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The Developing Person Through the Life Span – 8th Edition (EXAM THREE) – Flashcards 50 terms

Deacon Kirby

50 terms

Preview

The Developing Person Through the Life Span – 8th Edition (EXAM THREE) – Flashcards

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The first hormones to begin the process of puberty are triggered in the child's:

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Brain

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The sex glands are also known as:

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The ovaries and testes

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Recent research indicates that there is a direct link between deficiencies in the adolescent diet and:

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The availability of vending machines on high-school campuses

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The growth spurt begins with an:

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Increase in bone length

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Adolescent acne is usually brought on by:

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Increased activity of oil and sweat glands

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The adolescent's ability to plan, to reflect, to analyze and to decide is a function of the:

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Prefrontal Cortex

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Diagnosing STIs in adolescents is problematic because:

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May have no symptoms

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Most adolescents think about themselves:

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Frequently

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A 15-year-old girl realizes that the dress she has worn to school has a small stain on it. Her belief that everyone will notice it is an example of:

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Adolescent Egocentrism

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The term imaginary audience refers to adolescents':

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False belief that everyone is constantly attending to their behavior and appearance.

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Juanita is able to think hypothetically about abstract ideas. Piaget would say she has developed:

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Formal Operational Thought

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Does the ability to use deductive reasoning tend to develop at the same time as the ability to use inductive reasoning?

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No, deductive reasoning tends to develop than inductive reasoning.

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Logic in teenagers tends to improve with:

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Age

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Whether adolescents stay in school or drop out is strongly influenced by their:

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Experience in middle school

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Developmentalists agree that adolescents learn best with:

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Few changes in their lives

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According to Erikson, the goal of adolescence is to:

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Form a coherent identity

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Adoption of parents' or society's roles and values, rather than questioning and exploring a personal identity, is referred to as identity:

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Foreclosure

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Identity diffusion refers to the identity status in which adolescents:

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Have few commitments to goals or values and fail to take on any role.

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Shortly after Brittany turned 18, she developed a newfound appreciation of her parents. What contributed to her change in attitude?

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Increased emotional maturity and reduced egocentrism

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Parents' awareness of where their children are, what they are doing, and with whom they are doing it is referred to as:

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Parental Monitoring

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Most adolescents need a bridge in their transition from childhood to young adulthood, easing the shift from childish behaviors to more independent ones. This bridge is generally provided by:

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Peers at their level

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Brent and Ashley are high-school seniors who have been dating for nearly a year. While they emotionally support each other, their relationship primarily centers on.

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Companionship

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Ideally, the best sex educators are:

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Parents

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Joel is 14 years old and has been using marijuana steadily for the past six months. Because of his early drug use, he is at an increased risk for:

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Depression

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Suicidal ideation refers to:

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Thinking about suicide

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Arrest statistics do not accurately reflect the prevalence of adolescent delinquency because:

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Many offenses never come to police attention

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Which of the following is the goal of homeostasis?

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Equilibrium

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The term organ reserve refers to:

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The extra capacity available to an organ when subjected to stress

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The most common time for males and females to have a baby is during:

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young Adulthood

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Two factors that tend to maintain good exercise habits beyond emerging adulthood include:

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Friendship and communities designed for activity

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A person's set point is affected by:

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Ages, Genes, Diet, Hormones, and Exercise

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Compared with their peers, emerging adults who abuse drugs are less likely to:

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Sustain a romance

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Young men are more likely to die violently than young women because:

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Testosterone is associated with impulsive and angry reactions.

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Grappling with personal and social problems during late adolescence and emerging adulthood using both emotion and logic demonstrates:

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Postformal Thought

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After Brenda finished college and began working in her chosen field, she saw her life becoming:

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Less playful and more practical.

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In comparison with adolescent thinking, adult thinking requires more:

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Flexibility

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The most advanced cognitive process is:

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Dialectical Thought

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Research using the Defining Issues Test (DIT) has demonstrated that which of the following is associated with moral growth?

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Education

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Which statement is true of Fowler's sixth stage of Universalizing Faith?

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People have a vision of universal compassion, justice, and love.

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Compared to individuals with a college education, those without a college education tend to be more:

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Likely to smoke

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Compared to 50 years ago, today's U.S. college population:

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Is more diverse and heterogeneous

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According to Erikson, the stage of intimacy vs. isolation:

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Involves the need to share one's personal life with someone else.

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Compared to those of women, friendships between men are:

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Less Emotional

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Which of the following lists Sternberg's three dimensions of love in the order in which they generally develop in a relationship?

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Passion, Intimacy, Commitment

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When a couple shares passion and intimacy, but there is no commitment, Sternberg would say they have:

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Romantic Love

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Generally, cohabitating young adults:

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Are more likely to have physical abuse in the relationship than are married couples

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Which of the following is a characteristic of common couple violence?

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Both partners arguing

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Amy graduated from college in May and moved into an apartment with two friends in June. When she returned home to visit after several months, she noticed that:

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Her relationship with her parents improved

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Throughout the world, the most likely time in a person's life for mental illness is:

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Emerging Adulthood

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Anxiety disorders include:

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Post-traumatic stress disorder and panic attacks.

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Astronomy Day Night Cycle Night And Day

AST1002 – Flashcard 102 terms

Sean Hill

102 terms

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AST1002 – Flashcard

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A long thin cloud that stretched from directly overhead to the western horizon would have an angular size of

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90 degrees

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When a thin crescent of the Moon is visible just before sunrise, the Moon is in its

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waning phase

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f the Moon's orbit around Earth were a little larger, solar eclipses would be

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more likely to be annular

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According to "The Zodiac" Figure shown above, in June we would see the Sun in the direction of the constellation(s)...

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Gemini

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In the Figure below (Figure 0.20A - Parallax), a smaller Earth would result in

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a smaller parallax angle.

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How, and by roughly how much, would the length of the solar day change if Earth's rotation were suddenly to reverse direction?

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A solar day would be approximately 8 minutes shorter than the current one.

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If you watch Polaris all night, what does it do?

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Not much! It just sits there.

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When is the Earth closest to the Sun?

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In the winter in the northern hemisphere.

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What causes Earth's seasons?

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23.5° tilt of Earth's rotational axis

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The angle of parallax increases as

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the baseline gets larger.

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Why don't we have solar and lunar eclipses every month?

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ecause the Moon's orbit around Earth is tilted by about 5° out of the ecliptic.

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he average distance from the Earth to the Sun, 149,600,000 km, can be written in scientific notation as

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1.496 × 108 km.

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If there are about 6000 stars in the entire sky that can be seen by the unaided human eye, about how many stars would be seen at a particular instant on a given dark night from a single location with an uninterrupted distant horizon?

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3000

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Are the constellations seasonal?

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Yes. On a summer night many of the constellations you can see are different from the constellations you can see on a winter night. But there are some constellations you can see all year long.

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At what time of the year in the northern hemisphere will your shadow in sunlight at midday be shortest?

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first day of summer, about June 21

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How long does it take light to travel a distance of one light year?

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One year or about π×107 seconds.

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What is the unit that we use to measure distances in the solar system?

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The astronomical unit or AU is very convenient.

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The most southern location on Earth where the Sun can be seen directly overhead at noon is called

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the Tropic of Capricorn

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How long would a radar signal take to complete a round trip between Earth to Mars and back to Earth when the two planets are 0.7 AU apart

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about 11.6 minutes

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Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn show retrograde motion because

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Earth moves faster in its orbit.

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Epicycles were used in Ptolemy's model to explain

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why retrograde motion occurred.

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Copernicus' important contribution to astronomy was

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proposing a simpler model for the motions of planets in the solar system.

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Which of Galileo's initial observations was most challenging to established geocentric beliefs?

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moons of Jupiter

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Newton's law of gravity states that the force between two objects

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increases with mass.

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The word planet is derived from a Greek term meaning

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wanderer

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In the geocentric model of the solar system developed by Ptolemy, the planets move

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in circular epicycles while the centers of the epicycles move in circular orbits around the Earth.

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he major contribution of Tycho Brahe to the development of modern astronomy was

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measuring planetary positions very accurately.

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epler's second law states that a planet moves fastest when it

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is closest to the Sun.

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to which point in a planetary orbit does the word perihelion refer?

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point closest to the Sun

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hich of the following sentences correctly states the significance of Galileo's observation that Jupiter has satellites (moons)?

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The observation showed that bodies can orbit an object other than the Earth.

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Suppose that a planet of the same mass as the Earth were orbiting the Sun at a distance of 10 AU. The gravitational force on this planet due to the Sun would be

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1/100 of the gravitational force the Sun exerts on the Earth.

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stronomers analyze starlight to determine a star's

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motion, temp, composition, all of the above

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What is the wavelength of a 98-MHz ("FM 98") radio signal?

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3.1 m

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Rigel appears as a bright bluish star, whereas Betelgeuse appears as a bright reddish star. Rigel is

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hotter than Betelgeuse.

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the light from a distant star is approaching you, you will observe

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its spectral lines are shorter in wavelength.

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he wavelengths of emission lines produced by an element

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are identical to its absorption lines.

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What types of electromagnetic radiation from space will reach the surface of Earth without being significantly absorbed by the Earth's atmosphere?

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visible light and radio waves

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For lecture on "Waves", a sound wave can travel through ________.

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molten rock, solid rocks

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How many times lower would the intensity of light from a given star become if the star is 2 times farther away?

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4 times

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visible wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation have a range of wavelengths of

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400 nm to 700 nm.

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forms of light have what property in common? (Light in this case refers to the whole spectrum, not just the visible range.

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All forms of light are electromagnetic radiation.

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What is the one fundamental difference between X rays and radio waves?

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the wavelengths of X rays and radio waves are very different.

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ieces of metal are heated by varying amounts in a flame. The hottest of the pieces will be the one that shows most prominently which color?

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blue

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What changes would you expect to see in the resulting spectrum of emitted light from a piece of metal when it is heated slowly in an intense flame from 500 K to 1500 K?

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he intensity of radiation would increase greatly, and the color would change from red through white to blue.

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An ideal blackbody in physics and astronomy is an object that

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absorbs and emits electromagnetic radiation at all wavelengths.

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According to the Doppler effect

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the wavelength of light is shifted to a shorter wavelength if the source of light is moving nearer to the observer.

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The Doppler effect is the change in the wavelength of light caused by the source

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moving with respect to the observer.

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he dark absorption lines in the solar spectrum are caused by

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a cooler layer of gas overlying the hot solar surface, which contains many elements, including hydrogen, helium, magnesium, calcium, and iron.

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Atoms in a low-density, hot gas (e.g., in a fluorescent lamp or a neon tube) emit a spectrum that is

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a series of specific colors unique to the type of atom in the tube but fixed in position when the gas temperature changes.

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The main reason that most professional research telescopes are reflectors is that

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mirrors produce sharper images than lenses do since there is no chromatic aberration.

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he PRIMARY reason professional observatories are built on the highest mountain tops is to

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reduce atmospheric blurring

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the Spitzer Space Telescope is stationed far from Earth because

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This infrared telescope actually does not orbit the Earth, but follows our planet around the Sun, reducing the heat interference from Earth

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The best way to study young stars hidden behind interstellar dust clouds would be to use

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infrared light

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An FSU student is observing the phases of Venus with his 16 inch reflector telescope, and a UF student is doing the same with a 8 inch reflector telescope. How much more light gathering power does the FSU telescope have?

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4 times more

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again, an FSU student is observing the phases of Venus with his 16 inch reflector telescope, and a UF student is doing the same with an 8 inch reflector telescope. How much "more" resolving power (i.e. angular resolution) does the FSU telescope have?

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Twice as much.

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Seeing in astronomy is a measurement of

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the image quality due to air stability.

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Resolution is improved by using

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larger telescopes and shorter wavelengths.

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an advantage of CCDs over photographic film is

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they don't require chemical development,digital data is easily store and transmitted, CCDs are more light sensitive than film, CCD images can be developed faster. All of the above are true.

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Radio dishes are large in order to

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improve angular resolution.

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adaptive optics refers to

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reducing atmospheric blurring using computer control.

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Radio telescopes are useful because

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observations can be made day and night, radio waves are not blocked by interstellar dust, we can see objects that don't emit visible light, they can be linked to form interferometers. Correct: All of the above are true.

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The Hubble Space Telescope (HST) offers sharper images than ground telescopes primarily because

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HST orbits above the atmosphere.

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the light-gathering power of a telescope depends directly on the

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area of its primary mirror or lens.

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What is the main reason for placing astronomical telescopes and detectors on satellites?

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to get above the absorption in the Earth's atmosphere

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The major difference(s) between the terrestrial and jovian planets involve(s)

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mass and density.

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The asteroid belt is evidence of

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ancient material from the formation of the solar system.

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Pluto seems to be more similar to

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the moons of jovian planets.

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What causes a meteor shower?

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Earth runs into the debris of an old comet littering its orbit.

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Any theory of the origin of the solar system must explain all of these EXCEPT

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the direction that planets orbit the Sun is opposite to the Sun's spin.

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The condensation sequence theory explains why

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terrestrial planets are different from jovian planets.

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xtrasolar planets the size of Earth have NOT been seen yet with current techniques because

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large planets orbiting near to their stars are more easily detected.

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s a rotating gas cloud contracts, it spins faster.

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True

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In the solar nebular theory, the dusty disk condensing around the Sun's equator became the ecliptic plane in which the planets then formed.

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true

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Due to their great masses, all four Jovian worlds are much denser than the earth.

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false

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the temperature in the solar nebula at the location now at the center of the asteroid belt is

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400k

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Strong evidence for the existence of planetary systems in the process of formation around other stars comes from

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photographs and infrared observations of disks of dust.

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The Moon's internal structure is similar to Earth's, but the Moon lacks

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a hydrosphere. a magnetosphere. an atmosphere. Correct: It lacks all of the above

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The principal greenhouse gases in our present atmosphere are

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water vapor and carbon dioxide.

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At what lunar phase would the variation between high and low tides be greatest?

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both new and full moon

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What is true of the Moon's orbital and rotational periods?

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They are equal.

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he magnetic field of the Earth probably arises from what process or condition?

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A dynamo effect due to the motion of the electrically conducting molten iron core.

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Without the greenhouse effect operating in our atmosphere,

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Earth would have an average temperature of -23 degrees Celsius.

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The Moon's near side always faces Earth due to

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Earth's tidal force.

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What are the two most abundant gases in the Earth's atmosphere

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Nitrogen and Oxygen

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Why did Earth's earliest atmosphere, composed primarily of hydrogen and helium, not last long?

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Hydrogen and helium are light gases, and they soon escaped into space.

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What is the distribution of maria on the Moon's surface?

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Maria are largely confined to the hemisphere facing Earth; there is only one small mare on the distant side.

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How do the atmospheres of the Moon and Mercury compare?

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Neither body has a permanent atmosphere.

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Mercury has extreme high and low temperatures between night and day because

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it has no atmosphere to moderate temperatures over the globe.

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hich of the following inner solar system bodies has the densest atmosphere?

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venus

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he greenhouse effect on Venus is due to carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

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carbon dioxide

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enus' surface shows all of the following EXCEPT

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many impact craters of all sizes.

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Venus and Mars probably evolved differently from Earth because

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they orbit at different distances from the Sun.

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How does Mercury's rotation rate relate to its orbit around the Sun?

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Its rotation rate is 2× as long as its year, due to tidal resonances.

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Venus' rotation once about its axis

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takes longer than its orbit around the Sun.

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The chief gas in the martian atmosphere is

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carbon dioxide.

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Why are Mars's seasons more extreme than those of the Earth?

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weather is driven by evaporation from the polar ice in its summer. orbit is more eccentric than our almost circular one. seas dried up long ago. axial tilt is slightly more than our 23.5 degrees. Correct: All of the above contribute to the huge barometric changes that Mars experiences.

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Why doesn't Venus have a magnetic field?

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Its extremely slow rotation doesn't produce a significant dynamo effect.

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The craters on the Moon and on Mercury surfaces are due to

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impacts from meteorites and asteroids.

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The surface temperature on Venus is

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much higher than that on the surface of the Earth.

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Mercury can be seen easily from the Earth only

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when Mercury is near the Sun, just after sunset or just before sunrise.

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the best images of the overall topology of Venus have been produced by

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reflection of microwave and short radio wave radiation from the surface by an orbiting spacecraft.

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The most likely explanation for the retrograde rotation (rotation in a direction opposite that of most other planets) of Venus is the

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impact of a massive object on it early in its history

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Anatomy Autonomic Nervous System Central Nervous System Day Night Cycle Health Science

Biological Bases of Behavior – Flashcards 108 terms

Claire Forth

108 terms

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Biological Bases of Behavior – Flashcards

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central nervous system (CNS)

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Division of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord

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peripheral nervous system (PNS)

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the sensory and motor neurons that connect the CNS to the rest of the body

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somatic nervous system

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division of the peripheral nervous system that control's the body's skeletal muscles.

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neuron

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a nerve cell; basic cell of the nervous system

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sensory (afferent) neurons

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neurons that carry information from the receptors to the spinal cord and brain

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motor (efferent) neurons

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neurons that carry information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles

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autonomic nervous system (ANS)

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division of the peripheral nervous system involved in the control of (generally unconscious/automatic) bodily functioning through organs and glands; its sympathetic division arouses while the parasympathetic division calms

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sympathetic nervous system

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subdivision of the autonomic nervous system responsible for mobilizing the body in times of stress, and preparing for flight or fight

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parasympathetic nervous system

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subdivision of the autonomic nervous system responsible for calming the body

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reflex

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automatic behavior in response to a specific stimulus; does not involve communication with the brain

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brainstem

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the oldest part and central core of the brain; responsible for automatic survival functions and composed of medulla, pons, and reticular formation.

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pons

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structure of the brainstem that allows for communication between the cerebellum, cerebral cortex, & brain stem; has nuclei that are important for sleep and arousal

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medulla

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base of the brainstem; controls heartbeat & breathing

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reticular formation

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band of nerve fibers that run through the center of the brain stem; important in controlling arousal levels

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cerebellum

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structure of the hindbrain that coordinates voluntary muscular movements

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corpus callosum

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wide band of neural fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain

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limbic system

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a group of structures located beneath the cerebral cortex that are involved in regulating emotions and motivated behaviors

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thalamus

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subcortical structure that relays incoming sensory information to the cerebral cortex and other parts of the brain; a.k.a "sensory switchboard"

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electroenchephalogram (EEG)

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device that monitors and records waves of electric activity within the brain; measured by electrodes placed on the scalp

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positron emission tomography (PET scan)

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visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a given task

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computed tomography (CT scan)

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imaging technique that involves the production of a large number of X-rays interpreted by a computer

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MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

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imaging technique that involves the use of radio waves and a strong magnetic field to produce a signal that can be interpreted by computer

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dendrites

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short, branchlike structures of a neuron that receive information from receptors and other neurons

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fMRI

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technique for revealing bloodflow and, therefore, brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans; capable of showing BOTH structure and function of the brain

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soma

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cell body of a neuron

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axon

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part of a neuron tha transmits information to other neurons and to muscles and glands

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myelin sheath

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fatty protein substance that covers some axons, increasing speed of transmission

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neurotransmitters

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chemical messengers that cross the synaptic gap between neurons

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synapse

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site where two or more neurons interact but do not touch

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reuptake

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method of clearing a neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft, in which the neurotransmitter is reabsorbed into the terminal buttons

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synaptic vesicles

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small pockets or sacs located in terminal buttons that contain a neurotransmitter

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agonist

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a molecule (e.g., drug) that enhances the operation of a neurotransmitter

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antagonist

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a molecule (e.g., drug) that blocks or inhibits the operation of a neurotransmitter

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endorphins

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"morphine within"; natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to pleasure

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resting potential

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electrical charge (negative) of a neuron when it is not firing

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action potential

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brief electrial charge that travels down the axon; a process also called "depolarization"

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threshold

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the level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse

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refractory period

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period, after firing, during which the neuron is unable to fire because it is repolarizing

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aphasia

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loss of ability to speak or understand written or spoken language

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endocrine system

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the body's "slow" chemical communication system; a set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream

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hormones

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chemicals produced by the glands of the endocrine system that are carried by the bloodstream to other body tissues

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pituitary gland

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gland located below the thalamus and hypothalamus; called the "master gland" of the endocrine system because it controls many other glands

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biological psychology

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branch of psychology concerned with the links between biology and behavior

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acetylcholine (ACh)

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a neurotransmitter that enables muscle action, learning and memory; an undersupply is linked with Alzheimer's disease

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dopamine

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a neurotransmitter that influences movement, learning and attention; overactivity of receptors linked to schizophrenia while an undersupply linked to Parkinson's disease

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serotonin

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a neurotransmitter that affects mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal. An undersupply of this neurotransmitter is linked with depression.

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norepinephrine

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a neurotransmitter that controls alertness and arousal; undersupply can depress mood

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GABA

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a major inhibitory neurotransmitter; undersupply linked to seizures, tremors, and insomnia

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glutamate

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a major excitatory neurotransmitter; oversupply can overstimulate brain, producing migraines or seizures

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nerves

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bundled axons that form neural "cables" connecting the CNS to the rest of the body

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interneurons

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central nervous system neurons that internally communicate and intervene between sensory inputs and motor outputs

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lesion

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brain destruction; can be naturally caused or created for experimentation

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hippocampus

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structure in the limbic system important in processing memories

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hypothalamus

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structure in the limbic system responsible for directing several maintenance activities (eating, drinking, body temp); helps govern endocrine system via the pituitary gland

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Paul Broca

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responsible for discovering the area on the left frontal lobe responsible for coordinating muscle movements involved in spoken language

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Carl Wernicke

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discovered a brain area responsible for interpreting meaning of language

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depolarization

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process of neural firing; when action potential is generated and the neuron briefly takes on a positive charge

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all-or-none response

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neuron will only fire (if threshold is reached) OR not fire (if stimulation is insufficient)

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amygdala

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the two almond-shaped nerve clusters in the limbic system believed to be responsible for fear and aggressive responses

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cerebral cortex

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wrinkled, gray covering of the brain that accounts for 80% of brain weight is responsible for complex processing of information, planning, learning, memory storage, etc.

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Phineas Gage

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famous case study in neuroscience; sustained catastrophic damage to his frontal lobes

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motor cortex

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located on the rear of the frontal lobes; responsible for directing voluntary movement on the opposite side of the body

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somatosensory cortex

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located on the front of the parietal lobes; registers and processes body touch and movement sensations

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occipital lobes

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portion of the cerebral cortex at the "back" of the head; contains the visual cortex

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temporal lobes

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portion of the cerebral cortex located on the "sides" of the brain lying roughly above the ears; includes auditory areas, each receiving information primarily from the opposite ear

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Roger Sperry & Michael Gazzaniga

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studied split brain patients

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phrenology

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early, misguided attempt at studying the functions of parts of the brain; held that bumps on the skull revealed the person's personality traits

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Franz Gall

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early comparative brain anatomist; developed phrenology

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Broca's area

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area (usually in the left frontal lobe) that directs the muscle movements involved in speech

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Wernicke's area

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brain area involved in language comprehension; usually in left temporal lobe

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association areas

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Areas of the cerebral cortex that are not involved in primary motor or sensory functions; rather, they are involved in higher mental functions such as learning, remembering, thinking, and speaking

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angular gyrus

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transforms visual representations into an auditory code; damage to this leaves the person unable to speak and understand, but able to read

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neuroplasticity

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Brain's ability to reorganize and change its structure and function throughout the life span, in reponse to injury or new learning

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Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)

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blow to head or a penetrating head injury that damages brain

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hemispheric specialization

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This is also called lateralization; refers to the fact that the left and right hemispheres of the brain have some specific functions that exist only in those hemispheres.

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contralateral control

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The left hemisphere controls the right side of the body and the right hemisphere controls the left side.

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nervous system

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the body's speedy, electrochemical communication network, consisting of all the nerve cells of the central and peripheral nervous systems.

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adrenal glands

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A pair of endocrine glands that sit just above the kidneys and secrete hormones that help arouse the body in times of stress.

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parietal lobes

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Portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the top of the head and toward the rear; receives sensory input for touch and body position.

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glial cells (glia)

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Cells in the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons.

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frontal lobes

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the portion of the cerebral cortex lying just behind the forehead; involved in speaking and muscle movements and in making plans and judgments

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neurogenesis

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formation of new neurons

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split brain

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A condition in which the two hemispheres of the brain are isolated by cutting the connecting fibers (mainly those of the corpus callosum) between them

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consciousness

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Awareness of ourselves and our environment

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cognitive neuroscience

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The interdisciplinary study of the brain activity linked with cognition (including perception, thinking, memory, and language).

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dual processing

answer

The principle that information is often simultaneously processed on separate conscious and unconscious tracks; also known as "parallel processing"

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multiple sclerosis

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a progressive disease of the nervous system that involves a degeneration of the myelin that surrounds nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cor

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adoption studies

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Assess hereditary influence by examining the resemblance between adopted children and both their biological and their adoptive parents.

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behavior genetics

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the study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior

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Charles Darwin

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English natural scientist who formulated a theory of evolution by natural selection

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chromosomes

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Threadlike, gene-carrying structures found in a cell's nucleus (46 in body cells; 23 in sex cells). Each chromosome consists of one very long DNA molecule and associated proteins.

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concordance rates

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The percentage of cases where both twins share the same trait or disorder

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Dmitry Belyaev

answer

Russian geneticist who, through artificial selection, bred tame foxes

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DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

answer

a complex molecule containing the genetic information that makes up chromosomes

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epigenetics

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study of how the environment can alter gene expression or function (e.g. light, nutrition, temperature, presence of other species); example of interaction of nature & nurture

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evolutionary psychology

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The study of the evolution of behavior and the mind, using principles of natural selection.

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fraternal twins

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Twins who develop from separate eggs; dizygotic (DZ) twins. They are genetically no closer than brothers and sisters, but they share a fetal environment.

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genes

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biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes; a segment of DNA capable of synthesizing a protein

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genome

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All the genetic information in an organism; all of an organism's chromosomes.

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heritability

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the proportion of variation among individuals that is related to genetic variation; estimates may vary depending on the range of populations and environments studied

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identical twins

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Also known as monozygotic (MZ) twins; twins who develop from a single fertilized egg that splits in two, resulting in two individuals that share the exact same DNA.

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molecular genetics

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the subfield of biology that studies the molecular structure and function of genes

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mutation

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A random error in gene replication that leads to a change in nucleotide sequence.

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natural selection

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A process in which individuals that have certain inherited traits tend to survive and reproduce at higher rates than other individuals because of those traits.

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nucleotides

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the "letters" of the DNA alphabet; they appear in pairs on the DNA molecule

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Thomas Bouchard

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U of M researcher who studied identical twins separated at birth

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epinephrine

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A hormone produced by the adrenal glands that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system (and its "fight or flight" response). Also sometimes referred to as a neurotransmitter.

question

prefrontal cortex

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the front-most portion of the frontal lobes; involved in planning and reasoning; one of the last areas of the brain to mature (and sometimes used to explain adolescents' relative lack of impulse control).

STUDY

Day Night Cycle Early Maturing Girls Introductory Psychology Psychology

PSY 205: Chapter 9 – Flashcards 32 terms

Tony Foust

32 terms

Preview

PSY 205: Chapter 9 – Flashcards

question

a girl's first menstrual period.

answer

Menarche is:

question

spermarche.

answer

For boys, the event that most closely parallels menarche is:

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her hips growing wider.

answer

Nancy, age 12, has just experienced a sudden growth spurt. According to the usual sequence of puberty, soon she will notice:

question

his penis growing longer and wider.

answer

Bill noticed that he has some pubic hair. According to the usual sequence of puberty, his next growth event will probably be:

question

Testosterone

answer

___________ is the sex hormone secreted in greater amounts by males than females.

question

is due to hormonal shifts.

answer

Since he entered puberty, Barry has been staying awake late at night and craving sleep in the mornings. His parents should realize that this:

question

precocious puberty.

answer

Latisha experienced menarche when she was 8 years old. She experienced:

question

teasing and name-calling from her classmates.

answer

Ellie is 10 years old and well into puberty. She will probably experience:

question

growth of fingers and toes.

answer

One of the first signs of the growth spurt is:

question

higher; body fat

answer

Janet and Carlos are both experiencing a growth spurt. If they are typical adolescents, Janet will have a ________ proportion of __________ than Carlos.

question

match his size from the previous year.

answer

Garry is taking a weight-lifting class in high school. The weights he lifts should:

question

an increase in skin oils and sweat.

answer

Adolescent acne is usually caused by:

question

1300; 500

answer

The recommended daily dose of calcium is ____ milligrams; most teens consume less than ____ milligrams per day.

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a steak to increase her iron.

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Sharon is concerned about deficiencies in her daughter Alana's diet. If Alana is a typical teen, Sharon should feed her:

question

They are dissatisfied with their bodies.

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Studies indicate that adolescents worldwide share this problem.

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anorexia nervosa.

answer

Patty is 5 feet tall and weighs 87 pounds yet when she looks in the mirror, she sees an overweight girl. She does aerobics for two hours daily and eats very little. Patty MOST likely suffers from:

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bulimia nervosa.

answer

Josefina is obsessed with her weight. She sometimes eats a whole package of Oreos at once and then makes herself vomit. Josefina is of normal weight, but she constantly has heartburn. She MOST likely suffers from:

question

His prefrontal cortex is underdeveloped.

answer

Xavier, 16, invites a group of his high school friends to swim in a neighbor's pool late at night while that neighbor is away. They climb the fence and jump in, playing wildly and loudly in the water. Just a few minutes later, the police arrive. How does adolescent brain development help explain Xavier's poor decision making?

question

adolescent egocentrism.

answer

A 15-year-old girl realizes that the dress she has worn to school has a small stain on it. Her belief that everyone will notice it is an example of:

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the invincibility fable.

answer

Sixteen-year-old Paul drinks heavily and drives dangerously fast, believing that he cannot be hurt. Paul is demonstrating:

question

her belief in an imaginary audience.

answer

Marsha says, "There is no way I am going to school today with this bruise on my cheek. Everybody is going to laugh at me." Marsha is demonstrating:

question

formal operational thought.

answer

Piaget called the reasoning that characterizes adolescence:

question

put weights on both sides without considering distance from the center of the scale.

answer

Jeremy is 7 years old and has been asked to balance a scale with weights that can be hooked to the arms of the scale. Jeremy will probably:

question

concrete operational thought.

answer

In Inhelder and Piaget's balance experiment, trial-and-error problem solving was most characteristic of (What kind of thought?):

question

hypothetical thought.

answer

Reasoning that includes propositions and possibilities that may not reflect reality defines:

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inductive reasoning.

answer

Three different girls tell Brian that Titanic is their all-time favorite movie. He concludes that all girls love that movie. Brian has just used:

question

deductive reasoning.

answer

Elle, an adolescent, believes that government should pay for all citizens' health care. From this premise, she reasons about the particulars of how and why government-funded health care would work. This is an example of:

question

intuitive

answer

Fifteen-year-old Richard wants to be allowed to drive the family car, even though he does not yet have a driver's license. When his parents ask him why he thinks he should have driving privileges, he answers, "I know other kids who do it, and it's just stupid that I have to wait another 3 months until I turn 16." This is an example of what kind of thinking?

question

analytical

answer

Fifteen-year-old Latrina has a 10 P.M. curfew. She asks her parents to extend her curfew to 11 P.M. on weekends. When her parents ask her why, Latrina replies, "I've never been late for my 10 P.M. curfew. You can trust me. Can we at least give it a try?" This is an example of what kind of thinking?

question

decline.

answer

Rachel and Matt are in their first year of middle school. Statistically, one would expect their academic achievement to:

question

cyberbullying.

answer

Spreading insults and rumors by means of e-mails, text messages, or Web postings is called:

question

300

answer

High school guidance counselors in the United States have an average caseload of _____ students.

STUDY

Adolescent Growth Spurt Boys And Girls Contemporary Issues: Developmental Psychology Day Night Cycle Fingers And Toes Formal Operational Thought Poor Body Image Psychology

HD 101 Test Three Practice Questions – Flashcards 34 terms

Kevin Stewart

34 terms

Preview

HD 101 Test Three Practice Questions – Flashcards

question

Adolescent acne is usually caused by _____

answer

an increase in skin oils and sweat

question

Statistically, which person is MOST likely to have the greatest health problems as a result of iron deficiency?

answer

16 year old Marilyn who is menstruating

question

Marcy says, "There is no way I am going to school today with this bruise on my cheek. Everybody is going to laugh at me." Marcy is demonstrating _____.

answer

the imaginary audience

question

Research on younger and older adolescents' analytic thinking indicated that _____.

answer

most adolescents do no think as analytically as their capabilities allow

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Joss thinks he is more unique and admired than other adolescents his age and is certain that everyone is paying attention to his every action. It appears that he has started to experience adolescent _____.

answer

egocentrism

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Research has shown that adolescents who drop out of high school may show early signs of high school dropout by _____.

answer

middle school

question

Which of the following has NOT been associated with early maturation among girls?

answer

less alcohol use

question

An example of a behavior that demonstrates identity foreclosure is _____.

answer

working in the family business because it is expected

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The term for a pause in identity formation, when alternatives are explored before final choices are made, is known as _____.

answer

moratorium

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Almost all social networking engaged in by adolescents is between adolescents _____.

answer

who are friends

question

Alisha took an overdose of prescription pills, but before she lost consciousness she called her mom for help. Alisha was rushed to the hospital for medical attention. Alisha's behavior is defined as _____.

answer

Parasuicide

question

Ty started to behave aggressively at age 5, and by age 8 was caught shoplifting several times. Ty is now age 25 and has committed armed robbery. Ty would be considered to be a(n) _____.

answer

life-course-persistent offender

question

Several suicides within the same group of people in a brief period are called _____ suicides.

answer

Cluster

question

According to the text, which of the following is NOT a possible reason for the decrease in juvenile criminal behavior?

answer

Lenient drug laws

question

What global trend is evident with regard to alcohol?

answer

Low-income nations have more abstainers and abusers than affluent nations.

question

Currently in the United States, _____ of adults are overweight

answer

Two Thirds

question

Intelligence that reflects accumulated learning is referred to as _____.

answer

Crystallized Intelligence

question

All of the following contribute to the development of expertise EXCEPT _____.

answer

gender

question

Sylvia is 50 years old and is experiencing vaginal dryness, hot flashes, hot flushes, and cold sweats. She is most likely entering _____

answer

Menopause

question

Thinking that occurs without deliberate, conscious thought is _____ processing

answer

Automatic

question

A dynamic long-term body adjustment that affects overall physiology is referred to as ______.

answer

Allostasis

question

The recent effort by countries around the world to increase the number of young people attending college is prompted by national governments' belief in _____.

answer

Massification

question

All of the following beliefs reflect cognitive flexibility EXCEPT _______.

answer

Life plans are static

question

Silas was raised in a home where men did not help with housework or cooking because those chores were deemed "women's work." At age 20, he does not agree with that view, but hides his negative reaction to it when visiting his parents' home. Silas is demonstrating _____.

answer

cognitive flexibility

question

Cognitively, what helps counter stereotypes?

answer

Flexibility

question

Which of the following is likely to be a possible reaction to stereotype threat?

answer

the high school drop-out rate for African American males should increase

question

_____ relationships have high rates of verbal and physical abuse.

answer

Churning

question

After children have grown, MOST couples find that _____.

answer

their relationships improve

question

The group of people that moves through life with an individual while providing both protection and encouragement is called a _____.

answer

social convoy

question

Chris is high in extroversion and therefore will probably _____.

answer

Get married

question

After a recent divorce and many years as a stay-at-home mom, Cheryl is entering the workforce. As a single parent with three children, she needs a livable wage, good benefits, and a retirement plan. She is focused on the _____ of work.

answer

extrinsic rewards

question

When the thought required for an action has become routine, and it appears that most aspects of the task are performed instinctively, the performance of the task is _____.

answer

Automatic

question

Since they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the _____.

answer

sandwich generation

question

In every nation, _____ are much more likely to be the main caregivers for the frail elderly

answer

female relatives

STUDY

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