moon's gravitational pull on the earth
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benthic organisms
answer
bottom-dwellers in a body of water
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plankton
answer
minute animals and plants that are free-floating and unable to swim against currents
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nekton
answer
water animals that are active swimmers and capable of swimming against a current; not plankton
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estuary
answer
wide part of a river where it joins the sea; fresh and salt water mix here
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food chain
answer
a hierarchy of living things (animals and plants) where each level is dependent on the next for its nourishment
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ocean waves
answer
as water molecules in a wave move up and down in a circular pattern, the energy of the wave moves toward the shore; friction with the bottom slows the wave as it nears the shore
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sting ray
answer
fish with a flattened body and a long, narrow whip-like tail with a venomous stinger; can inflict severe wounds
question
jellyfish
answer
free-swimming sea animal with a bell-shaped, jelly-like body and stinging tenticles
question
pH
answer
a measure of acidity or alkalinity
question
acidity
answer
acidity of a water sample is determined by titrating it with a strong base (eg, NaOH) to a defined pH; pH less than 7
question
alkalinity
answer
a pH of more than 7; the solution is considered base or alkali
question
neutral
answer
a pH of about 7
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detergent
answer
a man-made chemical cleanser
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sewage
answer
filthy waste from household or industrial sources that is carried away in drains
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scrubber
answer
a filter or purifier that removes impurities (particles and contaminants) from the air
question
pollution
answer
something that contaminates our environment; can even be clean water that is too warm if it is drained into cool water and changes the habitat of animals there
question
acid rain
answer
rain drops that have a pH of less than 5.6 because they have mixed with pollutants such as sulfur or nitrogen; can affect animals such as snails and birds by removing calcium from their habitat (calcium is needed to make snail shells and bird eggs)
question
particulates
answer
tiny, solid particles such as dust, ash, soot, or pollen that are released into and move around in the air
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smog
answer
polluted or dirty fog caused mainly by cars
question
photochemical smog
answer
brown haze that contains ozone and blankets a city when car and truck exhaust react with sunlight
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fertilizer
answer
natural or man-made plant nutrient added to enhance plant growth; can cause problems (such as excessive algae growth) in streams or ponds if too much fertilizer runs off of yards or farms
question
Clean Water Act of 1977
answer
Federal government regulation to restore and maintain the health and integrity of our nation's waters; requires communities to treat sewage before releasing it into a river
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sulfur dioxide
answer
air pollutant formed when fuel containing sulfur is burned; a colorless, irritating gas that contributes to formation of acid rain
question
inversion
answer
thermal inversion: when a layer of warm air lies over cooler air near the ground, trapping pollutants
question
electrostatic separator
answer
a machine used to separate substances by using electrical charges
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Cuyahoga River
answer
river located in northeast Ohio; when a layer of oil and debris (pollution) on its surface caught fire in 1969, our nation pain attention; concern over pollution causing the fire led to the Clean Water Act of 1977
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carrying capacity
answer
maximum population that the environment can support without negative effects
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sanitary landfill
answer
environmentally safe method of waste disposal where a landfill has a waterproof liner and is covered daily to keep harmful materials from entering the air and soil
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recycle
answer
to use a resource again
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20th century
answer
1900 through 1999
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world population
answer
total number of humans alive on the planet earth at a given time; the last 70 years of the 20th century saw the biggest increase in the world's population in human history
question
hazardous waste
answer
solid, liquid, or gaseous material that is discarded and can harm people, animals or the environment; requires special disposal
question
phytoremediation
answer
use of plants to clean up polluted sites, usually by absorbing contaminants through their roots
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compost
answer
way to recycle organic matter; by using natural processes, organic matter decomposes and becomes nutrient-rich soil builder
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pollutant
answer
any substance that harms the environment when it mixes with soil, water or air
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per capita
answer
per person
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telescope
answer
an astronomical tool used to see distant objects such as those in space; first invented by Galileo in 1610
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Sputnik
answer
first artificial satellite; put into Earth's orbit in 1957 by the Soviets; led to creation of NASA and the race to the moon
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Hubble Space Telescope
answer
a telescope orbiting the Earth; its position outside the earth's atmosphere allows it to take sharp optical images of very faint objects
question
satellite
answer
object that revolves around a planet
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moon
answer
natural satellite of Earth
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orbit
answer
the path that an object makes around another object
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Apollo
answer
U.S. space program that included 6 piloted moon landings between 1969 and 1972
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Saturn rocket
answer
rockets developed for the Apollo program to launch heavy payloads to Earth's orbit and beyond
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Voyager space probes
answer
two unmanned space probes: Voyager I and Voyager 2; launched in 1977; sent to study Jupiter and Saturn, went on to Uranus and Neptune, and then into the outer solar system
question
Spirit & Opportunity
answer
twin robotic exploration rovers developed by NASA and sent to Mars in January 2003; these computers on wheels make observations and report them to NASA
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Yuri Gagarin
answer
Soviet cosmonaut (astronaut) who was the first human in space (1961)
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John Glenn
answer
first U.S. man to orbit Earth (1962)
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Neil Armstrong
answer
first man to walk on the moon (1969); an American
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electromagnetic spectrum
answer
entire range of electromagnetic radiation including: radio, microwave, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-ray, and gamma ray radiation
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space shuttle
answer
reusable spacecraft that can carry a payload into orbit then return to Earth with its crew
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space station
answer
permanent laboratory and exploration platform in space
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solar eclipse
answer
the name of the event when the moon comes directly in between Earth and the sun and interrupts the light from the sun
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elliptical
answer
having an oval shape, rounded like an egg
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meteor
answer
a piece of rock or metal that enters Earth's atmosphere but usually burns up before reaching Earth's surface
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Gibbous moon
answer
descriptive name for the moon when it is between a full moon and a half moon (more than half of the moon's surface is visible)
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equinox
answer
either of two days, usually March 21st or September 23rd, when daylight and darkness are about equal because the sun is directly over the Earth's equator
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axis
answer
an imaginary straight line about which Earth rotates
question
solstice
answer
one of two times during the year when the sun reaches its greatest distance from the equator during Earth's orbit, yielding the longest and shortest days of the year
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SOHO mission
answer
joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA (US space agency) to investigate the sun
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penumbra
answer
term used to describe the partial shadow that occurs during a lunar eclipse
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North Pole
answer
region of Earth that is a magnetic field because of Earth's rotation; magnetism causes a compass to point north
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asteroids
answer
chunks of rock, pieces of planets, or small planets that primarily orbit the sun in an "asteroid belt" between Mars and Jupiter
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Johannes Kepler
answer
German astronomer best known for his laws of planetary motion
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Mercury
answer
planet nearest the sun; smallest of the inner planets with no atmosphere and no moons
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Venus
answer
2nd planet from the sun; its atmosphere of mostly carbon dioxide traps heat from the surface, producing very high temperatures that lead to the Greenhouse effect on that planet
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Earth
answer
3rd planet from the sun; the planet we live on
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Mars
answer
4th planet from the sun, appears red due to iron oxide (rust) on its soil
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Jupiter
answer
5th planet from the sun, largest in our solar system with a Great Red Spot; has faint dust rings (that Voyager found) and many moons that include Europa, Ganymede, Callisto and Lo; Lo has active volcanoes
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Saturn
answer
6th planet from the sun with large rings made mainly of ice and rock
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Uranus
answer
7th planet from the sun, unusual because its axis is parallel to the plane of its orbit, not perpendicular like other planets
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Neptune
answer
8th planet from the sun; methane gives Neptune its blue cloud color
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Pluto
answer
9th planet from the sun; recently reclassified as a dwarf planet; Pluto is unusual in its orbit, some parts of Pluto's orbit are inside of Neptune's
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planet
answer
a body in orbit around the sun
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inner planets
answer
the small, rocky planets that orbit closest to the sun including Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars
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outer planets
answer
planets that orbit far from the sun including Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto
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light year
answer
the distance traveled by a ray of light in one year
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nebula
answer
a cloud of gas and/or dust in space
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Sun
answer
medium size star that is at the center of our solar system; innermost layer is the core, then the photosphere, the chromosphere, and the corona
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sunspot
answer
cooler dark spots on the photosphere of the sun; created when magnetic fields stop the circulation of gases
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solar prominence
answer
a large bright feature in the solar corona also influenced by magnetic fields
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magnitude
answer
term used to describe the measure of a star's brightness
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absolute magnitude
answer
measurement of the brightness of a star as if it were a set distance away; allows overall brightness of objects to be compared without regard to distance from the earth
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Milky Way
answer
the spiral galaxy to which our sun and solar system belong
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supernova
answer
explosion caused when a massive star dies and collapses; rare, short-lived phenomenon that throws out vast amounts of energy into space; some so bright that they could be seen even in the middle of the day
question
fusion
answer
star's energy source (in its core) where fusion of hydrogen to helium occurs
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black hole
answer
a completely collapsed dead star with a massive gravitational field so powerful that not even light can escape it
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white dwarf
answer
a "tiny" collapsed star about the size of a planet near the end of its nuclear fusion period; white and very hot
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neutron star
answer
a dense ball made up almost entirely of neutrons that remains after a supernova has exploded the rest of the star; extremely dense and more massive than our sun
question
Big Bang Theory
answer
a theory of universe creation that assumes our universe began about 20 billion years ago with a super-powerful explosion
Bacterial Cell Wall
Boiling Point Of Water
Decision Support Systems
Gram Negative Cells
Microbiology
Occupational Safety And Health Administration
Three Domains Of Life
Reading Notes 1 – Flashcards 81 terms

Tiffany Hanchett
81 terms
Preview
Reading Notes 1 – Flashcards
question
microbe |
answer
an organism or virus too small to be seen with the unaided human eye. |
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virus |
answer
a non-cellular particle containing a genome that can replicated only inside a cell |
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prokaryote |
answer
an organism whose cell or cells lack a nucleus: includes both bacteria and archaea. |
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eukaryote |
answer
an organism whose cells contain a nucleus and is a member of the domain Eukarya. |
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genome |
answer
the complex genetic content of an organism. The sequence of all the nucleotides in a haploid set of chromosomes. |
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metagenome |
answer
the sum of genomes of a community of organisms. |
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spontaneous generation |
answer
the theory, much debated in the 19th century, that under current Earth conditions life can arise spontaneously from nonliving matter. |
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fermentation |
answer
the production of ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation, using organic compounds as both electron donors and electron acceptors. |
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autoclave |
answer
device that uses pressurized steam to sterilize material by raising the temperature above the boiling point of water at standard pressure. |
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germ theory of disease |
answer
the theory that many diseases are caused by microbes. |
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chain of infection |
answer
the serial passage of a pathogenic organism from an infected individual to an uninfected individual, thus transmitting disease. |
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pure culture |
answer
a culture containing only a single strain or species of microorganism. A large number of microorganisms all descended from a single individual. |
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colony |
answer
a visible cluster of microbes on a plate, all derived from a single founding microbe. |
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petri dish |
answer
a round dish with vertical walls covered by an inverted dish of slightly large diameter. The smaller dish can be filled with a substrate for growing microbes. |
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Koch's postulates |
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Four criteria that should be met for a microbe to designated the causative agent of an infectious disease. |
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agar |
answer
a polymer of galactose that is used as a gelling agent. |
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immunity |
answer
resistance to a specific disease. |
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vaccination |
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exposure of an individual to a weakened version of a microbe to provoke immunity and prevent development of disease upon reexposure. |
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immunization |
answer
the stimulation of an immune response by deliberate inoculation with a weakened pathogen, in hopes of providing immunity to disease caused by the pathogen. |
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immune system |
answer
an organism’s cellular defense system against pathogens. |
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antiseptic |
answer
chemical that kills microbes. |
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aseptic |
answer
free of microbes. |
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antibiotic |
answer
a molecule that can kill or inhibit the growth of selected microorganisms. |
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polyphyletic |
answer
having multiple evolutionary origins. |
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monophyletic |
answer
diverging from a common ancestor. |
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virus |
answer
a non-cellular particle containing a genome that can replicated only inside a cell. |
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virion |
answer
a virus particle. |
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capsid |
answer
the protein shell that surrounds a virion's nucleic acid. |
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bacteriophage |
answer
a virus that infects bacteria. |
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plaque |
answer
a cell-free zone on a lawn of bacterial cells caused by viral lysis. |
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host range |
answer
the species that can be infected by a given pathogen. |
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cloning vectors |
answer
a small genome that can carry specific genes for cloning. |
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viriod |
answer
an infectious naked nucleic acid |
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reading frames |
answer
the position in a nucleic acid sequences from which triplet codons encode amino acids. |
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prion |
answer
an infectious agent that causes propagation of misfolded host proteins; usually consists of a defective version of the host protein. |
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supernova |
answer
an exploding star that has used up most of the nuclei available for fusion reactions. |
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biosphere |
answer
the region containing the sum total of all life on Earth. |
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greenhouse effect |
answer
the trapping of solar radiation heat in the atmosphere by CO2. |
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Hadean eon |
answer
the first eon of Earth’s existence from 4.5 to 3.8 gigayears before the present. |
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Archaean eon |
answer
the second eon of Earth's existence. from 3.8 to 2.5 gigayears before the present. The earliest geological evidence for life dates to this eon. |
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microfossils |
answer
a microscopic fossil in which calcium carbonate deposits have filled in the form of ancient microbial cells. |
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isotope ratio |
answer
the ratio of amounts of two different isotopes of an element. May serve as a biosignature if the ratio between certain isotopes of a given element is altered by biological activity. |
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banded ion formation (BIFs) |
answer
a geological formation consisting of layers of oxidized iron, which indicates formation under oxygen-rich conditions. |
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abiotically |
answer
produced without living organisms; occurring in the absence of life |
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RNA world |
answer
a model of early life in which RNA perfomed all the information and catalytic roles of today’s DNA and proteins. |
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prebiotic soup |
answer
a model for the origin of life based on the abiotic formation of fundamental biomolecules and cell structures such as membranes out of a “soup” of nutrients present on early Earth. |
question
metabolist model |
answer
a model of early life in which the central components of intermediary metabolism arose from self-sustaining chemical reactions based on inorganic chemicals. |
question
ribozymes |
answer
an RNA capable of enzymatic reactions. |
question
panspermia |
answer
the hypothesis that life-forms originated elsewhere and “seeded” life on Earth. |
question
clades/monophyletic group |
answer
a group of organisms that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendents. |
question
reductive evolution |
answer
the loss of mutation of DNA encoding unselected traits. |
question
molecular clock |
answer
the use of DNA or RNA sequence information to measure the time of divergence among different species. |
question
small subunit rRNA (SSU rRNA) |
answer
in bacteria, 16S rRNA. A ribosomal RNA found in the small subunit of the ribosome. Its gene is often sequenced for phylogenetic comparisons. |
question
phylogenic tree |
answer
a diagram depicting estimates of the relative amounts of evolutionary divergence among different species. |
question
root of a tree |
answer
the earliest common ancestor of all members of a phylogenetic tree. |
question
horizontal gene transfer |
answer
the passage of genes from one cell into another mature cell. |
question
vertical gene transfer |
answer
gene transfer from parent to offspring through reproduction. |
question
genomic islands |
answer
a region of DNA sequence whose properties indicate that it has been transferred from another genome. Usually comprises a set of genes with shared function, such as pathogenicity or symbiosis support. |
question
pan-genome |
answer
all the genes possessed by all individual members of species. |
question
core genome |
answer
a set of genes shared by a group of related bacterial strains, showing stable inheritance. |
question
taxonomy |
answer
the description of distinct life-forms and their organization into different categories. |
question
classification |
answer
the recognition of different forms of life and their placement into different categories. |
question
nomenclature |
answer
the naming of different taxonomic groups of organisms. |
question
identification |
answer
the recognition of the class of a microbe isolated in pure culture. |
question
species |
answer
a single, specific type of organisms designated by a genus and species name. |
question
genus name |
answer
the Latin name assigned to the taxonomic rank consisting of closely related species. |
question
species name |
answer
the scientific name of a specific type of organism; presented following the genus names as in Escherichia (genus) coli (species). |
question
isolate |
answer
a microbe that has been obtained from a specific location and grown in pure culture. |
question
candidate species |
answer
a newly described microbial isolate that may become accepted as an official species. |
question
metagenomics |
answer
the study of community genomes, or metagenomes. |
question
dichotomous key |
answer
a tool for identifying organisms, in which a series of yes/no decisions successively narrows down the possible categories of species. |
question
probabilistic indicator |
answer
a means of quickly identifying microbes in the clinical setting, based on a battery of biochemical tests performed simultaneously on an isolated strain. |
question
symbiosis |
answer
the intimate association of two unrelated species. |
question
mutualism |
answer
a symbiotic relationship in which both partners benefit. |
question
parasitism |
answer
a symbiotic relationship un which one member benefits and the other is harmed. |
question
coevolution |
answer
the evolution of two species in response to one another. |
question
endosymbiosis |
answer
an intimate association between different species in which one partner population grows within the body of another organism. |
question
endosymbiont |
answer
an organism that lives as a symbiont inside another organism. |
question
symbiogenesis |
answer
an evolutionary process by which two or more species become intimately associated. |
question
biosignatures |
answer
a chemical indicator of life. |
question
terraforming |
answer
the idea transforming the environment of another planted to make it suitable for life from Earth. |
Decision Support Systems
Marketing
Principles Of Marketing
Satisfy Customer Needs
Sports Marketing
Sustainable Competitive Advantage
MKT 327 Final – Flashcards 83 terms

Linda Lynch
83 terms
Preview
MKT 327 Final – Flashcards
question
Which of the following activities is associated with the strategic framework stage of the marketing planning process? positioning S.W.O.T. target market analysis marketing mix plan marketing control process
answer
positioning
question
Match the following elements of the information foundation with the basic strategic questions that they address.
answer
target market analysis-is organization on code situation analysis & SWOT-is organization on course competitor & SWOT-can organization compete
question
Which of the following elements of a typical marketing information system tends to deal with the analysis and presentation of information as opposed to the collection and analysis of information? A) knowledge management. B) marketing research. C) marketing or competitive intelligence. D) Decision support systems.
answer
decision support systems
question
Which of the analysis procedures below (that are part of the marketing information foundation) provide insights for potential customers and the market at large? situation analysis target market analysis S.W.O.T. analysis competitor analysis marketing audit
answer
target market analysis
question
Sectors of society are to macro marketing as which of the following is to micro marketing.
answer
organizations and customers
question
Which of the following statements defines relationship marketing?
answer
Linking the organization to the individual customers, employees, suppliers, and other partners for their mutual long-term benefits.
question
Which of the following is a step in executing a situation analysis A) Segmentation Analysis B) Analyze Macro-market C) Environmental Scanning D) Establish a Competitor's Profile
answer
environmental scanning
question
A company's long-term plan for using resources to pursue goals and objectives in competitive arenas is called:
answer
strategy
question
Which of the following steps in a strategic marketing plan is part of the information foundation? Positioning Pricing Plan Control Process S.W.O.T. Analysis
answer
SWOT analysis
question
Which of the following is an element of a Business Portfolio model? A) Market Development B) Penetration C) Cash Cow D) Positioning
answer
cash cow
question
Marketing performs its most essential role at three broad levels macro, micro, and personal. At the macro level marketing serves as which of the following? A) social mechanism. B) business function. C) profit center. D) strategic business unit.
answer
social mechanism
question
What is the last step in an Environmental Scan?
answer
project trends
question
Which of the following statements defines marketing (or managerial marketing)?
answer
The activity for creating and delivering offerings that benefit the organization, its stakeholders, and society.
question
Which of the following statements defines a market? (select all that are correct)
answer
A collection of individuals or organizations with a common need, and the desire and ability (in terms of accessibility or affordability) to satisfy that need. A location (physical or virtual) where buyers encounter sellers for the purpose of viewing and/or selling their goods or services.
question
Profiling and naming a group of consumers with similar demographic and psychographic characteristics is the _________ step in an _______________ analysis.
answer
2nd; segmentation
question
One part of the statement defining the essence of marketing refers to the formation of community, connections, and relationships. Which of the following terms involves the marketing activities directed at achieving these objectives? A) market creation. B) market penetration. C) commercialization. D) relationship marketing.
answer
market creation
question
How does marketing perform its most essential role at the macro level?
answer
the universal marketing functions
question
Which of the following refers to a group of individuals, groups, or organizations that are integrated within a dynamic network of environmental cause and effect activities that share purpose and proximity? A) connections. B) community. C) channels. D) markets.
answer
community
question
A management information system is the process of defining a marketing problem and/or opportunity, then systematically collecting and analyzing information, and recommending actions.
answer
false
question
Which of the statements below defines a S,W.O.T. Analysis A) An analysis process that acquires information on organization's environment and capabilities B) Competitive strategy. C) General marketing Strategy. D) Positioning
answer
An analysis process that acquires information on organization's environment and capabilities
question
Which of the following is NOT a step of the marketing strategy process? target marketing licensing situational analysis marketing mix decisions positioning
answer
licensing
question
Satisfaction is exclusively a function of the product's performance and quality.
answer
false
question
Which of the following is correct with regards to needs and wants? A) Wants produce needs. B) Demand produces wants and needs. C) Wants satisfy needs. D) None of the above.
answer
wants satisfy needs
question
In most cases the Target Market Analysis process should end (its last step) with which of the following? A) Segmentation Analysis B) Psychographic factors C) Positioning D) Consumer Analysis
answer
segmentation analysis
question
The role or purpose of Marketing in a firm is defined by which of the following? Consumer Orientation. Marketing Mix. Marketing Concept. Strategic Plan.
answer
marketing concept
question
Which of the following is true with regard to channels? Channels are needed because of market discrepancies Distribution channels add to the price of goods, but they also provide value Distribution channels can be direct or reverse All of the above are true
answer
all are true
question
Which of the following is the best example of a homogeneous shopping good? A) Soft Drinks B) Restaurants C) Music D) Under garments
answer
under garments
question
______ is what happens when a company attempts to capture each of its targeting segments with a unique marketing strategy. A) Positioning B) Differentiation C) Sales orientation D) Segmentation
answer
differentiation
question
The coordination of advertising, sales promotion, personal selling, public relations, and sponsorship is part of which concept? Value Chain Promotion Integrated marketing communications Positioning
answer
integrated marketing communications
question
The Purpose of a Segmentation Analysis is to do which of the following? A) Discover customer wants and needs B) Insure marketing plan is competitive C) Insure marketing plan is on code D) None of the above
answer
none
question
Which of the following would not be part of the total price concept? Money Contractual Terms Effort Time Spent
answer
contractual terms
question
Which alternative below is a true statement regarding positioning, segmentation, and integrated marketing communications? A) These decisions are tactical in nature B) These are strategic framing decisions C) Alternatives A and B are both correct D) Alternatives A and B are both incorrect
answer
strategic framing decisions
question
Which of the following is NOT considered a classification of consumer products? operating unsought emergency convenience specialty
answer
operating
question
At what stage of the product life cycle do sales generally grow at a slow rate? Introduction Growth Maturity Decline None of these answers are correct
answer
Introduction
question
Which of the following is a role of pricing over and beyond the recovering of costs associated with a product or service? Establish Value Become a Competitive Advantage Achieve Positioning All of the above are pricing roles
answer
All
question
Which of the following would be a price orientation? Skimming Demand Marketing Cost
answer
marketing
question
Which of the following best describes what product classification is? A) defines how consumers purchase products and how they use those products. B) defines the role product oriented decisions play in the overall marketing strategy. C) defines the assets linked with the brand name and symbol of a product. D) None of the above.
answer
defines the role product oriented decisions play in the overall marketing strategy.
question
Which of the following pricing decisions specifies the overall impact the price of the product or service will have on the firm's strategic positioning? Objectives Strategies Tactics Orientation
answer
objectives
question
A company is considering which of several groups of with common needs to focus its marketing efforts on. Which of the strategic framing decisions is it executing? A) Segmentation B) Competitive strategy. C) General marketing Strategy. D) Positioning
answer
segmentation
question
A company is aggresively marketing a shopping product (could be homogeneous or heterogeneous). Which of the following should be the focus of its 'skeleton plan' in terms of promotional efforts? A) Awareness B) Trial C) Differentiation D) Uniqueness
answer
differentiation
question
Which of the following is not an aspect of demand? increase the number of buyers increase the desire of buyers increase the satisfaction level of buyers decrease the number of competitors in the market place constantly changing.
answer
decrease the number of competitors in the market place
question
All of the following are true regarding how Product Classification and Life Cycle help marketers EXCEPT for which one? They provide blueprints for marketing strategies They provide the key mechanisms for creating value. They help improve marketing efficiency They help define tactical actions for various situations
answer
they help improve marketing efficiency
question
Which of the following is true of a General Marketing Strategy it frames who will be targeted it frames the needs, wants and meanings to be marketed it frames the marketing mix actions to achieve desired position it frames the marketing mix actions to defend desired position
answer
it frames the marketing mix actions to achieve desired position
question
In which of the following stages of the buyer decision making process does the customer realize value? A) Problem Recognition B) Information Search C) Evaluation D) Post Purchase Decision
answer
Post Purchase Decision
question
Which of the following best defines the term 'customer perceive value', or just customer value? A) Buyer's benefits at a specified price B) A cluster of benefits that an organization promises to its customers C) The affordability and accessibilty of a specified product or service. D) The main underlying motivating factor underlying a customer's purchase decision
answer
Buyer's benefits at a specified price
question
Which of the following steps in a strategic marketing plan is part of the Tactical section? Positioning Integrating Marketing Mix Control Process S.W.O.T. Analysis
answer
Positioning, Control Process
question
Which of the analysis procedures below (that are part of the marketing information foundation) provide insights for the environment? situation analysis target market analysis S.W.O.T. analysis competitor analysis marketing audit
answer
situation analysis
question
The creation of value through satisfaction and loyalty helps marketing form connections at which level? A) Macro. B) Micro. C) Societal. D) None of the Above.
answer
micro
question
Which of the following is defined as the process of developing and maintaining a crucial fit between the organization's goals and capabilities and its changing marketing opportunities. Benchmarking SWOT analysis Market segmentation Strategic planning Diversification
answer
strategic planning
question
All of the managerial marketing tasks below are part of the market creation activities except for which one? Creating Physical connections delivering value Discovering needs and wants Creating Community
answer
delivering value
question
Which of the following is an analysis process that is part of a marketing plan's information foundation as opposed to a strategic framing decision? A) Buyer Behavior B) Positioning C) Segmentation Analysis D) Product Classification
answer
buyer behavior
question
Which of the statements below defines a strategic marketing plan or process? A) An organization's long-term course of action that delivers a unique customer experience while achieving its goals. B) A statement of an organization's function in society. C) An approach whereby an organization allocates its marketing mix resources to reach its target markets. D) A road map for the marketing activities of an organization for a specified future time period.
answer
An approach whereby an organization allocates its marketing mix resources to reach its target markets.
question
The marketing mix consists of four elements, commonly referred to as the "Four P's" They are: price, product, promotion and perspective. packaging, promotion, price and personnel. product, price, promotion and place. promotion, product, personnel, packaging. product, perspective, promotion, price.
answer
product, price, promotion and place.
question
Which of the following terms refers to the process by which a person selects the information they obtain, or retain? A) Culture B) Learning C) Information Processing D) Perception
answer
Perception
question
Which of the following is NOT an element of a marketing plan? situation analysis positioning target marketing integrating the marketing mix manufacturing
answer
manufacturing
question
Selling products and generating a profit is the essence of marketing. A) True B) False
answer
false
question
In the knowledge generation continuum information directly generate knowledge. A) True B) False
answer
false
question
Which of the analysis procedures below that are part of the marketing information foundation provide insights for whether organization is on course?(select all answers that apply) situation analysis target market analysis S.W.O.T. analysis competitor analysis marketing audit
answer
situation analysis, S.W.O.T. analysis
question
The process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, goods, and services to create exchanges defines which of the following? A) a marketing orientation. B) marketing management. C) Satisfaction. D) marketing effectiveness.
answer
marketing management.
question
Which of the following terms refers to the ability of the company to provide products that satisfy customer needs and wants? being on course having correct content being able to compete being on code being customer oriented
answer
being on code
question
Which of the following statement defines a tactical implementation plan? A writen document describing company marketing objectives and how to broadly achieve them in light of competitive activities. statement of an organizational operating philosophy A written document for a SBU providing guidelines for achieving desired strategic position and creating customers. a short-term plan for actions and reactions to specific market conditions for how each part of the controllable marketing variables will be used to achieve the stategic marketing plan goals
answer
a short-term plan for actions and reactions to specific market conditions for how each part of the controllable marketing variables will be used to achieve the stategic marketing plan goals
question
Which of the following is a component of satisfaction? A) Cognitive. B) Affective. C) Product Quality. D) Product Performance.
answer
product performance
question
Marketing performs its most essential role at three broad levels macro, micro, and personal. At the macro level marketing serves as which of the following? A) social mechanism. B) business function. C) profit center. D) strategic business unit.
answer
social mechanism
question
A company is competing in a somewhat profitable industry where sales over the last 3 years has been 12%, 18%, and 24%. Three firms entered the industry last year and three more are expected this year. This industry would be categorized in which stage of the product life cycle? A) Introduction B) Growth C) Maturity D) Decline
answer
growth
question
Which of the following decisions considers trade shows, display booths, and contests? Sales Promotion Personal Selling Advertising Public Relations
answer
sales promotion
question
Which section of the product life cycle is your product most likely in assuming that you are a brand manager for a Proctor and Gamble product, your product's sales are beginning to grow, and the product still has not earned a profit? Introduction Commercialization Maturity Decline
answer
introduction
question
Which of the following statements best defines the concept of demand management? Selecting which aspect of demand (the number of buyers, there desire to buy, their physical ability to buy, or their financial ability to buy) the firm should focus on. how a firm will allocate Its resources to protect its weaknesses and/or exploit its strengths a �bare bones� outline of the tactical portion of a detailed marketing plan. the number of people with the desire to satisfy a discovered need with particular want; and who also have the ability to satisfy that want.
answer
Selecting which aspect of demand (the number of buyers, there desire to buy, their physical ability to buy, or their financial ability to buy) the firm should focus on.
question
Reminder Advertising would be defined as which of the following? messages designed to call attention to specific characteristics of product experienced by the user messages designed to provide data that consumers can store for later use messages that keep product at the forefront of the consumer's mind messages designed to change consumers' attitudes and opinions
answer
messages that keep product at the forefront of the consumer's mind
question
A company using a leader-customer intimacy competitive strategy might be expected to invest in a customer relationship management system. True False
answer
true
question
Because it is difficult to successfully appeal to all market segments, companies often select certain segments for emphasis, this process is called which of the following terms? Positioning Focusing Target marketing Sales maximization
answer
target marketing
question
The purpose of Advertising is: Inform consumers with messages that provide information for later use. Persuade by changing consumers attitudes and opinions. Remind consumers about products. Reinforce to encourage repeat purchasing. All of these answers are correct.
answer
all of the above
question
All of the following are true regarding how Product Classification and Life Cycle help marketers except for which one? They provide blueprints for marketing strategies They provide the key mechanisms for creating value. They help improve marketing efficiency They help define tactical actions for various situations
answer
They help improve marketing efficiency
question
Competitive Intensity is an information need for a step in which of the following analyses? A) Competitor Analysis B) S.W.O.T. Analysis C) Environmental Scanning D) Segmentation Analysis
answer
environmental scanning
question
Which of the following stages in the product life cycle involves building the brand name, adding distributors and creating product extensions and options? Introduction Growth Maturity Decline None of these answers are correct
answer
growth
question
The product life cycle has four stages. Which of the following is NOT one of those stages? Shake out Introduction Growth Maturity Decline
answer
shake out
question
According to class lecture, which of the following is a condition of an attractive market segment? A) Segments are agreeable B) Segments are functional C) Segments are substantial D) All of the above
answer
segments are substantial
question
The number of locations, where a product or service is available in a given market is addressed by which of the following channel decisions? Channel Organization Channel Structure Channel Intensity None of the Above
answer
channel intensity
question
Which of the following characteristics best defines the difference between marketing intelligence and marketing research? Marketing intelligence depends on internal data Marketing research depends on external data Marketing research is primarily from secondary data Marketing intelligence continually collects information
answer
Marketing intelligence continually collects information
question
A shopping product is in the introduction stage of the life cycle and consumers are at the awareness stage. Which communication objective is usually most appropriate for this situation? A) Persuade B) Inform/Educate C) Differentiate D) Reinforce/Stabilize
answer
inform/educate
question
Which of the following statements best defines a general marketing strategy? A guiding framework for developing a skeleton marketing plan that identifies which aspect of demand the firm should focus on how a firm will allocate Its resources to protect its weaknesses and/or exploit its strengths a 'bare bones' outline of the tactical portion of a detailed marketing plan. the number of people with the desire to satisfy a discovered need with particular want; and who also have the ability to satisfy that want.
answer
A guiding framework for developing a skeleton marketing plan that identifies which aspect of demand the firm should focus on
question
Which of the following is one of the alternative positioning strategies? A) Undifferentiated B) Demand Focus C) Increase Ability to buy D) Nicher Strategy
answer
demand focus
question
A product line contains all of a company's product mixes. A) True B) False
answer
false
question
Measurable, substantial, and accessible are informational items for the first step in a segmentation analysis? A) True B) False
answer
false
Business Management
Decision Analysis
Decision Making Method
Decision Support Systems
Nominal Group Technique
Problem Solving Process
Strategic Decision Making
MIS Final Chapter 10 – Flashcards 24 terms

William Hopper
24 terms
Preview
MIS Final Chapter 10 – Flashcards
question
_____ are ones where the variables that comprise the decision are known and can be measured quantitatively.
answer
structured decisions
question
_____ is a structured, interactive, iterative decision-making method that relies on input from a panel of experts.
answer
Delphi approach
question
_____ is used when the decision frequency is low and the location of group members is distant.
answer
teleconfrencing
question
_____ reports are management reports that are automatically produced when a situation is unusual or requires management action.
answer
Exception
question
Decision support systems:
answer
are used for operational, tactical, and strategic decision making.
question
A _____ is an independent business unit that is treated as a distinct entity enabling its revenues and expenses to be determined and its profitability to be measured.
answer
profit center
question
A _____ MIS uses data gathered from both internal and external sources to provide reporting and aid decision making in areas of product development, distribution, pricing, and promotions.
answer
marketing
question
A typical DSS includes many components such as the _____ that allows decision makers to easily access and manipulate the DSS and to use common business terms and phrases.
answer
dialogue manager
question
A(n) _____ report is the management report that summarizes the previous day's critical activities and is typically available at the start of each workday.
answer
key-indicator
question
An advantage of using the nominal group technique is that:
answer
it encourages participation from everyone.
question
An effective _____ MIS enables an organization to keep personnel costs at a minimum while serving the required business processes needed to achieve corporate goals.
answer
human resource
question
Developers of _____ try to build on the advantages of individual support systems while adding new approaches unique to group decision making.
answer
group support systems
question
Subsystems for the marketing MIS and their outputs help marketing managers and executives to _____.
answer
develop plans for future products
question
The _____ approach forces members of a decision making group to reach a unanimous decision.
answer
group consensus
question
The _____ is NOT a component of the typical DSS.
answer
inference engine
question
The _____ MIS subsystems and outputs are used to monitor and control the flow of materials, products, and services through the organization.
answer
manufacturing
question
The _____ stage is the second stage in the problem solving process during which alternative solutions to the problem are developed and their feasibility is evaluated.
answer
design
question
The _____ stage of the problem solving process requires selecting a course of action.
answer
choice
question
The ability to _____ is a characteristic of an MIS system.
answer
use internal data stored in the computer system.
question
The ability to _____ is a function of a financial MIS.
answer
provide easy access to financial data through use of a corporate intranet to access corporate Web pages
question
The focus of a DSS is on decision-making _____ when faced with unstructured or semistructured business problems.
answer
effectiveness
question
The goal of _____ is to tie together all aspects of production, including order processing, product design, manufacturing, inspection and quality control, and shipping.
answer
computer integrated manufacturing
question
The most significant internal data sources for an MIS are the organization's _____.
answer
various TPS and ERP systems and related databases
question
The performance of decision support systems is typically a function of decision quality, decision-making speed, and _____
answer
problem complexity
Customer Lifetime Value
Customer Relationship Management Software
Decision Support Systems
Knowledge Management
Product Design
Sales Force Automation
Marketing CH 21 – Flashcards 126 terms

Joseph Fraser
126 terms
Preview
Marketing CH 21 – Flashcards
question
T/F: Customer relationship management requires that organizations be organized around customer segments.
answer
true
question
T/F: Technology plays a major role in any CRM system
answer
true
question
T/F: Data consolidation is an analytical process that compiles actionable data about the purchase habits of a firm's current and potential customers.
answer
false
question
T/F: Customer-centric is an internal management philosophy similar to the marketing concept.
answer
true
question
T/F: Empowerment in a CRM environment is normally a process of collecting customer information through customers' feedback on products.
answer
false
question
T/F: Through the application of knowledge management, the Lands' End clothing catalog retailer would have learned that a substantial number of its customers would like the company to offer a line of maternity wear
answer
true
question
T/F: For a catalog retailer, the contact between the customer and the company's order taker would be an example of a touch point
answer
true
question
T/F: Touch points are any situations in which the company's employees actually interact with customers. When a customer places an order through the company Web site, no touch point has been created.
answer
false
question
T/F: When Amazon.com asks visitors to its Internet site to create wish lists and then invites them to send the lists to people who may be planning on buying them a present soon, it is relying on Web-based interactions to help it learn about its customers.
answer
true
question
T/F: Consumers are reluctant to enter information through point-of-sale interactions because of privacy violation fears.
answer
false
question
T/F: Channel interactions are the relationships a manufacturer has with its distributors.
answer
false
question
T/F: The process of centralizing data in a CRM system is sometimes referred to as the interpolation of external and internal touch points.
answer
false
question
T/F: For a CRM system to be effective, customer information must be stored in a data matrix.
answer
false
question
T/F: Privacy issues are the primary reason for centralizing data in a CRM.
answer
false
question
T/F: Response lists are especially important in database creation because past behavior is a strong predictor of future behavior.
answer
true
question
T/F: Database elaboration is the addition of information to customer or prospect records for the purpose of better describing or better determining the responsiveness of those customers or prospects.
answer
false
question
T/F: Multinational companies often face difficult problems when pulling together internal data about their customers.
answer
true
question
T/F: Data mining is used to find hidden patterns and relationships in the customer data stored in the data warehouse.
answer
true
question
T/F: Volvo has a Web site that caters to car enthusiasts who might want to see concept cars evolve into real-life products. Volvo would likely have used data mining to locate people who were car enthusiasts and innovators.
answer
true
question
T/F: RFM analysis is used to delete unnecessary or duplicated data.
answer
false
question
T/F: A basic assumption in any lifetime value calculation is that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers.
answer
true
question
T/F: As a predictive tool, data mining has limited utility.
answer
false
question
T/F: Through campaign management, all areas of the company participate in the development of programs targeted to customers.
answer
true
question
T/F: A common CRM application is cross-selling other products or services to customers.
answer
true
question
T/F: The United States has the most restrictive privacy laws in the world.
answer
false
question
_____ is a company-wide business strategy designed to optimize profitability, revenue, and customer satisfaction by focusing on highly defined and precise customer groups. a. Organizational optimization b. Consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. Total quality management (TQM) d. Customer relationship management (CRM) e. Market aggregation
answer
D
question
The My Coke Rewards program allows consumers to earn reward products and services by registering points they receive by consuming Coke products. The program also allows Coca-Cola to collect information about consumers that the company can use to optimize profitability, revenue, and customer satisfaction. The My Coke Rewards program is an example of a(n) _____ program. a. organizational optimization b. consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. total quality management (TQM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. market aggregation
answer
D
question
Using technology provided by Smart Button software, the WNBA's Los Angeles Sparks have implemented a new system that gathers information about its best customers, season ticket holders, and rewards those customers in many ways, including free tickets to Sparks home games and cash prizes. This is an example of a(n) _____ system. a. organizational optimization b. corporate relationship marketing (CRM) c. total quality management (TQM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. call response marketing (CRM)
answer
D
question
While many catalog retailers send out a standard catalog to all potential customers, Lands' End uses information it has gathered about customers in its CRM system to target the catalog to the individual. This approach used by Lands' End is an example of the _____ approach. a. shotgun b. rifle c. square peg d. fishing pole e. All of these statements can be used to describe the approach used by Lands' End.
answer
B
question
When Coca-Cola sent users of the My Coke Rewards program digital coupons for free trials of its new Coke Zero product, more than 100,000 people redeemed them. It would have cost the company far more to randomly distribute enough coupons to the general market to get that level of sampling. This is an example of the power of the _____ approach. a. rifle b. machine gun c. stealth marketing d. gorilla marketing e. shotgun
answer
A
question
Customer relationship management is accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT: a. offering the lowest prices of all major competitors b. organizing the company around customer segments c. establishing and tracking customer interactions with the company d. fostering customer-satisfying behaviors e. linking all processes of the company from its customers through its suppliers
answer
A
question
The difference between traditional marketing and customer relationship marketing can be compared to the difference between: a. night and day b. boning a fish and dressing a chicken c. mice and elephants d. shooting a rifle and a shotgun e. circles and squares
answer
D
question
At its most fundamental level, a CRM approach is no more than: a. the relationship cultivated by a salesperson with a customer b. a mass marketing approach c. a transactional selling approach d. a customer satisfaction program e. a differentiation strategy
answer
A
question
To initiate the CRM cycle, a company must first: a. establish marketing objectives b. captures relevant customer data on interactions c. identify customer relationships with the organization d. understand the interactions the company has with current customers e. Decides on a segmentation strategy
answer
C
question
Which of the following statements about the CRM cycle is true? a. The letters CRM are an acronym for consumer relationship marketing. b. The CRM cycle does not affect employees outside the marketing and management functional areas. c. The CRM cycle is continuous and circular with no predefined start or end point. d. The CRM cycle takes a simplistic perspective on customers. e. All of these statements about the CRM cycle are true.
answer
C
question
When USAA insurance company collects relevant information from customers, such as date of last communication with the customer and how often the customer contacts the company, this is an example of: a. establishing marketing objectives b. capturing relevant customer data on interactions c. identifying customer relationships with the organization d. understanding the interactions the company has with current customers e. deciding on a segmentation strategy
answer
B
question
As the second step in the CRM cycle a company must: a. establish marketing objectives b. capture relevant customer data on interactions c. identify customer relationships with the organization d. understand the interactions the company has with current customers e. decide on a segmentation strategy
answer
D
question
Which of the following statements about a CRM system is true? a. A critical component of a CRM system is the use of the appropriate technology to store and integrate customer data. b. A CRM system operates on the theory that all customers are equally important. c. Due to privacy laws, a CRM system only disseminates customer information to those who are actually in day-to-day contact with customers. d. A company using a CRM system must view its customers as bits of data. e. All of these statements about a CRM system are true.
answer
A
question
A company that has a(n) _____ customizes its product and service offerings based on data generated through interactions between the customer and the company. a. ethnocentric perspective b. supply-based focus c. sales orientation d. supply-based focus e. customer-centric focus
answer
E
question
Best Buy instituted a system in all of its stores that customizes their product offerings for the five key customer segments it has identified: affluent professional males, young entertainment enthusiasts, upscale suburban moms, families who are practical technology adopters, and small businesses with fewer than 20 employees. This focus implies that Best Buy is: a. ethnocentric b. demand based c. sales-centric d. supply based e. customer-centric
answer
E
question
Customer-centric is an internal management philosophy similar to: a. utilitarianism b. Herzberg's theory of motivation c. the equity theory d. the marketing concept e. consumerism
answer
D
question
The way to people's hearts may be through their stomachs, but Kraft Foods has decided not to rely exclusively on that maxim to secure the long-term loyalty of its customers. It is also making new product developments through data generated from interaction between Kraft and its customers. In other words, Kraft Foods: a. is sales oriented b. has a standardization focus c. is ethnocentric d. has a customer-centric focus e. is product oriented
answer
D
question
In a CRM environment, _____ is defined as an informal process of collecting customer data through customer comments and feedback on product or service performance. a. leveraging b. knowledge management c. interaction d. data mining e. learning
answer
E
question
_____ refers to the latitude organizations give their representatives to negotiate mutually satisfying commitments with customers. a. Consumer learning b. Customerization c. Empowerment d. Autonomy e. Interaction
answer
C
question
Best Buy's Performance Service Plan (PSP) guarantees products against damage and malfunctioning. All initial purchase contact information is kept in the customer database, along with copies of the PSP. If a customer calls Best Buy with a problem, the representative will have access to all this information and can either help the customer or refer him or her to another representative. The availability of this customer information tends to: a. reduce customer calls b. empower employees c. encourage referrals to other employees d. hurt employee morale e. increase the need for management supervision
answer
B
question
_____ is the process by which learned information from customers is centralized and shared in order to enhance the relationship between customers and the organization. a. Knowledge management b. Learning c. Database marketing d. Interactive marketing e. Information marketing
answer
A
question
When Sony PlayStation users want to access amenities on the Sony Web site, they are required to log in and supply information such as their name, e-mail address, and birth date. They are also given the opportunity to complete a survey that captures much more information about them and their gaming habits. Sony gathers this information and makes it available internally to better serve the customer. This is an example of a company using: a. learned research b. stimulus/response marketing c. knowledge management d. sales-oriented marketing e. motivational research
answer
C
question
A(n) _____ is the point at which a customer and a company representative exchange information and develop learning relationships. a. social contact b. interaction c. empowering moment d. equilibrium point e. transactional dyad
answer
B
question
Les Ailes de la Mode is a Quebec retail store that promotes the highest quality of customer service by maintaining the importance of each _____, the point at which customer and store personnel exchange information and develop learning relationships. a. moment of truth b. intervention c. data capture d. response situation e. interaction
answer
E
question
In a CRM system, _____ are all areas of the business where customers have contact with the company and data may be gathered and used to guide and direct the decision making within that business unit. a. touch points b. focus points c. data mining points d. information search periods e. observational points
answer
A
question
Apple, Inc. has stores, a Web site, and a toll-free phone number where consumers can provide valuable information to the company in developing a CRM system. All these possible areas of the company where consumers can communicate with the business are called: a. touch points b. focus areas c. data mining d. information search periods e. experimental points
answer
A
question
The Detroit Tigers, a Major League Baseball team, used customer satisfaction surveys of season ticket holders to determine why the number of season ticket holders was declining. This survey was an example of a(n): a. touch point b. focus area c. data search d. information recognizance e. observational point
answer
A
question
Les Ailes de la Mode, a Quebec retail store that promotes the highest quality of customer service, has not only established itself as a top retailer in the province but also has a credit card and point program company, a cataloger and Internet seller, and even a publisher. Through gathering customer information for its credit cards and point program, through catalog and Internet orders, and through subscriptions to its publications, Les Ailes de la Mode has created several different: a. focus areas b. touch points c. interrelationship promotions d. distribution channels e. sources of distribution information
answer
B
question
Hudson's Bay Company in Canada operates The Bay, Zellers, Home Outfitters, and Hbc.com. At each of its stores and its Web site, it gives HBC Rewards that enable members to earn points, which can be redeemed in the HBC Rewards catalog for various items, including travel, leisure and entertainment items, Air Miles reward miles, or Bay and Zellers gift certificates. To use the system, customers have to provide their HBC card number. This reward program enables Hudson's Bay to engage in _____ interactions with its customers. a. point-of sale and Web-based b. customer-centric and technology-centric c. retail-centric and Web-based d. transaction-based and retail-centric e. point-of-sale and retail-centric
answer
A
question
Communications between customers and organizations that occur in stores or at information kiosks are called: a. live interactions b. point-of-sale interactions c. empowerment points d. survey interactions e. product interactions
answer
B
question
_____ interactions occur when customers buy products in a store. a. Point-of-sale b. Relationship-based c. Cost-based d. Retail-centric e. Distribution-focused
answer
A
question
The executive VP of Hudson's Bay Company in Canada (a major retail chain) said in an interview, "We have to be able to offer customers what they want when they want it. We need better insight into their spending--we have gaps in knowledge of how customers spend." _____ interactions would provide the retail chain the best opportunity for learning about its customers. a. Point-of-sale b. Relationship-based c. Retail-centric d. Technology-centric e. Sales-oriented
answer
A
question
The traditional approach for acquiring data from customers is through: a. encoding devices b. media c. feedback mechanisms d. channel interactions e. public relations
answer
D
question
Which of the following is an example of a channel through which customer data are traditionally gathered? a. Store visits b. Conversations with salespeople c. Interactions via the Web d. Phone conversations e. All of these
answer
E
question
In a speech, David Poirier, chief information officer of Hudson's Bay Company, a Canadian retailer, said, "We [Hudson's Bay Company] had all kinds of data in different places. We didn't have a single view of the customer until we focused on finding one method to manage relationships with our customers." Hudson's Bay would use a _____ to profile customer segments for better CRM marketing efforts. a. data mart b. customer information system c. data warehouse d. decision support system e. data cluster
answer
C
question
A _____ is a central repository for data from various functional areas of the organization that are stored and inventoried on a centralized computer system so that information can be shared across all functional departments of the business. a. data mart b. customer information system c. data warehouse d. decision support system e. data cluster
answer
C
question
Continental Airlines has a system that captures information on everything from flight schedules, seat inventories, and customer profiles that is accessible by 35 departments and 1,300 employees. Continental's system is an example of a(n): a. information mine b. knowledge distribution center c. information extraction unit d. information storage unit e. data warehouse
answer
E
question
"Lots of organizations have customer data, but not in a way that's useful," said a speaker at a recent retail marketing conference. "Retailers have all kinds of data in different places--they don't have a single view of the customer." The speaker is saying that retailers do NOT use: a. information distribution centers b. data warehouses c. information extraction mines d. data intermediaries e. marketing information systems
answer
B
question
Dick's Sporting Goods collects a vast amount of data through its Web site, direct mailings, and retail stores. To be useful, all of these data would be centralized in a(n): a. data mart b. decision matrix c. data warehouse d. decision support system e. data cluster
answer
C
question
A(n) _____ is a collection of data, especially one that can be accessed and manipulated by computer software. a. database b. data profile c. algorithm d. byte e. interaction profile
answer
A
question
The core of the data warehouse is: a. empowered employees b. transaction channels of communication c. point-of-sale interactions d. the database e. a compiled list
answer
D
question
Which type of list includes names and addresses of individuals who have responded to an offer of some kind? a. An interactive list b. A compiled list c. A recent list d. A response list e. An A-list
answer
D
question
Lesley Owens has limited money to invest in a mailing to people who might be interested in subscribing to a new magazine about making scrapbooks. She wants to mail to those prospects with the highest probability of becoming subscribers. Owens should use a: a. compiled list b. data mine c. response list d. management database e. data warehouse activation
answer
C
question
The Old Westbury College Foundation raised $80,000 at its "A Taste of Long Island," a gala dinner where all proceeds went to support scholarship funds and educational programs at SUNY College at Old Westbury. Attendees were people who had contributed to the scholarship program previously and were reached through a: a. compiled list b. data mine c. response list d. management database e. data warehouse activation
answer
C
question
Taquan recently purchased a General Electric microwave oven using a $50 rebate offer. He filled out the rebate certificate and sent it to an address provided by GE. The rebate certificate contained Taquan's full name, his phone number, his address, and some purchase information. Taquan has most likely become part of GE's _____ list. a. compiled b. cookies c. response d. electronic cash e. Internet research
answer
C
question
A(n) _____ list generally includes names and addresses gleaned from directories or membership rosters. a. predictive b. compiled c. response d. actionable e. disintegrated
answer
B
question
Leah wants to develop a mailing list of people who have participated in bicycle rides for charities. She has offered to purchase a list of last year's Alabama-based Ride for Life, which was held to raise funds for cancer research. Leah is building a(n) _____ list. a. actionable b. e-mail c. response d. compiled e. predictive
answer
D
question
_____ is the addition of information to customer or prospect records for the purpose of better describing or better determining the responsiveness of customers or prospects. a. Information formatting b. Database enhancement c. Data mining d. Data shading e. Predictive modeling
answer
B
question
_____ is used to find hidden patterns and relationships in the customer data stored in the data warehouse. a. Data profiling b. Cluster analysis c. Regression analysis d. Customer profiling e. Data mining
answer
E
question
Wal-Mart captures point-of-sale transactions from thousands of stores in several countries and continuously transmits these data to its massive data warehouse. Wal-Mart allows more than 3,500 suppliers to access data on their products and perform data analyses. These suppliers use the data to identify customer buying patterns at the store level. They use this information to manage local store inventory and identify new merchandising opportunities. Both Wal-Mart and its suppliers are engaged in: a. information formatting b. database enhancement c. data mining d. data shading e. descriptive modeling
answer
C
question
Which of the following would allow an online retailer like Frontgate to learn that customers who purchase electronic products also purchase home office furniture? a. Knowledge interpretation b. Systems management c. Data mining d. Information extraction e. Information search
answer
C
question
Fingerhut, the catalog retailer, used _____ to determine that customers who change residences are three times more likely than customers who have not moved to buy tables, towels, and decorative products but are no more likely to buy jewelry or footwear. As a result, Fingerhut created a catalog for people who have changed residences. a. data mining b. information search c. information retrieval channels d. evoked sets e. an information environment
answer
A
question
Outdoor gear retailer Recreational Equipment, Inc. (REI) in Washington collects a vast amount of data through its Web site, direct mailings, and retail stores. When REI considers new store locations, it examines order data to find places with high concentrations of customers buying online and through the company's catalogs. REI would be using _____ to identify potential store locations. a. information formatting b. database enhancement c. data mining d. data shading e. customer prediction
answer
C
question
Ford Canada has turned to the Internet to help it stand apart from its competitors in the automotive industry. One Internet ad shows a Ford truck driving out of a forest with its engine roaring and mud splattering on the screen. The wipers come on to reveal the Ford "Built Tough" logo, which then recedes to the side of the screen. The ad directs people to a site where they can sign up to receive direct mail from Ford. Ford Canada will combine this database with a database of new F-Series truck owners to look for significant patterns and trends. Ford Canada will use: a. an information search system b. knowledge trending c. data interpolation d. data graphing e. data mining
answer
E
question
Which of the following techniques used to analyze marketing databases considers whether a customer has made a purchase recently as well as how often that customer makes a purchase? a. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis (RFM) b. Predictive modeling c. Customer valuation d. Data mining e. Lifetime value analysis
answer
A
question
In the RFM analysis model, "R" stands for: a. returning b. recency c. reimbursement d. relationship e. retention
answer
B
question
In the RFM analysis model, "F" stands for: a. frequency b. function c. free d. forecast e. framing
answer
A
question
In the RFM analysis model, the "M" stands for: a. marketing b. management c. motivation d. maturity e. monetary value
answer
E
question
L.L. Bean has been reducing the number of catalogs it sends out while increasing its sales and profits. With _____, L.L. Bean now identifies customers who have purchased recently and often have spent considerable money. Such customers are most likely to purchase again. a. predictive data b. trending c. correlation analysis d. recency-frequency-monetary analysis e. hypothesis testing
answer
D
question
Which of the following is a data manipulation technique that projects the future value of the customer over a period of years using the assumption that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers? a. Recency-frequency-monetary value (RFM) analysis b. Cluster analysis c. Lifetime value analysis (LTV) d. Market segmentation e. Predictive modeling
answer
C
question
The basic assumption of _____ is that marketing to repeat customers is more profitable than marketing to first-time buyers. a. customer segmentation b. predictive modeling c. customer valuation d. data manipulation e. lifetime value analysis
answer
E
question
_____ uses a past set of occurrences to predict the likelihood that some other occurrence, such as a response or purchase, will take place in the future. a. Customer manipulation b. Predictive modeling c. Data mining d. Lifetime value analysis e. Causal research
answer
B
question
The cable industry needs to identify current and future traffic patterns so it can manage the growth of cable systems. Because of high costs, it is undesirable to buy bandwidth before it is needed. It is also time-consuming to upgrade a cable system. Furthermore, consumers hate to wait for capacity increases. Therefore, the industry should use _____ to determine when and where new systems should be implemented. a. lifetime analysis b. recency-frequency-monetary analysis c. cross-selling d. speed of data communications e. predictive modeling
answer
E
question
Ford Motor Company has launched an online effort to market its F-Series trucks. It hopes to use its database capabilities to capture valuable data on car buyers. Ford plans on cross referencing new F-Series owners with the database generated from this online campaign to see how many names are duplicated. Ford will use these data to forecast which campaigns have the greatest probability of success. Which of the following methods will Ford most likely use to analyze these data? a. Lifetime value analysis (LTV) b. Present value/future value assessment c. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis d. Predictive modeling e. Reach-frequency-media analysis
answer
D
question
Which technique was likely used to suggest that a customer who wanted to buy a $29 shirt would also be a likely prospect for a cigar humidor? a. Predictive modeling b. Customer segmentation c. Market aggregation d. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis e. Data interpolation
answer
A
question
Data mining identifies the most profitable customers and prospects. Managers can then design tailored marketing strategies to best appeal to the identified segments. In CRM, this is commonly referred to as _____ customer information to facilitate enhanced relationships with customers. a. manipulating b. leveraging c. harvesting d. converting e. managing
answer
B
question
_____ involves developing product or service offerings customized for the appropriate customer segment and then pricing and communicating these offerings for the purpose of enhancing customer relationships. a. Transaction management b. Campaign management c. Data mining d. Consumerism e. Knowledge management
answer
B
question
All of the following are common CRM marketing database applications EXCEPT: a. cross-selling other products or services b. designing targeted marketing communications c. activity-based costing applications d. improving customer service e. campaign management
answer
C
question
Which of the following is a common CRM marketing database application? a. Campaign management b. Designing targeted marketing communications c. Improving customer service d. Cross-selling other products or services e. All of these
answer
E
question
Looking to build up its postpurchase relationships, General Motors recently launched a service whereby GM vehicle owners can sign up to get e-mail service reminders, access information about GM vehicles, and receive special promotions. GM is using _____ to enhance its customer relationships. a. modeling b. scoring c. valence management d. campaign management e. data mining
answer
D
question
To target outdoor enthusiasts, Subaru of America added an outdoor life section to its Web site that is organized by area of interest. The site will serve as a platform for co-marketing and promotional programs. This offering of customized products to a customer segment for the purpose of enhancing the auto manufacturer's customer relationships is an example of: a. campaign management b. customer aggregation c. transaction segmentation d. data mining e. knowledge management
answer
A
question
Les Ailes de la Mode, a Quebec retailer, offers its customers Les Ailes MasterCard. The card is connected to a points program that offers one point for every $20 of purchases on the card and triple that on purchases made at Les Ailes. It also incorporates an electronic chip, through which a $10 coupon is awarded to each member every month via the electronic gift card (on purchases of $10 or more every month). Card members also receive free subscriptions to the retailer's Les Ailes magazine. This shows how CRM can be used: a. to retain loyalty b. in mass marketing c. to increase knowledge about the competition d. to create transactional relationships e. to develop a compiled list
answer
A
question
Many high-end hotel chains award points for every dollar spent in one of their hotels. Customers who earn a high number of points are given special privileges that may include upgraded hotel rooms or several free nights. This is an example of the leveraging of customer information to: a. retain loyal customers b. reinforce competitive promotional decisions c. cross-sell other products and services d. design targeted marketing communications e. induce product trial by new customers
answer
A
question
Hudson's Bay Company has Canada's largest reward program--HBC Rewards--which enables members to earn points at Hudson's Bay family of stores, including The Bay, Zellers, Home Outfitters, and Hbc.com. Consumers can redeem points for over 600 rewards in the HBC Rewards catalog, including travel, leisure and entertainment items, Air Miles reward miles, or Bay and Zellers gift certificates. Which of the following provides the most likely reason why Hudson's Bay Company implemented this reward program? a. To reduce problems associated with cultural diversity b. To make sure the 80/20 principle is not influencing its activities c. To retain loyal customers d. To create cognitive dissonance e. To lessen the importance of customer service
answer
C
question
Using customer database information to offer related products to customers is called: a. incremental selling b. cross-selling c. relationship marketing d. informed selling e. synergistic selling
answer
B
question
Every time Barry orders running shoes from Road Runner Sports, the Web site or the operator on the phone always tries to sell him something in addition to the shoes he ordered, such as socks or other apparel. This is an example of: a. data mining b. cross-selling c. trading up d. database enhancement e. a database channel
answer
B
question
According to the CEO of Allied Office Products, "We're a head-count business: I know that if you have a 60-person office, you should buy $300 worth of basic office supplies—paper, pens, staples—from us with each order, but if that's all we get, we stagnate. For us to grow, we have to convince the customer, who already likes our products and service, to buy more than just basic supplies; we have to increase the order by 10, 20, or 30 times." Allied's salespeople are trained to push the company's less traditional, higher-margin lines such as coffee and refreshments, printing and forms management, and office furniture. Allied's salespeople are engaging in: a. cross-selling b. trading up c. buyer empowerment d. alliance building e. bundling
answer
A
question
Subaru of America targeted outdoor enthusiasts when it added an outdoor life section to its Web site, organized by area of interest. The site will serve as a platform for co-marketing and promotional programs and will allow Subaru to gather most overt and covert information. Which of the following provides the most likely reason why Subaru has added this section to its site? a. To create cognitive dissonance b. To reduce problems associated with cultural diversity c. To increase the effectiveness of its channels of distribution d. To lessen the importance of customer service e. To design more targeted marketing communications
answer
E
question
After Ruth and Mike had paid in advance for their week's stay at a Vermont Inn, Ruth felt that they might have chosen poorly and that they were committing themselves to stay at a place they might hate. Then Ruth got a letter from the Inn's owner stating that she was looking forward to their visit and asking what they most enjoyed for breakfast. The hospitality of the letter dealt with Ruth's cognitive dissonance by: a. cross-selling b. disintermediation c. spamming and flaming d. implementing a penetration strategy e. reinforcing her purchase decision
answer
E
question
CRM concerns many Americans because: a. of the large number of people who must be served b. not all customers have access to CRM marketing c. of the potential for invasion of privacy d. of the aggressive nature of marketers that use CRM e. of the expense to consumers
answer
C
question
When Ford Motor Company launched an online effort to market its F-Series trucks, it created a database. One potential problem with the use of this database is: a. that customers may perceive it as an invasion of privacy b. that the database may be used to generate unrepresentative focus groups c. that media alternatives may be eliminated from promotional campaigns d. that it may lead to more experimental research e. the lack of adequate personal information on customers
answer
A
question
Refer to Frequent Flyers. Airlines' commitment to providing premium customer service to its most valuable customers indicates a commitment to: a. customer relations mapping (CRM) b. consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. internal transactional marketing (ITM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. consumer replacement market (CRM)
answer
D
question
Refer to Frequent Flyers. American Airlines gives its gate employees the authority to hold up a connecting flight when a ConciergeKey member's incoming flight is delayed. The delegation of this authority to a gate employee is called: a. empowerment b. trickle-down management c. centralization d. synergy e. knowledge management
answer
A
question
Refer to Frequent Flyers. Most airlines have considerable information regarding their frequent flyers, some of which has been purchased from outside vendors. Purchasing information on customers to better describe their needs or to determine how responsive they might be to marketing programs is called: a. data mining b. database enhancement c. data warehouse d. database expansion e. knowledge management
answer
B
question
Refer to Frequent Flyers. Airlines have estimated the future value of these elite flyers and found that they are very profitable for their business. What technique did the airlines use to project the future value of these flyers over a period of several years? a. RFM analysis b. Lifetime value analysis (LTV) c. Cluster analysis d. Conjoint analysis e. Data enhancement analysis
answer
B
question
Refer to Frequent Flyers. The ConciergeKey program, which rewards loyal customers for making multiple purchases, is an example of a(n): a. RFM program b. LTV program c. loyalty program d. customer relationship program e. interactive program
answer
C
question
Refer to Blood Services. The card sent by the organization is an example of a: a. touch point b. transformational exchange c. predictive campaign d. point-of-sale interaction e. service message
answer
A
question
Refer to Blood Services. The information about past donors is stored in the organization's: a. integration systems b. information repository c. data mine d. database e. spreadsheet
answer
D
question
Refer to Blood Services. The organization developed a _____ list of donors to receive birthday cards. a. compiled b. benefit-based c. response d. feedback e. proactive
answer
C
question
Refer to Blood Services. What technique did the organization use to analyze its donor information? a. Data identifying b. Recency-frequency-monetary analysis c. Niche marketing d. Predictive modeling e. Customer segmentation
answer
E
question
Refer to Blood Services. The organization used CRM marketing to: a. cross-sell other products b. design targeted marketing communications c. increase effectiveness of its distribution strategy d. define customer service e. do all of these things
answer
B
question
Refer to Kraft Foods. Kraft's food & family magazine is a component in a program that allows Kraft to gather information about, and build a relationship with, a group of their best customers. In other words, the food & family magazine is a component in Kraft's _____ program. a. customer relations mapping (CRM) b. consumer relationship marketing (CRM) c. internal transactional marketing (ITM) d. customer relationship management (CRM) e. consumer replacement market (CRM)
answer
D
question
Refer to Kraft Foods. Kraft's food & family magazine encourages customers to visit the company's Web site to vote and provide ratings and feedback on their favorite recipes. Kraft then sends a "thank-you" e-mail for responding to their Web site. All of these activities show that Kraft is: a. customer-centric b. product oriented c. sales oriented d. customer service focused e. goal oriented
answer
A
question
Refer to Kraft Foods. When Kraft Food's employees share information about customers gathered through the food & family initiative, they are practicing: a. interaction management b. knowledge management c. profit-oriented management d. lead management e. performance management
answer
B
question
Refer to Kraft Foods. Consumers who receive food & family magazine have several contacts with Kraft Foods in which there is a sharing of information. For example, readers must complete a profile to receive the magazine. Also, consumers are allowed to send in recipes and to vote and provide ratings and feedback on their favorite recipes at Kraftfoods.com. Each of these contacts is considered a: a. touch point b. customer interaction point c. learning point d. customer-centric point e. moment of sharing
answer
A
question
Refer to Kraft Foods. To be useful to the whole organization, the data collected by Kraft Foods through their food & family magazine initiative must be centralized. This process of centralizing data for a CRM system is termed: a. data packing b. data pooling c. data cleaning d. data mining e. data warehousing
answer
E
question
Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. The information gathered from ticket holders will probably become part of the organization's _____ list. a. compiled b. cookies c. response d. electronic cash e. Internet research
answer
C
question
Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Sparks' season ticket holders that frequent the Sparks' fan Web site have spent money to buy their season tickets and are likely to purchase again. Which type of analysis will help Sparks identify those customers most likely to purchase again because they have bought recently? a. The 80/20 customer b. Loyalty c. RFM d. CRM analysis e. Cohort value
answer
C
question
Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Suppose that the Sparks management sees six categories of fans at their games. They feel that some people at Sparks games generally fall within one of the following six groups: (1) general sports fans, (2) basketball fans, (3) Sparks fans, (4) general fans of women's sports, (5) fans of opposing teams, and (6) those seeking entertainment. Dividing customer groups down in this manner is termed: a. customer data mining b. customer segmentation c. customer targeting d. customer positioning e. customer centric
answer
B
question
Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Home Court Advantage is an example of a _____ program. a. reward b. incentive c. co-branding d. loyalty e. cohort
answer
D
question
Refer to Los Angeles Sparks. Some consumers may not want others to provide their names to the Sparks organization. This reflects which concern regarding CRM programs? a. Effectiveness b. Expense c. Consumer privacy d. Consumer dissonance e. Consumer apathy
answer
C
Decision Support Systems
Identifying The Problem
Long Term Results
Market Segmentation Strategies
Marketing Research
Principles Of Marketing
Sports And Entertainment Marketing
Marketing Management Chap 4 – Flashcards 153 terms

Ray Collins
153 terms
Preview
Marketing Management Chap 4 – Flashcards
question
1) ________ provide diagnostic information about how and why we observe certain effects in the marketplace, and what that means to marketers. A) Marketing insights B) Marketing metrics C) Marketing channels D) Marketing information systems E) Marketing-mix models
answer
A
question
2) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company. A) Marketing communications B) Internal marketing C) Marketing research D) Market segmentation E) Marketing planning
answer
C
question
3) Anne, a beautician by profession, owns a salon in the small town of Franklin, New Jersey. Every weekend, she makes it a point to visit the other salons in Franklin to find out about the beauty services they offer to customers. Anne is attempting to conduct market research by ________. A) studying customer behavior B) forming alliances with competing firms C) using experimental research techniques D) checking out rivals E) tapping into marketing partner expertise
answer
D
question
4) Which of the following types of marketing research firms gathers consumer and trade information and then sells it for a fee (e.g., Nielsen Company)? A) custom marketing research firms B) syndicated-service research firms C) specialty-line marketing research firms D) generic marketing research firms E) focused marketing research firms
answer
B
question
example of a ________ research firm. A) custom marketing B) specialty-line marketing C) syndicated-service D) generic marketing E) focused marketing
answer
C
question
6) The Nielsen Company and IRI are examples of ________, or firms that gather consumer and trade information which they sell for a fee. A) customer marketing research firms B) internal marketing insights departments C) qualitative marketing intelligence agencies D) syndicated-service research firms E) specialty-line marketing research firms
answer
D
question
7) AT&T, GE, Samsung, Shell Oil, and others have engaged in a(n) ________ exercise by sponsoring the Innovation Challenge, where top MBA students compete in teams to address company problems. A) crowdcasting B) syndication C) net monitoring D) product-preference E) advertising evaluation
answer
A
question
8) A field-service firm is a ________ research firm. A) custom marketing B) syndicated-service C) specialty-line marketing D) consumer marketing E) social marketing
answer
C
question
9) You are the marketing research director of a medium-sized manufacturing firm and you would like to engage an outside marketing research firm to conduct field interviews. Which of the following categories of marketing research firms should you use? A) syndicated-service research firms B) custom marketing research firms C) global research management firms D) specialty-line marketing research firms E) brand management specialty research firms
answer
D
question
10) A(n) ________ is a gathering of 6 to 10 people carefully selected by researchers based on certain demographic, psychographic, or other considerations and brought together to discuss various topics of interest at length. A) target group B) pilot group C) focus group D) customer base E) ethnographic group
answer
C
question
11) Good marketing insights often form the basis of successful marketing programs.
answer
TRUE
question
12) When companies engage students to design and carry out projects, the payoff to the students is experience and visibility; the payoff to the companies is a fresh sets of eyes to solve problems at a fraction of what consultants would charge.
answer
TRUE
question
13) A good example of a syndicated-service research firm is Nielsen Media Research.
answer
TRUE
question
14) Custom marketing research firms sell field interviewing services to other firms.
answer
FALSE
question
15) Discuss the different ways that can be adopted by small manufacturing firms to conduct market research.
answer
The small firms can adopt the following ways to conduct market research: • They can engage students or professors to design and carry out projects • They can collect considerable information at very little cost by examining competitors' Web sites, monitoring chat rooms, and accessing published data • The owners of small business firms can routinely visit competitors to learn about changes they have made • By tapping into marketing partner expertise
question
16) What are the six steps involved in the marketing research process?
answer
The six steps are: 1. define the problem and research objectives 2. develop the research plan 3. collect the information 4. analyze the information 5. present the findings 6. make the decision
question
17) List the challenges faced to conduct a good focus group discussion.
answer
There are many challenges to conducting a good focus group. Some researchers believe consumers have been so bombarded with ads, they unconsciously parrot back what they've already heard instead of what they really think. There's always a concern that participants are just trying to maintain their self-image and public persona or have a need to identify with the other members of the group. Participants also may not be willing to acknowledge in public — or may not even recognize — their behavior patterns and motivations. And the "loudmouth or know-it-all" problem often crops up when one highly opinionated person drowns out the rest of the group.
question
18) What are the relative advantages of online and in-person focus groups?
answer
An area of increasing interest is online focus groups. These may cost less than a fourth of a traditional, in-person focus group. Online focus groups also offer the advantages of being less intrusive, allowing geographically diverse subjects to participate, and yielding fast results. They are useful at collecting reactions to focused topics such as a specific new product concept. Proponents of in-person focus groups, on the other hand, maintain that in-person focus groups allow marketers to be immersed in the research process, get a close-up look to people's emotional and physical reactions, and ensure that sensitive materials are not leaked. Marketers can also make spontaneous adjustments to the flow of discussion and delve deeply into more complex topics, such as alternative creative concepts for a new ad campaign.
question
20) Explain qualitative research and why it might be useful to marketers. What are its major drawbacks?
answer
Qualitative research techniques are relatively unstructured measurement approaches to permit a range of possible responses, and they are a creative means of ascertaining consumer perceptions that may otherwise be difficult to uncover. Because of the freedom it affords both researchers in their probes and consumers in their responses, qualitative research can often be an especially useful first step in exploring consumers' brand and product perceptions. It is indirect in nature, so consumers may be less guarded and reveal more about themselves in the process. Qualitative research does have its drawbacks. Marketers must temper the in-depth insights that emerge with the fact that the samples are often very small and may not necessarily generalize to broader populations. And different researchers examining the same qualitative results may draw very different conclusions.
question
21) Give an example of the different technological devices that have been developed to provide insight into the consumers' behavior to the researchers.
answer
There has been much interest in recent years in various technological devices. Galvanometers can measure the interest or emotions aroused by exposure to a specific ad or picture. The tachistoscope flashes an ad to a subject with an exposure interval that may range from less than one hundredth of a second to several seconds. After each exposure, the respondent describes everything he or she recalls. Eye cameras study respondents' eye movements to see where their eyes land first, how long they linger on a given item, and so on.
question
22) What is the chief advantage of using each of the following contact methods: mail questionnaire, telephone interview, and personal interview?
answer
The chief advantage of each contact method mentioned is 1) mail questionnaire — the best way to reach people who would not give personal interviews or whose responses might be biased or distorted by the interviews, 2) telephone interviews — the best method for gathering information quickly and the interviewer is also able to clarify questions if respondents do not understand them, and 3) personal interview — the most versatile method because they can ask more questions and record additional observations about the respondent.
question
23) Give reasons to justify that online research is versatile.
answer
Student Answers will vary. Increased broadband penetration offers online research even more flexibility and capabilities. For instance, virtual reality software lets visitors inspect 3-D models of products such as cameras, cars, and medical equipment and manipulate product characteristics. Even at the basic tactile level, online surveys can make Answering a questionnaire easier and more fun than paper-and-pencil versions. Online community blogs allow customer participants to interact with each other.
question
24) Mars Group is a market research firm that sells field interviewing services to a software development firm. Can Mars Group be categorized as a custom market research firm? Give reasons to support your Answer.
answer
No, Mars group is a specialty-line marketing research firm as it sells field interviewing services, whereas a custom marketing research firm is hired to carry out specific projects.
question
25) As a marketing researcher of Matrix Private Limited you have been asked to forecast the demand for your new range of body wash if a discount of 10 percent is offered on each unit sold. Identify the research category into which this market research falls.
answer
Here the researcher needs to study the effect of the discount on the demand for body wash. The objective of this research is to establish the cause and effect relationship between the discount and the demand for body wash. Therefore, this can be categorized as causal research.
question
26) Highspeed Motors is planning to introduce its new sports bike into the market. It collects data on prices, designs, features, and performance of sports bikes manufactured by other companies from their respective Web sites. What type of data is being used by Highspeed motors in this case?
answer
Highspeed Motors is using secondary data for its research.
question
27) Ryan has been appointed by Target Internationals, a hardware manufacturing firm, as a marketing researcher and has been asked to conduct marketing research to produce new insights of consumer attitude on its vacuum tubes. Ryan begins the research process by defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives. Mention the next step that Ryan will follow to continue with the research.
answer
After defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives, the researcher develops the most efficient plan for gathering the needed information, and will estimate the cost of conducting the research.
question
28) Axis Centre, a department store, has installed CCTV cameras to record consumer actions. Which research approach has been adopted by Axis and why?
answer
Axis has adopted observational research approach to gather fresh data by observing the consumers' actions in the store.
question
29) As a marketing manager of Kids Care, a manufacturer of baby soaps, Tim plans to analyze customer attitudes by using the focus group research approach. How will he conduct the research in this case?
answer
Student Answers will vary. Tim selects 8 first-time mothers who can adequately represent the users you want to target. He also appoints a skilled moderator to facilitate the discussion among these women to ensure everyone participates and stays on track. The moderator provides questions based on the "script" prepared by Tim. The discussions are recorded for further analysis.
question
30) Copra, a manufacturer of cigarettes, conducts a survey before launching its new range of herbal cigarettes. What is the basic purpose of undertaking such a survey by Copra?
answer
Copra undertakes the survey to assess people's knowledge, beliefs, preferences, and satisfaction and to measure these magnitudes in the general population.
question
31) Greenfoods, a manufacturer of ready-to-eat foods, conducts over 60,000 customer surveys each month through its retail outlets. What risk is Greenfoods likely to face by putting out so many surveys each month?
answer
By putting out so many surveys each month, Greenfoods may run the risk of creating "survey burnout" and seeing response rates drop sharply.
question
32) As a marketing researcher of a firm, you plan to conduct behavioral research to develop marketing insight. What procedure would you follow in this case?
answer
In order to conduct behavioral research, the marketing researchers need to develop consumer insight by analyzing store scanning data, catalog purchases, and customer databases.
question
33) A questionnaire used in a survey contains a question such as: "Retail-R-Us offers the best everyday prices" and the responses that the respondents can opt for are: "Strongly Disagree," "Disagree," "No opinion," "Agree," "Strongly Agree." Identify and define the type of closed-end question that has been exemplified in this case.
answer
The question mentioned above is a Likert Scale question. A Likert Scale is a statement with which the respondent shows the amount of agreement or disagreement.
question
34) Suppose, as a marketing manager of a firm, you plan to conduct market research using qualitative measures. For the purpose of developing consumer insight you have distributed among the respondents a picture of a man and woman in a coffee shop, and have asked the respondents to make up a story about what is happening in the picture. Identify and define the type of question used in this case.
answer
The marketing manager has used Thematic Apperception Test in this case. In Thematic Apperception Test, a picture is presented and respondents are asked to make up a story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture.
question
35) The Bledsoe Marketing Research group has been hired to administer a series of questions to shoppers in a local mall. If questions on the survey questionnaire have only two possible responses (such as "yes/no"), what type of questions are these?
answer
Questions of this type are closed-end questions that are dichotomous in nature.
question
36) As a marketing researcher, if you plan to conduct your research using qualitative measures like brand personification, what are you likely to ask the respondents in order to elicit their impression on your brand?
answer
Student Answers will vary. When the marketing researcher uses the brand personification approach to get inside consumers' minds and find out what they think or feel about brands and products, he is likely to ask the respondents what kind of person they think of when the brand is mentioned.
question
37) Jane is a marketing researcher of a cellular service providing firm. She is conducting market research before the firm decides to launch its 4G services. After deciding on the research approach and instruments, what is the next step that Jane should follow? What are the three things that she is required to consider in this step?
answer
After deciding on the research approach and instruments, Jane must design a sampling plan. In order to design the plan, Jane has to decide upon the sampling unit (whom she should survey?), the sample size (how many people should she survey?), sampling procedure (how should she choose the respondents?).
question
38) A marketing research firm has instructed its research associates to collect primary data by stopping people at a shopping mall or busy street corner and request an interview on the spot. Which contact method is being used by the researchers in this case? What probable risk may the researchers face while using this method?
answer
The researchers are using intercept interviewing method for collecting primary data in this case. The researchers run the risk of including nonprobability samples while using this method.
question
39) Aromas is a popular brand of cosmetic products. During the last quarter, the company suffered a drop in sales of some of its more popular offerings. In an attempt to find out the problem, Aromas designed an online questionnaire for its existing customers, who can fill out the questionnaire and also leave their comments and suggestions for improvement. What are the problems that Aromas is likely to face by using this method of contacting its customers?
answer
Student Answers will vary. Aromas is using online contact method to gather customer feedback. The major problems of using this method are: • samples may be small and skewed • online panels and communities can suffer from excessive turnover • such online market research can suffer from technological problems and inconsistencies
question
40) When American Airlines decided to review new ideas aimed at first-class passengers on very long flights, like an ultra high-speed Wi-Fi service and 124 channels of high-definition satellite cable TV, their first step in the marketing research process was to ________. A) develop the research plan B) define the problem and research objectives C) collect the information D) analyze the information E) make the decision
answer
B
question
41) The marketing research process begins by ________. A) developing a research plan B) defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives C) analyzing the internal environment D) reading marketing research journals E) contacting a professional research consultant
answer
B
question
42) When American Airlines asked "1) What types of first-class passengers would respond most to ultra high-speed Wi-Fi service and 2) How many are likely to use it at different price levels?", it was ________. A) setting specific research objectives B) conducting exploratory research C) outlining decisions D) defining the problem E) designing a research plan
answer
A
question
43) Which of the following is considered to be the last step in the marketing research process? A) presenting findings B) analyzing information C) controlling the environment D) arriving at a decision E) drafting the report
answer
D
question
44) If the goal of marketing research is to shed light on the real nature of a problem and to suggest possible solutions or new ideas, the research is said to be ________. A) descriptive B) quantitative C) primary D) secondary E) exploratory
answer
E
question
45) Unistar Inc., is an FMCG company that produces a wide range of offerings such as grocery items and personal care products. If Unistar wants to estimate the demand for its new line of body moisturizers, which are all priced at $18, it should opt for ________ research. A) descriptive B) exploratory C) prescriptive D) causal E) qualitative
answer
A
question
46) When American Airlines asked how many first-class passengers would purchase in-flight Internet service at $25, they were conducting ________ research. A) causal B) exploratory C) secondary D) ethnographic E) descriptive
answer
E
question
47) Researchers usually start their investigation by examining some of the rich variety of low-cost and readily available ________ data, then collect ________ data if the needed data don't existing or are dated, inaccurate, incomplete or unreliable. A) primary; secondary B) secondary; primary C) primary; econometric D) secondary; econometric E) exploratory; econometric
answer
B
question
48) A company would like to study the impact of advertising expenditure on sales and sales revenue. This is an example of ________ research. A) prescriptive B) causal C) secondary D) exploratory E) qualitative
answer
B
question
49) The marketing manager needs to know the cost of the research project before approving it. During which stage of the marketing research process would such a consideration most likely take place? A) defining the problem B) analyzing the information C) drafting the report D) developing the research plan E) collecting information
answer
D
question
50) Designing a research plan calls for decisions on all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) research objectives B) data sources C) research approaches D) research instruments E) sampling plans
answer
A
question
51) ________ data are data that were collected for another purpose and already exist. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Primitive D) Cross-sectional E) Ordinate
answer
B
question
52) Before Sandra opened her florist shop she read all she could about the floral industry. She also consulted several published research reports to understand growth patterns in the local area with particular interest in the location of florists throughout the city. This ________ helped her to decide on the location of her store. A) primary data B) secondary data C) primitive data D) tertiary information E) licensed information
answer
B
question
53) Primary data can be collected in several ways. Installing CCTV cameras in a retail store whereby consumers' actions can be recorded is an example of ________ research. A) focus group B) survey C) observational D) behavioral E) experimental
answer
C
question
54) ________ research approach uses concepts and tools from anthropology and other social science disciplines to provide deep cultural understanding of how people live and work. A) Cognitive B) Inductive C) Archaeological D) Ethnographic E) Deductive
answer
D
question
55) The goal of ethnographic research is to ________. A) capture cause-and-effect relationships by eliminating competing explanations of the observed findings B) understand consumers' behavior by observing a sample group discussing various topics of interest at length C) study demographic variables such as age, gender, income, education, and so on, in relation to consumer buying patterns D) analyze customers' purchasing behavior through catalog purchases and customer databases E) immerse the researcher into consumers' lives to uncover unarticulated desires that might not surface in any other form of research
answer
E
question
56) As the marketing manager of Cominform Pvt. Ltd., a manufacturer of health drinks, you have selected 10 individuals who match the profile of your target customer, to participate in a discussion on changing lifestyle trends related to health. You have also hired a skilled moderator to facilitate the discussion and ensure that everyone participates and stays focused on the topic. The moderator provides questions and probes based on the "script" prepared by you. The discussions are also recorded for further analysis. Which of the following methods of acquiring primary data is being used in this case? A) observational research B) surveys C) behavioral data D) experiments E) focus groups
answer
E
question
57) Why must researchers avoid generalizing from focus group participants to the whole market? A) Participants' responses are not reliable. B) Most of the participants are likely to be ignorant about the topic of discussion. C) The size of the group is too small and the sample is not drawn randomly. D) Most of the participants are likely to exhibit similar tastes and preferences. E) The participants usually come from diverse backgrounds.
answer
C
question
58) Which of the following is used to assess people's knowledge, beliefs, preferences, and satisfaction and to measure these magnitudes in the general population? A) observational research B) descriptive research C) quantitative research D) survey research E) experimental research
answer
D
question
59) Orville Redenbacher popcorn yielded deep consumer insights from its ________ research, which suggested that the essence of popcorn was that it was a "facilitator of interaction." A) cognitive B) inductive C) archaeological D) ethnographic E) deductive
answer
D
question
60) The most scientifically valid research is ________ research. A) observation B) focus group C) survey D) behavioral E) experimental
answer
E
question
A) Experimental B) Behavioral C) Observational D) Focus group E) Descriptive
answer
A
question
62) Which of the following rules must be kept in mind while framing a questionnaire? A) Use broad and loosely defined words in the questions. B) Avoid using response bands. C) Ensure that fixed responses overlap. D) Frame hypothetical questions. E) Allow for the "other" in fixed-response questions. Answer "other" in fixed-response questions.
answer
E
question
63) Because of its flexibility, ________ are the most common technique of collecting primary data. A) questionnaires B) telephonic interviews C) behavioral research studies D) experimental designs E) focus groups
answer
A
question
64) ________ questions allow respondents to Answer in their own words and often reveal more about how people think. A) Open-end B) Dichotomous C) Likert scale D) Multiple choice E) Semantic differential
answer
A
question
65) Which of the following is true of qualitative research? A) It is a structured measurement approach that permits a range of possible responses. B) It is indirect in nature, so consumers may be less guarded. C) It requires large sample sizes. D) Its results can be easily generalized to broader populations. E) It generally results in similar results and conclusions across researchers.
answer
B
question
66) A scale that connects two bipolar words is called a ________. A) dichotomous question B) multiple-choice question C) Likert scale D) semantic differential E) word association
answer
D
question
67) A question that respondents can Answer in an almost unlimited number of ways is called a ________ question. A) structured B) closed-end C) completely unstructured D) dichotomous E) multiple choice
answer
C
question
68) "Truancy should be checked in schools: 1) Strongly disagree, 2) Disagree, 3) Neither agree nor disagree, 4) Agree, 5) Strongly agree." This is an example of a ________. A) Likert scale B) semantic differential C) multiple choice question D) Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT) E) dichotomous question
answer
A
question
69) An item in a questionnaire states that "most politicians cannot be trusted." Respondents are required to provide their Answers by choosing any one of the following options: 1) Strongly disagree, 2) Disagree, 3) Neither agree nor disagree, 4) Agree, 5) Strongly agree. This is an example of a ________. A) semantic differential B) word association question C) Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT) D) Likert scale E) dichotomous question
answer
D
question
70) If a marketing researcher chooses to use word associations, the researcher is using ________ questions. A) closed-end B) Likert scale C) open-end D) rating scale E) semantic differential
answer
C
question
71) In which of the following types of tests is a picture presented and respondents are asked to make up a story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture? A) semantic differential test B) word association test C) story completion test D) thematic apperception test E) picture test
answer
D
question
72) The question "What is your opinion of the measures taken by the government to control inflation?" is an example of a ________ question. A) semantic differential B) word association C) completely unstructured D) story completion E) dichotomous
answer
C
question
73) In which of the following qualitative methods are subjects asked to complete an incomplete stimulus? A) word association B) projective techniques C) visualization D) brand personification E) laddering
answer
B
question
74) ________ requires people to create a collage from magazine photos or drawings to depict their perceptions. A) Brand personification B) Projective technique C) Visualization D) Laddering E) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique
answer
C
question
75) During his research about people's perceptions of Broadway musicals, Gerry asked people to create collages, on their own, out of magazine photos, which is a technique called ________. A) brand personification B) projective technique C) visualization D) laddering E) transformation
answer
C
question
76) The primary purpose of ________ is to identify the range of possible brand associations in consumers' minds. A) experimental research B) dashboarding C) laddering D) semantic differentials E) word associations
answer
E
question
77) The John Deere brand might make someone think of a rugged, Midwestern male who is hardworking and trustworthy, which the brand management folks would learn through ________ research. A) brand personification B) projective technique C) visualization D) laddering E) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique
answer
A
question
78) If a researcher asks a consumer why s/he wants to buy a Nokia cell phone, and learns, "They look well built" (attribute); then asks "Why is it important that the phone be well built?" and learns "It suggests Nokia is reliable" (a functional benefit); then asks "Why is reliability important?" and learns "Because my colleagues or family can be sure to reach me" (an emotional benefit), the researcher is using a technique called ________. A) brand personification B) projective technique C) visualization D) laddering E) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique
answer
D
question
79) With respect to the sampling plan, three decisions must be made: 1) the sampling unit — who is to be surveyed; 2) sample size — how many people should be surveyed; and 3) ________. A) sample cost — how much does sampling cost B) surveyor skill — who should conduct the survey C) sample security — how should the sample data be protected D) sampling procedure — how should respondents be chosen E) sample supervisor — who leads the sampling effort
answer
D
question
80) Which of the seven main metaphors in the ZMET reflects a sense of mastery, vulnerability, and well-being? A) Balance B) Transformation C) Journey D) Container E) Control
answer
E
question
81) Which of the seven main metaphors in the ZMET reflects changes in substance and circumstance? A) Balance B) Transformation C) Journey D) Container E) Control
answer
B
question
82) During a ZMET study, Chloe selected images that, when entered into the computer program, suggested the metaphor related to the meeting of past, present, and future, or the ________ metaphor. A) Balance B) Transformation C) Journey D) Container E) Control
answer
C
question
83) During a focus-group session, one set of participants indicated that Dell computers reminded them of a surfer, Apple computers of a mad scientist, and IBM was equated to Ebenezer Scrooge from Charles Dickens's tale, "A Christmas Carol." Which of the following qualitative research approaches relates to the approach described above? A) projective techniques B) visualization C) brand personification D) laddering E) brand architecture
answer
C
question
84) According to the concept of ________, a series of increasingly more specific "why" questions can reveal consumer motivation and consumers' deeper, more abstract goals. A) word association B) projection C) visualizing D) brand personification E) laddering
answer
E
question
85) ________ measure the interest or emotions aroused by exposure to a specific ad or picture. A) Tachistoscopes B) Polygraphs C) Galvanometers D) Audiometers E) GPS systems
answer
C
question
86) ________ flash an ad to a subject with an exposure interval that may range from less than one hundredth of a second to several seconds. A) Tachistoscopes B) Audiometers C) Polygraphs D) GPS systems E) Galvanometers
answer
A
question
87) ________ attached to television sets in participating homes now record when the set is on and to which channel it is tuned. A) Tachistoscopes B) Polygraphs C) GPS systems D) Audiometers E) Galvanometers
answer
D
question
88) Which of the following statements about telephone interviewing is true? A) It usually takes a long time to gather information through telephone interviews. B) The interviewer is unable to clarify questions if respondents do not understand them. C) The response rate for telephone interviews has been typically lower than for mailed questionnaires. D) The US government generally encourages telemarketing by firms. E) Telephone interviewing in the US is getting more difficult because of consumers' growing antipathy toward telemarketers.
answer
E
question
89) If a marketing researcher wishes to reach those people who would not give personal interviews or whose responses might be biased or distorted by interviewers, he or she should use ________. A) mail questionnaires B) telephonic interviews C) online interviews D) focus groups E) observational research
answer
A
question
90) Which of the following is considered to be the most versatile of all the contact methods? A) mail questionnaires B) telephone interviews C) personal interviews D) online interviews E) field trials
answer
C
question
91) In ________ interviews, researchers stop people at a shopping mall or busy street corner and request an interview on the spot. A) intercept B) arranged C) group D) structured E) behavioral
answer
A
question
92) Which of the following is an advantage of personal interviews? A) It is a relatively inexpensive method of gathering information. B) The possibility of interviewer bias is minimized. C) Participants can choose to respond at their own convenience. D) It facilitates anonymous responses. E) Interviewers can record additional observation about the respondent such as body language.
answer
E
question
93) Which of the following is one of the key disadvantages of online market research? A) Online research is expensive. B) Online research is time consuming. C) People tend to be dishonest online. D) Online research lacks versatility. E) Samples can be small and skewed.
answer
E
question
94) Which of the following is an advantage of online research? A) Samples are generally representative of the target population. B) Members of online panels and communities tend to have low turnover. C) Online research is relatively free of technological problems and inconsistencies. D) People tend to be honest and thoughtful online. E) Online research is slow but gathers detailed information.
answer
D
question
95) The ________ phase of marketing research is generally the most expensive and the most prone to error. A) contact B) research planning C) questionnaire design D) interview design E) data collection
answer
E
question
96) After collecting the relevant information, the next step in the marketing research process is to ________. A) develop the research plan B) define the problem and research objectives C) present the project report D) make the final decision E) analyze the acquired data
answer
E
question
97) After computing averages and measures of dispersion for the major variables and applying advanced statistical techniques and decision models in the hope of discovering additional findings from the gathered information, researchers ________. A) define the problem, the decision alternatives, and the research objectives B) present findings relevant to the major marketing decisions facing management C) evaluate the costs associated with data collected D) analyze the appropriateness of the data sources used E) develop the research plan
answer
B
question
98) Why do firms employ more than one persona to gather information about target consumers? A) Within a group, consumers usually exhibit similar tastes and preferences. B) The distribution of income and wealth are more or less equal across different customer segments. C) Although customers have unique needs, essentially their basic needs and requirements are the same. D) Any target market may have a range of consumers who vary along a number of key dimensions. E) The firms want to provide consumers with a greater number of product choices.
answer
D
question
99) A ________ has been defined as a coordinated collection of data, systems, tools, and techniques with supporting software and hardware by which an organization gathers and interprets relevant information from business and environment and turns it into a basis for marketing action. A) marketing metric B) marketing channel system C) marketing decision support system D) marketing research system E) database management system
answer
C
question
100) All of the following are considered to be among the seven characteristics of good marketing research EXCEPT ________. A) the scientific method B) research creativity C) multiple methods D) ethical marketing E) independence of models and data
answer
E
question
101) After developing a research plan, a marketing researcher should define the problem and research objectives.
answer
FALSE
question
102) The goal of exploratory research is to shed light on the real nature of the problem and to suggest possible solutions or new ideas.
answer
TRUE
question
103) James collected primary data when he distributed a survey to dorm residents to discover their attitudes and opinions on campus life.
answer
TRUE
question
104) Secondary data are data freshly gathered for a specific purpose or for a specific research project.
answer
FALSE
question
105) The goal of ethnographic research is to immerse the researcher into consumers' lives to uncover unarticulated desires that might not surface in any other form of research.
answer
TRUE
question
106) Researchers should generalize findings from focus group participants to the whole market.
answer
FALSE
question
107) Keeping a survey short and simple and contacting customers no more than once a month are two keys to drawing people into the data collection effort.
answer
TRUE
question
108) A good example of collecting behavioral data would be when a store uses scanners to read barcodes on products selected by consumers.
answer
TRUE
question
109) Behavioral research is the most scientifically valid research.
answer
FALSE
question
110) Experiments call for selecting matched groups of subjects, subjecting them to different treatments, controlling extraneous variables, and checking whether observed response differences are statistically significant.
answer
TRUE
question
111) Owing to its greater flexibility, a questionnaire is by far the most common instrument used to collect primary data.
answer
TRUE
question
112) Qualitative research techniques are relatively structured measurement approaches that permit limited possible responses.
answer
FALSE
question
113) A questionnaire should contain sophisticated and uncommon words.
answer
FALSE
question
114) If a marketing researcher decides to use a Likert scale, the researcher has chosen a technique wherein the respondent reviews a statement that shows the amount of agreement/disagreement with some product, service, or concept.
answer
TRUE
question
115) A dichotomous question is a question with three or more Answers.
answer
FALSE
question
116) A scale that describes the respondent's intention to buy a particular product is called a rating scale.
answer
FALSE
question
117) Visualization requires people to create a collage from magazine photos or drawings to depict their perceptions.
answer
TRUE
question
118) When Bank of America followed female baby boomers at home and while they shopped to observe things the shoppers might not have been able to articulate, they were using ethnographic research.
answer
TRUE
question
119) Safeway supermarket's scanner data shows that high-income people don't necessarily buy the more expensive brands. This is an example of survey research.
answer
FALSE
question
120) A question that respondents can Answer in an almost unlimited number of ways like "What is your opinion of Cracker Barrel?" is a completely unstructured question.
answer
TRUE
question
121) The type of open-ended question where a picture is presented and respondents are asked to make up a story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture is word association.
answer
FALSE
question
122) When a market researcher asks increasingly more specific "why" questions to reveal consumer motivations and deeper, more abstract goals, s/he is using visualization.
answer
FALSE
question
123) A tachistoscope flashes an ad to a subject with an exposure interval that may range from less than one hundredth of a second to several seconds and asks the respondent to describe what s/he recalls.
answer
TRUE
question
124) Samples of less than 1% of a population can often provide good reliability, with a credible sampling procedure.
answer
TRUE
question
125) Probability sampling allows confidence limits to be calculated for sampling error and makes the sampling more representative.
answer
TRUE
question
126) The response rate is usually very high for mail questionnaires.
answer
FALSE
question
127) If a marketing researcher is looking for a contact method that can gather information quickly and allow the interviewer to clarify questions if necessary, he or she will choose the telephone interview method.
answer
TRUE
question
128) A good illustration of what is called the arranged interview occurs when interviewers stop people in a shopping mall or on a busy street and solicit information necessary to their research effort.
answer
FALSE
question
129) Online surveys are fast because the survey can automatically direct respondents to applicable questions and transmit results immediately.
answer
TRUE
question
130) Marketing ________ are a structured way to disseminate the insights gleaned from the two complementary approaches to measuring marketing productivity within the organization. A) metrics B) decision support systems C) dashboards D) segments E) mix models
answer
C
question
131) Two complimentary approaches to measure marketing productivity are ________ and marketing-mix modeling. A) quality ratios B) salesperson satisfaction rates C) marketing metrics D) retailer satisfaction indices E) customer feedback surveys
answer
C
question
132) Which of the following refers to the set of measures that helps firms to quantify, compare, and interpret their marketing performance? A) marketing diagnostics B) marketing information systems C) marketing simulation D) marketing intelligence E) marketing metrics
answer
E
question
133) London Business School's Tim Ambler believes the evaluation of marketing performance can be split into two parts: ________. A) long-term results and changes in brand equity B) short-term results and changes in brand equity C) long-term results and changes in consumer perceptions D) short-term results and changes in profitability E) changes in market share and changes in profitability
answer
B
question
134) Which of the following is an external marketing metric that companies need to monitor? A) resource adequacy B) staffing or skill levels C) active innovation support D) market share E) relative employee satisfaction
answer
D
question
135) Which of the following is an internal marketing metric that companies need to monitor? A) market share B) consumer satisfaction C) relative perceived quality D) total number of customers E) relative employee satisfaction
answer
E
question
136) Marketing ________ analyze(s) data from a variety of sources, such as retailer scanner data, company shipment data, pricing, media, and promotion spending data, to understand more precisely the effects of specific marketing activities. A) metrics B) mix models C) forecasting D) intelligence databases E) decision systems
answer
B
question
137) When the marketers of a mobile phone manufacturing company want to determine the impact of individual media such as television and online display ads on sales as well as that of trade activities like every day low price, off-shelf display and so on, they usually use ________. A) marketing metrics B) market segmentation strategies C) market capitalization techniques D) market basket analysis E) marketing-mix models
answer
E
question
138) A ________ scorecard records how well the company is doing year after year based on measures such as the average perception of the company's product quality relative to its chief competitor. A) customer-performance B) stakeholder-performance C) marketing balanced D) vendor E) generic
answer
A
question
139) If a company actively tracks the satisfaction of its suppliers, banks, and distributors, it is using what is called a ________ scorecard. A) customer-performance B) stakeholder-performance C) marketing balanced D) vendor E) generic
answer
B
question
140) According to marketing consultant Pat LaPointe, the ________ metrics measurement pathway of the marketing dashboard reflects how prospects become consumers. A) customer B) unit C) cash-flow D) brand E) productivity
answer
A
question
141) According to marketing consultant Pat LaPointe, the ________ metrics measurement pathway of the marketing dashboard focuses on how well marketing expenditures are achieving short-term returns. A) customer B) unit C) cash-flow D) brand E) productivity
answer
C
question
142) Marketing expenses and investments as inputs can be quantified only in the long run, whereas the resulting outputs such as broader brand awareness, enhanced brand image, greater customer loyalty, and improved new product prospects manifest themselves in the short run.
answer
FALSE
question
143) Marketing-mix modeling is used to estimate causal relationships and measure how marketing activity affects outcomes.
answer
TRUE
question
144) Marketing accountability means that marketers must more precisely estimate the effects of different marketing investments.
answer
TRUE
question
145) Especially popular with such companies as Procter & Gamble, marketing-mix modeling is used to allocate or reallocate expenditures.
answer
TRUE
question
146) Marketing-mix modeling focuses on baseline sales or long-term effects instead of incremental growth.
answer
FALSE
question
147) Management can assemble a summary set of relevant internal and external measures in a marketing dashboard for synthesis and interpretation.
answer
TRUE
question
148) A stakeholder-performance scorecard tracks the satisfaction with the company and its products and services among such entities as suppliers, banks, and stockholders.
answer
TRUE
question
149) Relative perceived quality is an example of an external marketing metric.
answer
TRUE
question
150) Willingness to change is an internal marketing metric.
answer
TRUE
question
151) A customer-performance scorecard tracks the satisfaction of various constituencies who have a critical interest in and impact on the company's performance: employees, suppliers, banks, distributors, retailers and stockholders.
answer
FALSE
question
152) What are the major shortcomings of marketing-mix modeling?
answer
The major shortcomings of marketing-mix modeling are: • Although marketing-mix modeling helps to isolate effects, it is less effective at assessing how different marketing elements work in combination. • Marketing-mix modeling focuses on incremental growth instead of baseline sales or long-term effects. • The integration of important metrics such as customer satisfaction, awareness, and brand equity into marketing-mix modeling is limited. • Marketing-mix modeling generally fails to incorporate metrics related to competitors, the trade, or the sales force.
question
various constituencies who have a critical interest and impact your company's performance. List four constituencies that might be included.
answer
The stakeholder-performance scorecard could track the satisfaction of employees, suppliers, banks, distributors, retailers, and stockholders.
question
154) As a marketing controller of a company you have been asked to develop a customer-performance scorecard for your company's toy division. List three measures you might include.
answer
Student Answers will vary. The three measures that might be included are: 1. percentage of new customers to average number of customers 2. percentage of lost customers to average number of customers 3. percentage of win-back customers to average number of customers
Chief Information Officer
Decision Support Systems
Educational Technology
Transaction Processing Systems
Management Information Systems (Chapter 2) – Flashcards 29 terms

Matthew Carle
29 terms
Preview
Management Information Systems (Chapter 2) – Flashcards
question
transaction processing systems (TPS)
answer
a computerized system that performs and records the daily routine transactions necessary to conduct business, such as sales order entry, hotel reservations, payroll, employee record keeping, and shipping
question
business intelligence
answer
a contemporary term for data and software tools for organizing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help managers and other enterprise users make more informed decisions
question
management information systems (MIS)
answer
provides middle managers with reports on the organization's current performance
question
decision- support systems (DSS)
answer
focuses on problems that are unique and rapidly changing, for which the procedure for arriving at a solution may not be fully predefined in advance
question
executive support systems (ESS)
answer
information systems at the organization's strategic level designed to address unstructures decision making through advanced graphics and communications
question
portal
answer
uses a web interface to present integrated personalized business content
question
digital dashboard
answer
displays on a single screen graphs and charts of key performance indicators for managing a company
question
enterprise applications
answer
systems that span functional areas, focus on executing business processes across the business firm, and include all levels of management
question
enterprise systems (enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems)
answer
integrate business processes in manufacturing and production, finance and accounting, sales and marketing, and human resources into a single software system
question
supply chain management (SCM) systems
answer
help suppliers, purchasing firms, distributors, and logistics companies share information about orders, production, inventory levels, and delivery of products and services so they can source, produce, and deliver goods and services efficiently
question
interorganizational system
answer
automate the flow of information across organizational boundaries
question
customer relationship management (CRM) systems
answer
provides information to coordinate all of the business processes that deal with custoemrs in sales, marketing, and service to optimize revenue, customer satisfaction, and customer retention
question
knowledge management systems (KMS)
answer
collect all relevent knowledge and experience in the firm, and make it available wherever and whenever it is neeed to improve business processes and management decisions
question
electronic business (e-business)
answer
the use of digital technology and the internet to execute the major business processes in the enterprise
question
electronic commerce (e-commerce)
answer
the process of buying and selling goods and services electronically involving transactions using the internet, networks, and other digital technologies
question
e-government
answer
the application of the internet and networking technologies to digitally enable government and public sector agencies' relationships with citizens, business, and other arms of government
question
collaboration
answer
working with others to achieve shared and explicit goals
question
teams
answer
have a specific mission that someone in the business assigned to them
question
social business
answer
the use of social networking platforms (facebook, twitter, and internal coporate social tools) to engage employees, customers, and suppliers
question
telepresence
answer
an integrated audio and visual environment that allows a person to give the appearance of being present at a location other than his or her true physical location
question
cyberlocker
answer
online file-sharing services that allow users to upload files to secure online storage up to 16 terabytes
question
information systems department
answer
maintains the hardware, software, data storage, and networks that comprise the firm's IT infrastructure
question
programmers
answer
highly trained technical specialists who write the software instructions for computers
question
systems analysts
answer
constitute the principle liasons between the information systems groups and the rest of the organization
question
information systems managers
answer
leaders of teams of programmers and analysts, project managers, physical facility managers, telecommunications managers, or database specialists
question
chief information officer (CIO)
answer
a senior manager who oversees the use of information technology in the firm
question
chief security officer (CSO)
answer
in charge of the informations systems security for the firm and is responsible for enforcing the firm's information security policy
question
chief privacy officer (CPO)
answer
responsible for the firm's knowledge management program
question
end users
answer
representatives of departments outside of the information systems group for whom applications are developed
Charts And Graphs
Decision Support Systems
Inventory Control System
Long Range Planning
Supply Chain Management
Systems Analysis
Transaction Processing System
Transaction Processing Systems
Exam 1: Chapter 2 – Flashcards 65 terms

Matthew Carle
65 terms
Preview
Exam 1: Chapter 2 – Flashcards
question
All of the following statements regarding IBM notes are true except which one?
answer
it began as an email and messaging client
question
Supply chain management systems are more externally oriented than enterprise systems
answer
True
question
_____ is a collaboration tool that supports remote, synchronous collaboration
answer
video conferencing
question
DSS are used by managers to make decisions about problems that are unusual and not specified in advance
answer
True
question
Global firms can collaborate from different locations at the same time using synchronous collaboration tools
answer
True
question
To monitor the status of internal operations and the firms relations with external environment, managers, need____systems.
answer
transaction processing
question
Which of the following is not one of the four main classifications for collaboration tools identifies by space/matrix?
answer
remote/colocated
question
You would use an MIS to help determine if your business should introduce a new product line
answer
False
question
Operational managers use ESS primary to solve specific problems
answer
False
question
An organization's MIS and DSS supple an ESS with summarized information
answer
True
question
Which of the following decisions requires knowledge based on collaboration and interaction?
answer
Should we work with outside vendors on new products and services
question
A business process in the_______function is producing bills of material
answer
manufacturing and production
question
To consolidate the relevant knowledge and experience in the firm and make it available to improve business processes and management decision making, you could use a
answer
KMS
question
For non routine decision making, senior managers rely on management information systems
answer
False
question
______allows you to communicate with avatars using text messaging
answer
A virtual world
question
All of the following are reasons for the increased business focus on collaboration and teamwork, except for
answer
the need for more efficient work hierachies
question
In______, digital technology and the internet are used to execute th major business processes in the enterprise
answer
e-business
question
Most TPS's use sophisticated mathematical models are statistical techniques
answer
False
question
A TPS is an information system that keeps track of all the daily routine transaction of a business
answer
True
question
An information systems manager
answer
manages data entry staff
question
An inventory control system is an example of an MIS
answer
False
question
Which type of system would use to forecast the return on investment if you used new suppliers with better delivery track records
answer
DSS
question
Cross-functional systems are being phased out in favor of systems that support business processes within a single functional group, such as human resources
answer
False
question
You would use a _______in order to determine which of your suppliers has the best and worst records for keeping to your production schedule?
answer
MIS
question
To manage relationships with your customers, you would use a________system
answer
CRM
question
Production tasks are coordinated through the use of social networks in social business
answer
False
question
Which of the following systems is designed to support organization-wide process coordination and integration?
answer
enterprise applications
question
Which of the following is the greatest obstacle in enabling collaboration between employees at different, distant corporate locations?
answer
time zones
question
What is the most important function of an enterprise application?
answer
enabling business functions and departments to share information
question
Production tasks are coordinated through the use of social networks in social business
answer
False
question
Which type of system integrates supplier, manufacturer, distributor, and customer logistics processes?
answer
Supply-chain management system
question
A key word in social business is "conversations"
answer
True
question
The function_________is responsible for identifying customers
answer
Sales and marketing
question
What system will help you set up in inexpensive system that allows customers to see real-time statistics such as views and clicks through about their current banner ads
answer
Extranet
question
Decision-support systems are most commonly used by operations management level of an organization
answer
False
question
DSS use internal information as well as information from external sources
answer
True
question
To forecast trends in your suppliers industry that could affect your firm over the next five years, you would use a
answer
ESS
question
To monitor the status of internal operations and the firms relations with the external environment, managers need_____systems
answer
Transaction processing
question
______systems are known as enterprise systems
answer
enterprise resource planning
question
An example of a cross functional business process is
answer
creating a new product
question
A____system collects data from various key business processes and stores the data in a single comprehensive data repository, usable by other parts of the business
answer
enterprise
question
A______is typically a major source of data for other systems
answer
transaction processing systems
question
Which of the following tools would you use to evaluate and choose a collaboration tool for your organization?
answer
the time/space collaboration and social tool matrix
question
A_____social networking tool creates business value by connecting the members of an organization through profiles, updates, and notifications that are tailored to internal corporate uses
answer
enterprise
question
Global firms can collaborate from different locations at the same time using synchronous collaboration
answer
True
question
The principal liaison between the information systems groups and the rest of the organizations is a
answer
system analyst
question
Executive support systems are information systems that support the
answer
long-range planning activities of senior managment
question
Non-typical business problems with causes and effects that are rapidly changing are typically handled by which type of information system?
answer
DSS
question
Which of the following decisions requires knowledge based on collaboration and interaction?
answer
Should we work with outside vendors on new products and services?
question
Which of the following systems would you expect to deliver integrated, personalized business content through a web portal interface?
answer
executive support systems
question
Which type of systems integrates supplier, manufacturer, distributor, and customer logistics processes.
answer
supply chain management system
question
The_____function is responsible for identifying customers
answer
sales and marketing
question
An example of a cross functional business process is
answer
decision support
question
A TPS is an information system that keeps track of all the daily routine transactions of a business
answer
True
question
To manage relationships with your customers, you would use an_____system
answer
CRM
question
______allows you to communicate with avatars using text messaging
answer
a virtual world
question
A relocation control system that reports summaries on total moving, house hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions would fall into the category of
answer
management information systems
question
Which level of the organization are ESS specifically designed to serve?
answer
senior management
question
Which of the following is a firm's CPO responsible for?
answer
ensuring that company complies with existing data privacy laws
question
Which of the following is a firm's CPO responsible for?
answer
TPS with MIS capabilities
question
DSS use internal information as well as information from external sources
answer
True
question
The____helps design programs and systems to find new sources of knowledge or to make better us of existing knowledge in organizational and management processes
answer
CKO
question
If your main supplier was late delivering goods, which type of system would you use to update your production schedule?
answer
TPS
question
Using the internet to buy or sell goods is called
answer
e-commerce
question
____is a collaboration tool that supports remote, synchronous collaboration
answer
video conferencing
Computer Based System
Credit Card Companies
Decision Support Systems
Key Performance Indicators
Planning And Decision Making
Systems Analysis
IS Chapter 12 MC – Flashcards 40 terms

Pat Coker
40 terms
Preview
IS Chapter 12 MC – Flashcards
question
_____ is the process by which organizational goals are achieved through the use of organizational resources.
answer
Management
question
Which of the following is not a basic role of managers?
answer
entrepreneurial
question
Being a figurehead and leader is part of the _____ managerial role.
answer
interpersonal
question
Being an entrepreneur, disturbance handler, and negotiator is part of the _____ managerial role.
answer
decisional
question
In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers examine a situation and identify and define the problem.
answer
intelligence
question
In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers construct a model that simplifies the problem.
answer
design
question
Success in the _____ phase of the decision-making process results in resolving the original problem, and failure leads to a return to previous phases.
answer
implementation
question
In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers test potential solutions "on paper."
answer
choice
question
Which of the following is not a reason why managers need IT support?
answer
The number of alternatives is decreasing.
question
Decisions today are becoming _____ complex, due to _____ uncertainty in the decision environment.
answer
neither more nor less, decreased
question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a structured decision?
answer
The first three phases of the decision-making process need not occur in any particular sequence
question
The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ______ decision.
answer
structured
question
________ decisions are more common at lower organizational levels.
answer
Structured
question
Rank-and-file employees tend to make more _________ decisions.
answer
Structured
question
Calculating gross pay for hourly workers is an example of ________ decision making.
answer
Structured
question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of unstructured decisions?
answer
Standard solutions exist.
question
When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, the decision is said to be:
answer
unstructured
question
A large foreign automobile manufacturer is considering where to build a new manufacturing plant in the United States. They are making which type of decision?
answer
unstructured
question
Which type of decision requires a combination of standard solution procedures and individual judgment?
answer
semistructured
question
A company's annual employee evaluation best fits which type of decision?
answer
semistructured
question
_____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.
answer
Operational control
question
_____ is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational goals.
answer
Management control
question
Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?
answer
structured and operational control
question
Computer support is least for which of the following problems?
answer
unstructured and strategic planning
question
Searching for valuable business information in a database, data warehouse, or data mart is referred to as _____.
answer
data mining
question
_____ provides users with a view of what is happening, whereas _____ addresses why it is happening.
answer
Multidimensional data analysis, data mining
question
Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?
answer
Data mining
question
A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use:
answer
data mining
question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of DSSs?
answer
They support only lower- and middle-level managers.
question
At the end of a semester, a student knows that she must achieve a grade of 81 or higher on her final exam to get an A in the course. She has just performed what kind of analysis?
answer
Goal-seeking
question
_____ attempts to find the value of the inputs necessary to achieve a desired level of output.
answer
Goal-seeking analysis
question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational decision support systems?
answer
They are standalone systems.
question
A(n) _____ provides rapid access to timely information and direct access to management reports.
answer
digital dashboard
question
Which capability of digital dashboards enables users to obtain the latest data available on key performance indicators or some other metric, ideally in real time?
answer
Status access
question
Which of the following information systems are very user friendly, supported by graphics, and provide exception reporting and drill down?
answer
digital dashboards
question
Digital dashboards provide all of the following capabilities except:
answer
transaction processing
question
The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?
answer
digital dashboards
question
The primary distinguishing characteristic of geographical information systems is:
answer
every record or digital object has an identified geographical location
question
Geocoding involves:
answer
integrating maps with spatially oriented databases and other databases
question
Today, geographical information systems are being combined with _____ to form geospatial technologies.
answer
global positioning systems
Clinical Decision Support System
Decision Support Systems
Evidence Based Medicine
Health Computing
Long Term Care Facilities
Meet Your Needs
HIM FINAL EXAM PRACTICE – Flashcards 268 terms

Henry Lowe
268 terms
Preview
HIM FINAL EXAM PRACTICE – Flashcards
question
A radilogy information system is which of the following?
answer
Source system
question
When an EHR is integrated into the daily routine of clinicians it is said to be in what stage of existence?
answer
Adoption
question
Which of the following is a fundamental change in how medicine is practiced using health IT?
answer
Clinical transformation
question
Which of the following is a program that assures there is documented approval for altering an application?
answer
Change control
question
What health information exchange is a sophisticated structure that enables both receipt of data and the ability to query an exchange for data?
answer
CONNECT
question
What is interoperability?
answer
The ability to share health information with other health IT systems
question
Revenue cycle management is accomplished through use of which of the following systems?
answer
Form creation system
question
Structured data are which of the following?
answer
question
Infusion pumps and robotics are examples of which of the following?
answer
Smart peripherals
question
Ideally, clinical documentation in an EHR should be performed
answer
At the point of care
question
The source of drug-drug contraindication information in a computerized provider order entry system is
answer
Drug knowledge databases
question
Which of the following is an example of clinical decision support?
answer
Workgroup tool
question
A standard vocabulary is used to achieve what type of interoperability?
answer
Semantic
question
A way to send secure message over the internet is which of the following?
answer
Virtual private network (VPN)
question
Healthcare information is primarily for which of the following?
answer
Provider use in the management of care
question
To arrive at information______ are required.
answer
Data
question
______ data analytics is where health information is captured, reviewed, and used to measure the quality of care provided.
answer
Clinical
question
What is the first stage of transforming raw data into meaningful analytics?
answer
Data capture
question
Which of the following may be used to capture the data for storage in a database?
answer
Data mining
question
Which of the following data visualization tool is used when displaying trends?
answer
Graphs
question
The _____ is a management report of process measures.
answer
Dashboard
question
Which of the following is where a nurse enter data using a tablet computer when conducting a patient assessment while at the bedside?
answer
Human-computer charting
question
_____ is key to the knowledge discovery process.
answer
Data mining
question
The clinical data_____ lends itself to data mining as it encompasses multiple source of data.
answer
Warehouse
question
Which decision support systems could deliver a reminder to a physician that it is time for the patients flu shot?
answer
Clinical
question
The _____ would be used to help find actionable insights to drive enterprise performances.
answer
Executive information system
question
A _____ generated scorecard could be used by manager to monitor readmission rates in order to track trends and identify opportunities for improvement
answer
Decision support system
question
The exchange of email communication between the patient and physician on a question regarding medication is an example of _____ health informatics.
answer
Consumer
question
True or False. In all cases, a covered entity may deny an individual's request to restrict the use or disclosure of his or her PHI
answer
False
question
Which of the following is a covered entity under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
answer
Pharmacy
question
Which types of health records are subject to the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
answer
Health records in any format
question
What does the acronym PHI stand for?
answer
Protected Health Information
question
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity ____.
answer
Can deny access to psychotherapy notes
question
In which of the following situations must a covered entity provide an appeal process for denials to requests from individuals to see their own health information.
answer
When a licensed healthcare professional has determined that access to PHI would likely endanger the life or safety of the individual.
question
Which of the following statements is true in responding to request from individuals who wish to access their PHI?
answer
A cost based fee may be charged for making copy of the PHI
question
How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to PHI under HIPAA rules?
answer
30 days
question
How many days does a covered entity have to respond to an individual's request for access to his or her PHI?
answer
60 days
question
Which of the following provide a complete description to patients about how PHI is used in a healthcare facility?
answer
Authorization
question
Which of the following statements is true of the notice of privacy practices?
answer
It must be provided to every individual at the first time of contact or service with the covered entity.
question
Which of the following is unsecured PHI?
answer
PHI that is present on a stolen device such as a laptop or cellphone.
question
The primary reason that healthcare organizations develop business continuity plan is to minimize the effects of which of the following?
answer
Computer downtime
question
Critique this statement: HIPAA represents an attempt to establish best practices and standards for health information security.
answer
This is a true statement
question
A risk analysis is useful to _____
answer
Identify security threats
question
Which of the following is a technique that can be used to determine what information access privileges an employee should have?
answer
Context-based
question
The HIPAA data integrity standard requires that organization do which of the following?
answer
Keep documented logs of system access and access attempts
question
Which of the following is required by HIPAA standards?
answer
A written contingency plan
question
Which of the following is true regarding HIPAA security provisions?
answer
Covered entities must conduct employees security training sessions every six months for all employees.
question
The Hospital standardization movement was inaugurated by the
answer
American College of Surgeons
question
HIM has been recognized as a profession since
answer
1928
question
The HIM profession is changing due to
answer
Changes in technology
question
The new model of HIM practice is
answer
Information focused
question
The traditional model of HIM practice was
answer
Department based
question
The organization that accredits HIM education program is
answer
CAHIM
question
Our college has applied to become accredited by CAHIM. Which of the following is the name of the interim stage of accreditation?
answer
Candidacy
question
Which of the following is the virtual network used by AHIMA members?
answer
Engage
question
Which of the following functions governs the HIM profession?
answer
House of Delegates
question
The primary focus of AHIMA is to
answer
Foster professional development of its members
question
Which of the following certifications is administering by CCHIM?
answer
Registered Health information Technician
question
The acronym IDS refers to
answer
Integrated delivery systems
question
Which healthcare professional assists physicians in clinical assessments and patient education?
answer
Physician Assistant
question
Which of the following medical practitioner is not considered a generalist?
answer
Cardiology
question
Which healthcare provider utilizes ultrasound, computed tomography, or MRIs?
answer
Radiologic technologist
question
Which of the following is a surgical specialty?
answer
Orthopedics
question
Which of the following statements is true about registered nurses (RNs)?
answer
RNs are required to have a license in the state in which they practice
question
Which of the following perform a wide array of tests on body fluids, tissues, and cells to assist in the detection, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases and illnesses?
answer
Clinical laboratory scientists
question
Respiratory therapists treat patients with limited mobility
answer
False
question
Audiologists provide comprehensive diagnostic and treatment /rehabilitative services for authority, vestibular, and related impairments.
answer
True
question
Physical therapy assistants carry out the treatment plans created by the physical therapists.
answer
True
question
Which of the following laws created the HITECH Act?
answer
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
question
Until the World War II, where was. Pat healthcare provided?
answer
Home
question
An HIM student has asked you why Medicare reimburses healthcare providers through prospective payment systems. Which of the following pieces of legislation would you use as your explanation?
answer
Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982
question
Which of the following legislation authorized the creation of the Office of National Coordinator for Health information Technology?
answer
ARRA
question
Which of the following best describes Medicaid?
answer
Federally mandated healthcare program for low income people
question
Required the gradual implementation of a prospective payment system (PPS) for Medicare reimbursement.
answer
Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982
question
Gave the states funds on a matching basis for maternal and infant care, rehabilitation of crippled children general public health work, and aid for dependent children under age 16
answer
Social Security Act of 1935
question
Required concurrent review of Medicare and Medicaid patients
answer
Public law 92-603 of 1972
question
Patient protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010
answer
Provided an individual mandate to have minimum acceptable coverage or pay a tax penalty.
question
Utilization Review Act of 1977
answer
Required that hospitals conduct continued stay reviews for Medicare and Medicaid patients
question
Which of the following is NOT an example of an administration support services?
answer
HIM
question
Who has the primary responsibility to guide the direction of the hospital?
answer
Chief Executive Officer
question
Which of the following is an example of a federally run hospital?
answer
VA
question
Which service diagnosed and treats patients who have acute and/or chronic sling disorders?
answer
Respiratory Therapy
question
Dr. Smith has. Even granted permission by Community hospital to perform cardiac Catheterizations. This permission is called
answer
Clinical privileges
question
Acute care hospitals provide a short term care to diagnose or treat an illness
answer
True
question
A registered nurse performs patient assessments, creates care plans, and evaluates the appropriateness of treatment and effectiveness of care
answer
True
question
Pharmaceutical services are considered part of the clinical support services
answer
True
question
The average length of stay for an acute care hospitals is 21 days or less
answer
False
question
Physical therapies are only one member of the rehabilitation service team.
answer
True
question
Which of the following statements is true about behavioral health?
answer
Insurance coverage generally places restrictions on the psychiatric care such as a limit on the number of outpatient visits.
question
My daughter fell and cut herself tonight. Though it is not an emergency, I believe she needs stitches and she should see someone tonight for treatment. What type of setting would I most likely access?
answer
Freestanding ambulatory care center
question
Most patients in long term care facilities require impatient nursing and related services for more than how many consecutive days?
answer
30
question
What type of facility offer palliative care for end of life care so that the patient may live life as fully and as comfortable as possible?
answer
Hospice
question
Which of the following settings provides ambulatory care to low income patients and receives funding from many sources?
answer
Voluntary agency
question
Manages cost, quality, and access to services
answer
Managed care
question
A 13 yr long international effort with three principal goals (1) to determine the sequence of the three billion DNA subunits (2) to identify all human genes, and (3) to enable genes to be used in further biological study
answer
Human Genome Project
question
Provided emergency services and urgent care for walk in patients
answer
Freestanding ambulatory care centers
question
Care that offers patients access to constant nursing care while recovering at home
answer
Subacute Care
question
Care provided by different caregivers at several different levels of the healthcare systems
answer
Continuum of care
question
The publication To Error is Human stated that as many as how many patients die each year from preventable medical mistakes?
answer
98,000
question
To "create social and physical environments that promote good health for all" is a goal of which of the following organizations?
answer
Healthy people 2020
question
Which of the following is a nonprofit, no governmental organized?
answer
National Academy of Medicine
question
Which federal agency monitors healthy precautions for international travelers?
answer
CDC
question
Which of the following documents from the National Academy of Medicine addresses the duplication and contrasting approaches to performance measures by the six major governmental healthcare programs that serve nearly 100 millions Americans?
answer
Leadership by example
question
There are six federal agencies that provide healthcare to over 100 million people
answer
True
question
Healthcare policy is only formulated at the federal level
answer
False
question
The delivery of healthcare in the United States is based on a well researched master lab designed to contain costs, increases patients access to providers, and ensure excellent quality of care
answer
False
question
Healthy people 2020 is the third iteration of this document.
answer
True
question
Comparative effectiveness research is a major focus of the patient centered outcomes research institute
answer
True
question
Which of the following is an example of a primary purpose of the health record?
answer
Patient Care
question
I work for an organization that utilizes health record data to prove or disprove the efficacy of a health care treatment. What type of organization do I work for?
answer
Research
question
Which of the following is an example of an institutional user of the health record?
answer
Third party payer
question
Which of the following is an example of an individual user?
answer
Patient
question
Health departments use the health record to monitor outbreaks of diseases. Which type of use is this?
answer
Public health and research
question
What microfilm format is inefficient when patients have multiple admissions on microfilm?
answer
Roll
question
What type of paper based storage system conserves floor space by eliminating all but one or two aisle?
answer
Mobile filing units
question
What feature of the filing folder helps locate misfiled within the paper based filing system?
answer
Color coding
question
Who'd of the following is a tool used to track paper based health records?
answer
Outguide
question
What should be done when the HIM department error or accuracy rate is too high based on policy?
answer
Corrective action should be taken.
question
The forms design committee
answer
Provides oversight for the development, review, and control of forms and computer screens.
question
In a paper based system, individual health records are organized in a standardized order in which of the following processes?
answer
Assembly
question
Reviewing a health record for missing signatures and missing medical reports is called
answer
Analysis
question
Two patient's records were filed together by mistake. This is an example of
answer
Overlay
question
Which of the following describes incomplete records that are not completed by the physician within the time frame specified in the healthcare facility's policies?
answer
Delinquent records
question
One of the advantages of a DMS is that it can
answer
Control workflow
question
How are amendments handled in the EHR?
answer
The amendment must have a separate signature, date, and time.
question
Version control of documents in the EHR requires?
answer
Policies and procedures to control which versions is displayed
question
Which of the following is a risk of copying and pasting?
answer
Copying the note in the wrong patient's record
question
When I key in 10101063, the computer displays it as 10/10/1963. What enables this?
answer
Input mask
question
Which of the following is controlled by patients?
answer
Personal health record
question
Where will you find clinical decision support?
answer
Electronic health record
question
Which of the following systems is used to track whether or not a request for information has been processed?
answer
Release of information
question
With which department does the HIM department interact to perform audits and monitor outcomes?
answer
Quality improvement
question
What type of speech recognition is used when the physician edits the document?
answer
Front end
question
The overall goal of documentation standards is
answer
To ensure what is documented in the health record is complete and accurately reflects the treatment provided to the patient.
question
A hospital that participates in the Medicare and Medicaid programs must follow
answer
The Conditions of Participation
question
When defining its legal health record, a healthcare provider organization must do which if the following?
answer
Assess the legal environment
question
Which of the following is the health record component that addresses the patient's current complaints and symptoms and lists the patient's past medical, personal, and family history??
answer
Medical history
question
General documentation guidelines apply to
answer
All categories of healthcare records
question
Health record entries should be documented at the time the services they describe are rendered
answer
True
question
Only individuals authorized by the organization's policies should be allowed to enter documentation in the health record
answer
True
question
When an error is made, the erroneous information can be obliterated
answer
False
question
Auto authentication is the preferred method of authentication.
answer
False
question
A patient's gender, phone number, address, next of kin, and insurance policy holder information would be considered what kind of data?
answer
Administrative data
question
Patient history questionnaires, problem lists, diagnostic tests results, and immunization records are commonly found in which type of record?
answer
Ambulatory record
question
What type of health records may contain family and caregiver input?
answer
Behavioral Health Records
question
The ambulatory surgery record contains information most similar to which of the following?
answer
Hospital operative records
question
Which group focuses solely on accreditation of rehabilitation programs and services?
answer
CARF
question
Which types of health record contains information about the means by which the patient arrived at the healthcare setting and documentation of care provided to stabilize the patient?
answer
Emergency care
question
A patient's registration forms, property list, RAI, care plan, and discharge or transfer for documentation would be found most frequently in which type of health record?
answer
Long term care
question
Which of the following would not be found in a physical exam?
answer
General condition
question
An attending physician requests the advice of a second physician who then reviews the health record and examines the patient. The second physician records his or her evaluation in what type of report?
answer
Consultation
question
Written or spoken permission to proceed with care is classified as
answer
Expressed consent
question
What specialized type of progress note provides healthcare professionals impressions of patient problems with detailed treatment action steps?
answer
Care plan
question
Which of the following reports provides information on tissue removed during a procedure?
answer
Pathology report
question
A growth and development record may be found in what type of record?
answer
Pediatric
question
Many services such as surgery, infusions, and other diagnostics procedures that once required an over night hospital stay for the patient, no longer requires that level of care.
answer
True
question
CMS requires that healthcare providers inform their patients about general patient rights afforded to them.
answer
True
question
Healthcare provider organizations normally have patients sign an acknowledgment acknowledging that the healthcare provider organization is kit responsible for the loss of or damage to the patient's valuables.
answer
True
question
The subjective, objective, assessment, plan (SOAP) method came from the
answer
Problem oriented health record
question
Which of the following electronic record technological capabilities would allow paper based health records to be incorporated into a patient's EHR?
answer
Documentation imaging technology
question
The problem list is part of which of the following?
answer
Problem oriented health record
question
The paper health record has been scanned and is now available digitally. What is this known as?
answer
It is known as imaging
question
Nursing documentation within the health record will be
answer
Both subjective and objective
question
payers and the government are not concerned with how a physician documents in a health record.
answer
False
question
Only physicians document in the health record
answer
False
question
HIM professionals document in the health record
answer
False
question
Management of health record information is a fundamental component of information governance
answer
True
question
If data granularity is the goal of collecting the data, clinical terminologies is the best choice
answer
False
question
The SNOMED CT preferred term includes the semantic tag
answer
True
question
The three main core components of SNOMED CT are the SNOMED CT identifier, concepts, and descriptions.
answer
False
question
Category I CPT includes E/M, Anesthesia, surgery, radiology, pathology, and laboratory band medicine.
answer
True
question
Nursing terminologies are used for reimbursement of nursing care for Medicare patients.
answer
False
question
Mental disorders
answer
DSM-5
question
Diseases of Oncology
answer
ICD-O-3
question
Inpatient procedures
answer
ICD-10-PCS
question
States of functioning
answer
ICF
question
Diseases for morbidity
answer
ICD-10-CM
question
Which of the following is standard for drugs under the meaningful use program?
answer
RxNorm
question
Which of the following is standard for supplies under HIPAA?
answer
HCPCS
question
Which of the following is standard for clinical lab test results?
answer
LOINC
question
Which type of HCPCS level II code is not published by CMS?
answer
Dental procedures
question
RxNorm names for clinical drugs contain information on which of the following?
answer
Ingredients
question
The core clinical data set definitions are incorporated into the inpatient prospective payment.
answer
False
question
Data elements specified in OASIS-C1 are collected on long term care patients.
answer
False
question
HEDIS collects standardized data from health records in clinics and hospitals.
answer
True
question
The UMLS includes terminologies but excludes classifications.
answer
False
question
The common clinical data set is used in home healthcare settings.
answer
False
question
A data element is a single or individual fact that represents the smallest unique subset of larger data.
answer
True
question
A data set is which of the following ?
answer
A recommended list of data elements that support a specific healthcare industry.
question
Which of the following is a purpose of the creation of data dictionary?
answer
Create support for structured data collections.
question
Which of the following are the two most common types of database found in healthcare?
answer
Relational and object oriented data bases?
question
An index creates a definition for terms that are within a database.
answer
False
question
There is usually only one source of data within a healthcare organization.
answer
False
question
Refers to the creation of business owners over a specific areas of the data. Based on the business need, the business owners are responsible to create business rules and definitions when collecting specific data to support patient care and their business operations.
answer
Data ownership
question
Data quality focuses on entering data into the system that is true, accurate, and relevant to patient care needs and business operations needs.
answer
Data quality
question
Data stewardship is the evaluation of the data collection based on business need and strategy to ensure the data meets the requirements of patient care and organizational needs. Data stewardship and data ownership are closely connected.
answer
Data stewardship
question
Refers to the creation of documentation to justify business decisions made based on the different data collection and storage systems that are used within an organization.
answer
Data modeling
question
This concept focuses on how the data is being entered into the system, where the data is going within the system, where the same data might exist in multiple areas, and how it is being integrated into other applications.
answer
Data standardization and integration
question
Correct The first professional association for health information managers was established in what year?
answer
question
The first professional association for health information managers was established in what year?
answer
1928
question
The hospital standardization program was started by _______
answer
American College of Surgeons
question
The formal approval process for academic programs in health information management is called which of the followin
answer
Accreditation
question
Which of the following is the formal process for conferring a health information management credential?
answer
Certification
question
Which of the following is a traditional HIM role?
answer
Tracking record completion
question
Which of the following functions governs the HIM profession?
answer
AHIMA house of Delegates
question
Which of the following make up a virtual network of AHIMA members?
answer
AHIMA Engaged
question
Which of the following is an arm of AHIMA that promotes research in health information management?
answer
AHIMA Foundation
question
Which of the following best describes the mission of AHIMA?
answer
Community of professionals providing support to members and strengthening the industry and professoin
question
Which professional organization sponsors the CTR certification?
answer
NCRA
question
Which of the following places an emphasis on treating individual patients at the level of care required by their course of treatment and extends from their primary care providers to specialists and ancillary providers?
answer
Continuum of care
question
Someone who wishes to sit for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) certification should contact which organization?
answer
AAPC
question
In order to qualify for an AHIMA fellowship, what minimal educational level is needed?
answer
Associates Degree
question
Which of the following qualify for CEUs?
answer
College course
question
.as of 2014, what percent of the U.S. Economy was represented by healthcare spending?
answer
17.5
question
What is the ideal ratio of medical generalist to specialist?
answer
40:60
question
Which of the following is considered an Allied Health professional?
answer
Licensed Practical Nurses
question
Which of the following laws created Medicare and Medicaid?
answer
Public law 89-97 of 1965
question
What is the name of the process to determine whether medical care provided to a specific patient is necessary according to pre-established objective screening criteria at time frames specified
answer
Utilization review
question
HITECH was a portion of which bill?
answer
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009
question
Critique this statement: Once someone has earned the registered health information technician (RHIT) credential, it is a lifetime certification.
answer
This is incorrect as RHITs have to become recertified.
question
What is the name of the type of beds in a hospital that are defined by those authorized by the state?
answer
Licensed
question
The "C" in CIO stands for:
answer
Chief
question
Health information management department are considered which of the following
answer
Ancillary Support Service
question
Which of the following is the fastest growing sector to offer services for Medicare recipients?
answer
Home Health
question
Which of the following is the health profession that focuses on the eyes and related structures?
answer
Optometry
question
Public law 89-97 of the 1965 created a number of amendments to which Act?
answer
Social Security Act
question
The Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology was created as part of which Act?
answer
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
question
Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record?
answer
Educate Medical Students
question
Which of the following is an institutional user of the health record?
answer
Third party payers
question
How do patient care managers and support staff use the data documented in the health record?
answer
Evaluate the performance of employees
question
An HIM student asked an HIM director why the hybrid record is so challenging. What is the HIM directors response?
answer
It is because we have to Manage both the electronic and paper media.
question
What is the process of ensuring that a record is available for every patient seen at the healthcare facility?
answer
Reconciliation
question
Dr. Smith dictated his report and then immediately edited it. What type of speech recognition is being used?
answer
Front end
question
Critique this statement: Data and information mean the same thing.
answer
This is a false statement because data is raw facts and figures and information is data converted into a meaningful format.
question
The use of the health record by a clinician to facilitate quality patient care is considered ______ .
answer
A primary purpose of the health record
question
How do accreditation organizations use the health record?
answer
To determine whether standards are being met
question
How long should the MPI be retained?
answer
Permanently
question
Deficiencies in a health record include which of the following ?
answer
Missing document
question
Which of the following is true about document imaging?
answer
Documents can be indexed
question
Which of the following is part of qualitative analysis review?
answer
Checking that only approved abbreviations are used
question
Which of the following is the most efficient filing system?
answer
Unit numbering filing system
question
Which of the following creates a chronological report of the patient's condition and response treatment during a hospital stay.
answer
Progress notes
question
Which the health format is the most commonly used by healthcare settings as they transition to electronic records?
answer
Hybrid records
question
What is the end result of a review process that shows voluntary compliance with guidelines of an external, non profit organization?
answer
Accreditation
question
Which part of the medical history documents the nature and duration of the symptoms that caused a patient to seek medical attention as stated in the patient's own words?
answer
Chief complaint
question
Which of the following is an example of administration information?
answer
Patient's address
question
Which of the following statements is true of the process that should be followed in making corrections in paper based health record entires?
answer
The reason for the change should be noted
question
Which of the following types of facilities is generally governed by long term care documentation standards?
answer
Subacute care
question
Which of the following includes names of the surgeon and assistants, date, duration, and description of the procedure and any specimen ms removed?
answer
Operative report
question
A patient's registration forms, personal property list, RAI/MDS and care lab and discharge or transfer documentation would be found most frequently in which type of health record?
answer
Long term care
question
Exhibit group focuses on accreditation of rehabilitation programs and services?
answer
CARF
question
A healthcare organization, when defining its legal health record must:
answer
Assess the legal environment, system limitations, and HIE agreements
question
Written or spoken permission to proceed with care is classified as _____.
answer
Express consent.
question
The subjective, objective, Assessment plan (SOAP) came from the:
answer
Problem oriented health record
question
The management of health information is a fundamental component of which of the following ?
answer
The overall information governance model
question
Who responsible for communicating information relevant to national issues and keeping members informed of regional affairs that affect HIM?
answer
AHIMA component Associations
question
Which group brings together stakeholders to address issues related to the future of the HIM profession and education?
answer
Council for excellence in education
question
Whack of the following is the accreditation organization for HIM. Programs?
answer
CCAHIM
question
Which of the following is true about AHIMA certification program?
answer
Candidates must pass an examination before obtaining any of the credentials
question
Which of the following classes of AHIMA membership requires that individuals have interest in HIM and will abide by the AHIMA code of ethics?
answer
Active membership
question
Which of the following. Entities are at head of the AHIMA volunteer structure and hold responsibility for managing the property, affairs, and operations of AHIMA?
answer
Board of the Directors
question
The accreditation program of AHIMA is concerned with which if the following ?
answer
Establishing standards for the content of college programs in health information management
question
Which organization should be contacted regarding the Certified healthcare documentation specialist exam?
answer
Association for healthcare documentation integrity
question
Which of he following make up virtual network of AHIMA members who communicate via web based program managed by AHIMA?
answer
Engage
question
Which of the following. Is a surgical specialty?
answer
Anesthesiology
question
Which of he following carries out the operational tasks necessary to support the organization mission and goals?
answer
Staff
question
Two types of practitioners can hold the degree of Doctor of Medicine. They are:
answer
Physician and surgeon
question
Patients in hospice care are expected to live a maximum of ____ days.
answer
180
Brick And Mortar
Decision Support Systems
Electronic Data Interchange
Enterprise Information System
Enterprise Information Systems
Enterprise Resource Planning
Project Team Members
Systems Analysis
CH. 2 Systems Integration – Flashcards 50 terms

Jill Lopez
50 terms
Preview
CH. 2 Systems Integration – Flashcards
question
Systems integration means
answer
that you allow a heterogeneous (hodgepodge) IS to communicate or integrate and share information (or data) seamlessly with one another.
question
Systems integration is
answer
a key issue for an organization for its growth - Management needs to pay close attention to this issue.
question
Silos are
answer
basically compartmentalized operating units isolated from their environment.
question
Horizontal Silos
answer
The POSDCORB (Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting and Budgeting) a Classification of organizations into departments like Accounting and Human Resources
question
Vertical Silos
answer
Organizations also divided roles in hierarchical layers from strategic planning to management control and operation control. CEOs and Presidents plan long-term strategy, midlevel management focuses on tactical issues and on the execution of organizational policy whereas the lower-level management task is to focus on the day-to-day operations of the company.
question
The problem of functional silos gave birth to
answer
business process re-engineering (BPR).
question
The cross-functional organizational structure breaks the functional silos by
answer
opening up the informational flows from one department to another.
question
A silo information system is inefficient, inaccurate, and expensive because
answer
The system creates bottlenecks for everyone and information is not available in real-time.
question
Web-based systems today
answer
use a distributed architecture which allows the sharing of applications and data resources between the client and the server computers.
question
information systems that are used for generating reports for mid-level managers are known as:
answer
MIS
question
A(n) ________ provides a visual dashboard of strategic information to top level management in real-time
answer
ESS
question
A side benefit of integration is that the organization is forced to ________ its hardware, software, and it-policies
answer
standardize
question
Systems integration means allowing access to a shared data resource by people from different ________ areas of the organization.
answer
functional
question
At the physical level, systems integration means providing seamless connectivity between ________ systems.
answer
heterogeneous
question
One step in the systems integration process is to develop a policy on whether older, ________ systems will be supported and maintained.
answer
legacy
question
ERP systems come with built-in ________ for a variety of functions such as entering a customer order.
answer
processes
question
staff support (knowledge workers professionals)
answer
Decision support systems (DSS)
question
operational support (line managers and operators)
answer
Transaction support systems (TSS)
question
communications and collaborations support (clerical staff)
answer
Office automation system (OAS)
question
Infrastructure support (IT staff)
answer
Operating and database system (ODBS)
question
Logical system integration
answer
Develop information systems that allow organizations to share data with all of its stakeholders based on need and authorization.
question
Physical system integration
answer
Provide seamless connectivity between heterogeneous systems.
question
Business process reengineering involves
answer
changing the mindset of the employees in the organization, encouraging and enabling them to do their tasks in a new way.
question
Drivers for system integration strategy
answer
keeping up with technology exploiting new sales opportunity improving internet efficiency competitive pressures collaborative working exploiting new purchasing opportunities
question
Steps in Integrating Systems
answer
1. Resource categorization 2.Compliance and standards 3.Legacy systems support 4. Middleware tools 5.Authentication and authorization policies 6.Centralized IT services and support 7.Back-up, recovery, and security 8.Hardware and software standardization
question
1.Resource categorization
answer
Instituting IT support for an integrated systems environment is necessary to avoid support and maintenance problems with the integrated system.
question
2.Compliance and standards
answer
Develop a single sign-on policy because all employees and external partners will need access to an integrated system from anywhere, anytime.
question
3.Legacy systems support
answer
Develop a policy in support of older legacy applications.
question
4. Middleware tools
answer
Middleware tools are essential for integration in the short term if existing applications must be used by the organization.
question
5.Authentication and authorization policies
answer
Single sign-on policy for application and data access because all employees and external partners will need access to an integrated system from anywhere, anytime.
question
6.Centralized IT services and support
answer
The IT staff needs to be able to support all applications and platforms with a centralized IT help desk support.
question
7.Back-up, recovery, and security
answer
A good back-up and recovery system is essential if there is a system failure or a major disaster.
question
8.Hardware and software standardization
answer
Develop organization standards and policy on acquisition of new hardware and software which is aligned with organization IT strategy.
question
Benefits of Systems Integration
answer
Increased Revenue and Growth Leveling the Competitive Environment Enhanced Information Visibility Increased Standardization
question
Limitations of Systems Integration
answer
High Initial Set-up Costs Power and Interdepartmental Conflicts (due to the sharing of information) Long-term and Intangible ROI (Usually several years) Creativity Limitations (Restricts Creativity and Independence)
question
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems are
answer
integrated, multi-module application software packages designed to serve and support several business functions across an organization.
question
ERP systems are
answer
typically commercial software packages that facilitate collection and integration of information related to various areas of an organization.
question
ERP systems enable
answer
the organization to standardize and improve its business processes to implement best practices for its industry.
question
ERP's Role in Logical Integration
answer
ERP systems require organizations to focus on business process rather than on functions. ERP systems come with built-in processes for a wide variety of common business functions. An ERP system implements best practices via specific built-in steps for processing a customer order in terms of: order entry. routing through departments. communication of output to various parties.
question
ERP's Role in Physical Integration
answer
Before installing the ERP system, an organization may have to upgrade or install middleware or get rid of their legacy system's hardware and software. Integration is also required at the Data level, Client level, and at the Application level. A good ERP implementation improves operational efficiency with better business processes that focuses on organizational goals rather than on individual departmental goals. Improved efficiency with a paperless flow and electronic data interchange (EDI) or business-to-business (B2B) commerce environment with partners.
question
Implications for Management
answer
Silos do not work. Most organizations lose out in the long-term when information is not shared in real time across the functional boundaries within the company. System integration has many hidden benefits. Allows decision making to be cascaded to all departments Allows employees at lower-levels to make better decisions while interacting with clients or partners. System integration has many challenges. Replacing old hardware and software Working with IT consultants Human challenges, such as impact on IT staff, department heads losing control of data, and rumors of layoffs Systems integration raises many new ethical issues. Possibility of some employees exploiting information for personal advantage and illegal access of information. Remedies can consist of: Develop policies on ethical usage of information. Install proper security software and hardware (like firewalls). Allocate resources for training and education on accessing information.
question
1. What are functional silos and how did they evolve in organizations?
answer
Functional silos evolved when organizations became larger and complex structures. This happens when companies have separations of responsibilities and duties into departments. When departments form in a company they tend to need different things, and then develop their own methods of obtaining their goals, or use methods laid out by higher-ups. Each department operates separately with little or no interaction with each other; they are autonomous and function without the rest of the company.
question
2. What is the relationship between organizational functional silos and IS functional silos?
answer
The relationship between these two types of functional silos is that they both serve the needs of a department, but this is done in two different ways. Traditional functional silos operate as independent units with their required information; changes made within these silos are not propagated to other departments. With a IS functional silo there is no online sharing of data and creates a situation where data has integrity or currency issues.
question
3. Compare and contrast centralized, decentralized, and distributed IT architectures. Which do you think is most appropriate for ERP and why?
answer
Centralized systems are usually based on servers, mainframes, and supercomputers, where all the data, software, and resources are stored on the server and are accessed via dumb terminal computers, that is nothing is really stored on the satellite computers. On other hand, decentralized is just the opposite we have multiple small computers with the information and software they need, this gives them full control over what takes place, but may lead to less real time cooperation. Finally, distributed architecture is a combination of both centralized and decentralized architectures with their own applications and tools, accessing data and resources from a shared and very centralized network location. I think the most appropriate system for ERP is the distributed architecture as it blends both centralized and decentralized, and boasts better data consistency and integrity.
question
4. List the horizontal and vertical levels of systems that exist in organizations.
answer
Vertical Levels of systems à going down Strategic Management Tactical Management Functional Operations Horizontal Levels of systems à going across Human Resources Accounting Finance Marketing Manufacturing MIS
question
5. What is logical integration and how is it different from physical integration?
answer
Logical or Human systems focus on integration of business process and people changes for successful use of system by getting people to share information across functional areas with relative ease. On the other hand, physical systems integration involves building a system architecture that supports many different applications, and get them to work together seamlessly.
question
6. Describe at least five steps involved in systems integration.
answer
Step 1 - Resource categorizing - take inventory of hardware and software and seek vendors that comply with this technology Step 2 - Compliance and standards - check to see what kinds of standards are used for database support JDBC/ODBC Step 3 - Legacy systems support - develop support for older systems Step 4 - Middleware tools - tools that are used to support legacy systems, and are a short term solution to fixing the problem Step 5 - Authentication and authorization Policies - Create standards that users can login and log off to create information protection, to hide sensitive information.
question
7. What are the key benefits and limitations of systems integration?
answer
Some of the key benefits to Systems Integration: · The increase of Revenue and Growth · Enhanced information visibility · Standardization of data · Better business practices and · Levels the competitive environment with competitors. Some of the Limitations of Systems Integration: · High initial setup costs · ROI with benefits showing up after long time · Power and Inter-departmental Conflicts.
question
8. What is the role of ERP systems in systems integration?
answer
ERP can play a crucial role in systems integration, with Logical systems integration it forces companies to focus on business processes and practices instead of focusing on function alone. Also ERPs allow for co-influence of departments which forcibly removes the Silo concepts from a business. With physical integration ERP systems force companies to focus on upgrading and removing legacy systems, and also forces companies to improve flexibility and fluidity throughout the system.
question
9. Summarize the role of management in systems integration.
answer
Management has several integration issues it has to face, first I has to accept that Silos do not work and to begin accepting an integrated information system to store and use data. They also have to understand that Systems Integration has many hidden benefits and many challenges; they will need to look to make improvements while not underestimating the challenges. Likewise they will have to overcome the challenges without missing the very possible and very intangible benefits of an Integrated System. Finally integrated systems also raise many ethical issues, with more electronic transactions taking place, customer information becomes more often a source of information, but that information is private to the customer, and could pose many problems if it were to be released to the public. Such an example would be the TJX incident.
Business Management
Decision Support Systems
Human Resource Management
Organizational Psychology
Performance Management System
Human Resource Management Exam 3 Chap 9-12 – Flashcards 67 terms

Mary Moore
67 terms
Preview
Human Resource Management Exam 3 Chap 9-12 – Flashcards
question
High-Performance Work System
answer
The right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals.
question
brand alignment
answer
The process of ensuring that HR policies, practices, and programs support or are congruent with an organization's overall culture (or brand), products, and services.
question
HR dashboard
answer
A display of a series of HR measures, showing human resource goals and objectives and progress toward meeting them.
question
learning organization
answer
An organization that supports lifelong learning by enabling all employees to acquire and share knowledge.
question
transaction processing
answer
Computations and calculations involved in reviewing and documenting HRM decisions and practices.
question
cloud computing
answer
The practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the internet to store, manage, and process data.
question
continuous learning
answer
Each employee's and each group's ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions in a learning organization
question
decision support systems
answer
Computer software systems designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data.
question
HRM audit
answer
A formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions, based on identifying key HRM functions and measures of business performance.
question
expert systems
answer
Computer systems that support decision making by incorporating the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area.
question
HR analytics
answer
Type of assessment of HRM effectiveness that involves determining the impact of, or the financial cost and benefits of, a program or practice.
question
employee engagement
answer
The degree to which employees are fully involved in their work and the strength of their job and company commitment.
question
performance management
answer
The process through which managers ensure that employees activities and outputs contribute to the organization's goals.
question
critical-incident method
answer
Method of performance measurement based on managers' records of specific examples of the employee acting in ways that are either effective or ineffective.
question
management by objectives (MBO)
answer
A system in which people at each level of the organization set goals in a process that flows from top to bottom, so employees at all levels are contributing to the organization's overall goals; these goals become the standards for evaluating each employee's performance.
question
simple ranking
answer
Method of performance measurement that requires managers to rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer.
question
behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)
answer
Method of performance management that rates behavior in terms of a scale showing specific statements of behavior that describe different levels of performance.
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forced-distribution method
answer
Method of performance measurement that assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories.
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paired-comparison method
answer
Method of performance measurement that compares each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.
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graphic rating scale
answer
Method of performance measurement that lists traits and provides a rating scale for each trait; the employer uses the scale to indicate the extent to which an employee displays each trait.
question
mixed standard scales
answer
Method of performance measurement that uses several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait.
question
behavioral observation scale (BOS)
answer
A perfomance measurement method which uses all behaviors necessary for effective performance to rate performance at a task
question
organizational behavior modification (OBM)
answer
A plan for managing the behavior of employees through a formal system of feedback and reinforcement.
question
360-degree performance appraisal
answer
Performance measurement that combines information from the employee's managers, peers, subordinates, self, and customers.
question
calibration meeting
answer
Meeting at which managers discuss employee performance ratings and provide evidence supporting their ratings with the goal of eliminating the influence of rating errors.
question
involuntary turnover
answer
Turnover initiated by an employer (often with employees who would prefer to stay.)
question
voluntary turnover
answer
Turnover initiated by employees (often when the organization would prefer to keep them.)
question
outcome fairness
answer
A judgement that the consequences given to employees are just.
question
procedural justice
answer
A judgement that fair methods were used to determine the consequences an employee receives.
question
interactional justice
answer
A judgement that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employee's feelings into account.
question
hot-stove rule
answer
Principle of discipline that says discipline should be like a _____ , giving clear warning and following up with consistent, objective, immediate consequences.
question
progressive discipline
answer
A formal discipline process in which the consequences become more serious if the employee repeats the offense.
question
alternative dispute resolution
answer
Methods of solving a problem by bringing in an impartial outsider but not using the court system.
question
open-door policy
answer
An organization's policy of making managers available to hear complaints.
question
peer review
answer
Process for resolving disputes by taking them to a panel composed of representatives from the organization at the same levels as the people in the dispute.
question
mediation
answer
Nonbinding process in which a neutral party from outside the organization hears the case and tries to help the people in conflict arrive at a settlement.
question
arbitration
answer
Binding process in which a professional arbitrator from outside the organization (usually a lawyer or judge) hears the case and resolves it by making a decision.
question
employee assistance program
answer
A referral service that employees can use to seek professional treatment for emotional problems or substance abuse.
question
outplacement counseling
answer
A service in which professionals try to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another.
question
job withdrawl
answer
A set of behaviors with which employees try to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally.
question
role
answer
A set of behaviors that people expect of a person in a particular job.
question
role ambiguity
answer
Uncertainty about what the organization expects from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.
question
role conflict
answer
An employee's recognition that demands of the job are incompatible or contradictory.
question
role overload
answer
A state in which too many expectations or demands are placed on a person.
question
job involvement
answer
The degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.
question
organizational commitment
answer
The degree to which an employee identifies with the organization and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf.
question
job satisfaction
answer
A pleasant feeling resulting from the perception that one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values.
question
role analysis technique
answer
A process of formally identifying expectations associated with a role.
question
exit interview
answer
A meeting of a departing employee with the employee's supervisor and/or a human resource specialist to discuss the employee's reasons for leaving.
question
job structure
answer
The relative pay for different jobs within the organization.
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pay level
answer
The average amount (including wages, salaries, and bonuses) the organization pays for a particular job.
question
pay structure
answer
The pay policy resulting from job structure and pay level decisions.
question
minimum wage
answer
The lowest amount that employers may pay under federal or state law, stated as an amount of pay per hour.
question
Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
answer
Federal law that establishes a minimum wage and requirements for overtime pay and child labor.
question
exempt employees
answer
Managers, outside sales-people, and any other employees not covered by the FLSA requirement for overtime pay.
question
nonexempt employees
answer
Employees covered by the FLSA requirements for overtime pay.
question
benchmarking
answer
A procedure in which an organization compares its own practices against those of successful competitors.
question
job evaluation
answer
An administrative procedure for measuring the relative internal worth of the organization's jobs.
question
hourly wage
answer
Rate of pay for each hour worked.
question
piecework rate
answer
Rate of pay for each unit produced.
question
salary
answer
Rate of pay for each week, month, or year worked.
question
pay policy line
answer
A graphed line showing the mathematical relationship between job evaluation points and pay rate.
question
pay grades
answer
Sets of jobs having similar worth or content, grouped together to establish rates of pay.
question
pay range
answer
A set of possible pay rates defined by a minimum, maximum, and midpoint of pay for employees holding a particular job or a job within a particular pay grade.
question
pay differential
answer
Adjustment to a pay rate to reflect differences in working conditions or labor markets.
question
delayering
answer
Reducing the number of levels in the organization's job structure.
question
skill-based pay systems
answer
Pay structures that set pay according to the employees' levels of skill or knowledge and what they are capable of doing.
Computer Based System
Decision Support Systems
Planning And Decision Making
Management Information Systems Chapter 12 – Flashcards 25 terms

August Dunbar
25 terms
Preview
Management Information Systems Chapter 12 – Flashcards
question
unstructured decisions
answer
Nonroutine decisions in which the decision maker must provide judgement evaluation, and insights into the problem definition; there is no agreed upon procedure for making such decision
question
structured decisions
answer
decisions that are repetitive, routine, and have a definite procedure for handling them
question
semistructured decisions
answer
Decisions in which only part of the problem has a clear-cut answer provided by an accepted procedure
question
intelligence
answer
the first of Simon's four stages of decision making, when the individual collects information to identify problems occurring in the organization
question
design
answer
Simon's second stage of decision making, when the individual conceives of possible alternative solutions to a problem
question
choice
answer
Simon's third stage of decision making, when the individual selects among the various solution alternatives
question
implementation
answer
Simon's fourth stage of decision-making, when the individual puts the decision into effect and reports on the progress of the solution
question
classical model of management
answer
Traditional description of management that focused on its formal functions of planning, organizing, coordinating, deciding, and controlling.
question
behavioral models
answer
descriptions of management based on behavioral scientists' observations of what managers actually do in their jobs
question
managerial roles
answer
expectations of the activities that managers should perform in an organization
question
interpersonal role
answer
Mitzberg's classification for managerial roles where managers act as figureheads and leaders for the organization
question
informational roles
answer
Mintzberg's classification for managerial roles where managers act as the nerve centres of their organizations, receiving and disseminating critical information
question
decisional roles
answer
Mintzberg's classification for managerial roles where managers initiate activities, handle disturbances, allocate resources, and negotiate conflicts
question
data visualization
answer
Technology for helping users see patterns and relationships in large amounts of data by presenting the data in graphical form.
question
geographic information system (GIS)
answer
system with software that can analyze and display data using digitized maps to enhance planning and decision-making
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sensitivity analysis
answer
models that ask "what if" questions repeatedly to determine the impact of changes in one or more factors on the outcomes
question
pivot table
answer
spreadsheet tool for reorganizing and summarizing two or more dimensions of data in a tabular format
question
balanced scorecard method
answer
Framework for operationalizing a firms strategic plan by focusing on measurable financial, business process, customer, and learning and growth outcomes of firm performance.
question
key performance indicators (KPIs)
answer
Measures proposed by senior management for understanding how well the firm is performing along specified dimensions.
question
business performance management (BPM)
answer
attempts to systematically translate a firm's strategies (e.g., differentiation, low-cost producer, market share growth, and scope of operation) into operational targets
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drill down
answer
The ability to move from summary data to lower and lower levels of detail.
question
group decision-support systems (GDSS)
answer
An interactive computer-based system to facilitate the solution to unstructured problems by a set of decision makers working together as a group
question
Location analytics
answer
Ability to gain insights from the location (geographic) component of data, including location data form mobile phones, output from sensors or scanning devices, and data from maps
question
Operational intelligence
answer
Business analytics that deliver insight into data, streaming events and business operations
question
Predictive Analytics
answer
The use of data mining techniques, historical data, and assumptions about future conditions to predict outcomes of events, such as the probability a customer will respond to an offer or purchase a specific product
Data Type
Database Systems
Databases
Decision Support Systems
7132 Module 06 Chapter 6 Practice Quiz – Flashcards 34 terms

Alexander Barker
34 terms
Preview
7132 Module 06 Chapter 6 Practice Quiz – Flashcards
question
Data warehouse routinely uses ____ structures in its complex, multilevel, multi source data?
answer
2NF
question
In a ____ situation, one key determines multiple values of two other attributes and those attributes are independent of each other
answer
MULTIVALUED dependency
question
A relational table must not contain a(n) _____
answer
REPEATING GROUP
question
From a structure point of view, 3NF is better than ____
answer
2NF
question
For most businesses transactional databases, we should normalize relations into ____
answer
3NF
question
Dependacies based on only part of a composite primary key are known as ____ dependancies
answer
Partial
question
If you have three different transistive dependencies, _____ different determinant(s) exist a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
answer
c)3
question
an atomic attribute ______ a) cannot exist in a relational table b) cannot be further subdived c) displays multiplicity d) is always chosen to be a foreign key
answer
b) cannot be further subdivided
question
a table that is 1NF and includes no partial dependencies is said to be in _____ a)BCNF b)2NF c)3NF d) 4NF
answer
b) 2NF
question
_____ yields better performance a)Denormalization b)Normaliation c)Atomization d)Compression
answer
a) Denormalization
question
an example of denormalization is using a ____ denormalization table to hold report data. This is required when creating a tabular report in which the columns represent data that are a) transitive b) 3NF c) component d) temporary
answer
d) temporary
question
Before converting a table into 3NF, it is imperative that the table already be in ____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 4NF d) BCNF
answer
b)2NF
question
A table that displays data redundancies yields ____ a) consistancies b) anomalies c) fewer attributes d) more entities
answer
b) anomalies
question
A table that is in 2NF and contains no transtive dependencies is said to be in _____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF
answer
c) 3NF
question
Some very specialized applications may require normalization beyond the ____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF
answer
d) 4NF
question
Normalization works through a series of stages called normal forms. For most purposes in business database design _____ stages are as high as you need to go in the normalization a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
answer
b) 3
question
In a(n) _____ diagram the arrows above the attributes indicate all the desirable dependencies a) Chen b) dependency c) functionality d) ER
answer
b) dependency
question
____ databases reflect the evergrowing demand for greater scope and depth in the data on which decision support systems increasingly reply a)normalized b) datawarehouse c) temporary
answer
b) datawarehouse
question
an attribute that is part of a key is known as a(n) ____ atrribute a) important b) nonprime c) prime d) entity
answer
c) prime
question
a table where all attributes are dependent on the but are independent of eachother, and no row contains two or more multivalued facts about an entity is said to be in _____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF
answer
d) 4NF
question
A table where every determinant is a candidate key is said to be in ____ a) BCNF b) 2NF c) 1NF d) 4NF
answer
a) BCNF
question
A ____ derives its name from the fact that a collection of multiple entries of the same type can exist for any single key attribute occurrence a) partial dependency b) transitive dependency c) repeating group d) primary key
answer
c) repeating group
question
Improving ____ leads to more flexible queries a) atomicity b) Normalization c) denormalization d) derived attribute
answer
a) atomicity
question
1NF, 2NF, and 3NF are ______ a) normalization stages b) anomalies c) repeating groups d) atomic attributes
answer
a) normalization stages
question
To generate a surrogate key, Microsoft Access uses a(n) ______ data type. a) character b) sequence c) AutoNumber d) Identity
answer
c) AutoNumber
question
of the following normal forms, ____ is mostly of theoretical interest. a) 1NF b) 3NF c) BCNF d) DKNF
answer
d) DKNF
question
Most Designers consider the BCNF as a special case of the _____ a) 1NF b) 2NF c) 3NF d) 4NF
answer
c) 3NF
question
In the real-world environment, we must strike a balance between design integrity and _____ a) robustness b) flexibility c) uniqueness d) ease of use
answer
b) flexibility
question
Attribute A _______ attribute B if all of the rows in the table that agree in value for attribute A also agree in value for attribute B a) determines b) derives from c) controls d) owns
answer
a) determines
question
Granularity refers to ______ a) the size of the table b) the level of detail represented by the values in a table's row c) the number of attributes represented in a table d) the number of rows in a table
answer
b) the level of detail
question
Data redundancy produces data anomalies True/False
answer
True
question
If a table has multiple candidate keys and one of those candidate keys is a composite key, the table can have __________ based on this composite candidate key even when the primary key chosen is a single attribute a. Boyce-Codd normal forms b. Redundancies c. Time-variances d. Partial dependencies
answer
Partial dependencies
question
A good relational DBMS excels at managing denormalized relations True/False
answer
False
question
Atomic attributes are attributes that can be further subdivided True/False
answer
False
Data Analysis Tools
Data Mining Tools
Database Systems
Decision Support Systems
Online Transaction Processing
CH 13 MC – Flashcards 40 terms

Shelby Arnold
40 terms
Preview
CH 13 MC – Flashcards
question
Implementing BI in an organization involves capturing not only business data (internal and external) but also the ____.
answer
metadata
question
Analyzing decision support data to generate information is part of ____.
answer
business intelligence
question
Data mining is part of the "____" section of the business intelligence framework.
answer
Processes
question
A data mart is part of the "____" section of the business intelligence framework.
answer
Governance
question
____'s main goal is to provide a comprehensive and consistent definition of all data within an organization.
answer
MDM
question
The ____ contains business data extracted from the operational database and from external data sources.
answer
data store
question
____ are in charge of presenting the data to the end user in a variety of ways.
answer
Data visualization tools
question
____ provide a unified, single point of entry for information distribution.
answer
Portals
question
Data is captured from the OLTP system and placed on the ____ on a near-real time basis.
answer
data warehouse
question
BusinessObjects is a(n) ____ tool.
answer
OLAP
question
Had ____ been as pivotal to business operations a few years back, crises precipitated by the likes of Enron, WorldCom, and Arthur Andersen might have been avoided.
answer
governance
question
____ systems provided no data extraction/integration process.
answer
Traditional mainframe-based online transaction processing
question
From the data analyst's point of view, decision support data differ from operational data in three main areas: time span, granularity, and ____.
answer
dimensionality
question
A characteristic of decision support data is ____.
answer
high query activity
question
A characteristic of operational data is ____.
answer
high normalization
question
In 2008, Wal-Mart, the world's largest company, had over four ____ of data in its data warehouses.
answer
petabytes
question
Data ____ implies that all business entities, data elements, data characteristics, and business metrics are described in the same way throughout the enterprise.
answer
integration
question
____ can serve as a test vehicle for companies exploring the potential benefits of data warehouses.
answer
Data marts
question
There are 12 rules that define a(n) ____.
answer
data warehouse
question
The basic star schema has four components: facts, ____, attributes, and attribute hierarchies.
answer
dimensions
question
Computed or derived facts are sometimes called ____ to differentiate them from stored facts.
answer
metrics
question
In a star schema, dimensions are normally stored in ____.
answer
dimension tables
question
In a star schema, attributes are often used to search, filter, or classify ____.
answer
facts
question
The ____ dimension of a data cube provides a framework from which sales patterns can be analyzed and possibly predicted.
answer
time
question
The attribute hierarchy provides a top-down data organization that is used for two main purposes: ____ and drill-down/roll-up data analysis.
answer
aggregation
question
Fact and dimension tables are related by ____ keys.
answer
foreign
question
In a typical star schema, each dimension record is related to thousands of ____ records.
answer
fact
question
A ____ schema is a type of star schema in which the dimension tables can have their own dimension tables.
answer
snowflake
question
____ splits a table into subsets of rows or columns and places the subsets close to the client computer to improve data access time.
answer
Partitioning
question
In a MOLAP system, the MOLAP ____ allows end users to interact with the MOLAP server and request data for analysis.
answer
GUI
question
The reliance on ____ as the design methodology for relational databases is seen as a stumbling block to its use in OLAP systems.
answer
normalization
question
Decision support data tend to be non-normalized, ____, and pre-aggregated.
answer
duplicated
question
The ____ schema is designed to optimize data query operations rather than data update operations.
answer
star
question
ROLAP extends ____ so that it can differentiate between access requirements for data warehouse data and operational data.
answer
SQL
question
A ____ index is based on 0 and 1 bits to represent a given condition.
answer
bitmapped
question
Conceptually, MDBMS end users visualize the stored data as a three-dimensional cube known as a ____.
answer
data cube
question
A MOLAP system stores data in an MDBMS, using proprietary ____ and array technology to simulate the multidimensional cube.
answer
matrix
question
What is one of the main characteristics of OLAP systems?
answer
They support client/server architecture
question
What is a characteristic of ROLAP?
answer
It uses the star schema
question
A(n) ____ is a dynamic table that not only contains the SQL query command to generate the rows, but also stores the actual rows.
answer
materialized view
Decision Support Systems
Finance And Accounting
Systems Analysis
Transaction Processing System
Transaction Processing Systems
CH. 2 T/F – Flashcards 20 terms

Ewan Tanner
20 terms
Preview
CH. 2 T/F – Flashcards
question
1) Enrolling employees in benefits plans is a business process handled by the finance and accounting function.
answer
F
question
2) Operational management is responsible for directing the day-to-day operations of the business and therefore needs transaction-level information.
answer
T
question
3) Functional systems that support business processes within a single functional group, such as human resources, are being phased out in favor of cross-functional systems.
answer
T
question
4) Transaction processing systems are most commonly used by the senior management level of an organization.
answer
F
question
5) In social business, firms use social networks for coordinating production tasks.
answer
F
question
6) A transaction processing system is a computerized system that performs and records the daily routine transactions necessary to conduct business.
answer
T
question
7) A hotel reservation system is a typical example of a management information system.
answer
F
question
8) You would use an MIS to help decide whether to introduce a new product line.
answer
F
question
9) Management information systems typically support nonroutine decision making.
answer
F
question
10) Most MISs use sophisticated mathematical models or statistical techniques.