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Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Finance
Intermediate Accounting 1
Intermediate Accounting 2
ACCT 3111 Ch 2 WileyPlus – Flashcards 44 terms

Steven Ramirez
44 terms
Preview
ACCT 3111 Ch 2 WileyPlus – Flashcards
question
Generally accepted accounting principles
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derive their credibility and authority from general recognition and acceptance by the accounting profession.
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A soundly developed conceptual framework of concepts and objectives should A) increase financial statement users' understanding of and confidence in financial reporting. B) enhance comparability among companies' financial statements. C) allow new and emerging practical problems to be more quickly solved. D) all of these answer choices are correct.
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all of these answers are correct
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What is a purpose of having a conceptual framework?
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To enable the profession to more quickly solve emerging practical problems and to provide a foundation from which to build more useful standards.
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Which of the following is not a benefit associated with the FASB Conceptual Framework Project? A) Business entities will need far less assistance from accountants because the financial reporting process will be quite easy to apply. B) Practical problems should be more quickly solvable by reference to an existing conceptual framework. C) A coherent set of accounting standards and rules should result. D)A conceptual framework should increase financial statement users' understanding of and confidence in financial reporting.
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Business entities will need far less assistance from accountants because the financial reporting process will be quite easy to apply.
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The underlying theme of the conceptual framework is
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decision usefulness.
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The objective of general-purpose financial reporting is to provide financial information about a reporting entity to each of the following except A) potential equity investors. B) potential lenders. C) present investors. D) all of these answers are correct.
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all of these answers are correct.
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The objective of general-purpose financial reporting is?
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to provide financial information about the reporting entity that is useful to present and potential equity investors, lenders, and other creditors in making decisions in their capacity as capital providers
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Which of the following is a characteristic describing the fundamental quality of relevance?
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Predictive value.
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Which of the following is a fundamental quality of useful accounting information?
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Faithful representation
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What is meant by comparability when discussing financial accounting information?
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Information is measured and reported in a similar fashion across companies.
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What is meant by consistency when discussing financial accounting information?
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Information presented by a company applies the same accounting treatment to similar events, from period to period.
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Which of the following is an ingredient of relevance?
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Materiality
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Which of the following is an ingredient of faithful representation?
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Neutrality
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A company issuing its annual financial reports within one month of the end of the year is an example of which enhancing quality of accounting information?
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Timeliness
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What is the quality of information that is capable of making a difference in a decision?
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Relevance
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The two fundamental qualities that make accounting information useful for decision making are
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relevance and faithful representation.
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Accounting information is considered to be relevant when it
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is capable of making a difference in a decision.
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Which of the following does not relate to relevance? A) Materiality. B) Predictive value. C) Confirmatory value. D) All of these answer choices relate to relevance
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All of these answer choices relate to relevance
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Neutrality means that information
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cannot be selected to favor one set of interested parties over another.
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The characteristic that is demonstrated when a high degree of consensus can be secured among independent measurers using the same measurement methods is
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verifiability
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According to Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 8, predictive value is an ingredient of the fundamental quality(ies) of:
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Relevance: YES Faithful Representation: NO
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Under Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2, free from error is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of
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Faithful Representation: YES Relevance: NO
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In classifying the elements of financial statements, the primary distinction between revenues and gains is
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the nature of the activities that gave rise to the transactions involved.
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Which of the following elements of financial statements is not a component of comprehensive income? A) Expenses B) Losses C) Revenues D) Distributions to owners
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Distributions to owners
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According to the FASB conceptual framework, which of the following elements describes transactions or events that affect a company during a period of time?
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Expenses
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According to the FASB Conceptual Framework, the elements-assets, liabilities, and equity-describe amounts of resources and claims to resources at/during a
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Moment in Time: YES Period of Time: NO
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Which of the following is not a basic element of financial statements? A) Assets B) Balance sheet C) Losses D) Revenue
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Balance sheet
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Which of the following basic elements of financial statements is more associated with the balance sheet than the income statement?
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Equity
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Which of the following is not a basic assumption underlying the financial accounting structure? A) Historical cost assumption B) Economic entity assumption C) Going concern assumption D)Periodicity assumption
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Historical cost assumption
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Which basic assumption is illustrated when a firm reports financial results on an annual basis?
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Periodicity assumption
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Which basic assumption may not be followed when a firm in bankruptcy reports financial results? A) Monetary unit assumption B) Economic entity assumption C) Going concern assumption D)Periodicity assumption
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Going concern assumption
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Which of the following basic accounting assumptions is threatened by the existence of severe inflation in the economy?
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Monetary unit assumption
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Preparation of consolidated financial statements when a parent-subsidiary relationship exists is an example of the
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economic entity assumption.
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Proponents of historical cost ordinarily maintain that in comparison with all other valuation alternatives for general purpose financial reporting, statements prepared using historical costs are more
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verifiable
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Revenue is recognized in the accounting period in which the performance obligation is satisfied. This statement describes the
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revenue recognition principle.
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Revenue generally should be recognized
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when the performance obligation is satisfied.
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Recognizing expenses not when a company pays wages, but when the work actually contributes to revenue in in accordance with the
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expense recognition principle.
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Which of the following serves as the justification for the periodic recording of depreciation expense? A) Systematic and rational allocation of cost over the periods benefited. B) Minimization of income tax liability. C) Immediate recognition of an expense. D) Association of efforts (expense) with accomplishments (revenue).
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Systematic and rational allocation of cost over the periods benefited
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is demonstrated by the use of supplementary information explaining the effects of financing arrangements.
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Application of the full disclosure principle
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Which of the following is not a required component of financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles? A) Income statement. B) Notes to financial statements. C) President's letter to shareholders. D) Balance sheet.
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President's letter to shareholders.
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Which accounting assumption or principle is being violated if a company is a party to major litigation that it may lose and decides not to include the information in the financial statements because it may have a negative impact on the company's stock price?
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Full disclosure.
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Materiality is used in all of the following situations of providing financial information, except A) where it would not make a difference in the actions of a decision maker. B) where it would impact the judgment of a reasonable person. C) where an amount is of relative large size and importance. D) where omission of the information would result in bias.
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where it would not make a difference in the actions of a decision maker.
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The second level of the conceptual framework includes each of the following except: A) principles. B) enhancing qualities. C) elements. D) fundamental qualities.
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principles.
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According to the FASB's conceptual framework, predictive value is an ingredient of
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Relevance: YES Faithful Representation: NO
Accounting
Basic Financial Statements
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Finance
Financial Accounting
First Quarter Of The Year
Intermediate Accounting 1
intermediate accounting chapter 2 – Flashcards 156 terms

Henry Smith
156 terms
Preview
intermediate accounting chapter 2 – Flashcards
question
t/f the fasb has taken the conceptual framework to a higher level than the IASB
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false
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t/f US GAAP and IFRS set forth the same objective of financial reporting in their respective conceptual frameworks
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true
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t/f the conceptual framework indicates that the primary users of financial information are investors, lenders and managers
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false
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t/f the conceptual framework indicates that the primary users of financial information are the investors, lenders and other creditors
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true
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t/f publicly traded US companies are required to comply with IFRS
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false
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t/f the FASB's decisions are often based on an investor's need to form an opinion about a company's future cash flows
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true
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what is the primary challenge for financial reporting?
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to stay relevent to the needs of investors, lenders and creditors
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the conceptual framework assists with
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the development of a set of standards which ensure that financial reports meet the needs of investors and creditors
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which of the following types of information is not a focus of the primary objective of financial reporting
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information that helps an investor form an opinion about a company's future cash flows
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the primary purpose of financial reporting is to provide information that is useful to a companies _____?
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suppliers
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which of the following is not considered to be a primary user of financial information which financial reporting standards are designed?
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regulator
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who are the primary users of financial information? discuss how fasb and iasb take them into account
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primary users are investors lenders and other creditors that cannot demand information from the entity. When making decisions regarding the conceptual frameworks, the boards consider the needs of these groups to have access to relevant information when assessing the financial health of a company and in forming opinions about the state of the company.
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Ronaldo Woods is a student getting his degree in business administration. He does not like his accounting class very much, and doesn't understand why he needs to study accounting — stating "I'm never going to be an accountant — why do I need to know this?" Explain to Ronaldo why it is important for business students to learn about accounting and give examples.
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should include discussion on accountability and transparency. Other points could be the need to talk intelligently with their accountant, to know which gauges to watch (and be able to understand their meaning and consequence), and be able to identify economic events that could impact the company. (If open book exam, they could reference the interview with Paul Pacter from Section 2.2.)
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t/f currently the FASB and IASB have two separate conceptual frameworks which are partially converged
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true
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t/f a purpose of the conceptual framework is to override accounting standards
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false
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t/f the conceptual framework defines the objective of financial reporting as providing financial information that is useful in making decisiosn about resource allocation
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true
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t/f a key relationship among the conceptual framework components is the direct effect of financial reporting standards on the elements of the financial statement
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false
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t/f a key relationship among the conceptual framework components is the impact the objective of financial reporting has on the qualitative characteristics that are considered to make accounting information useful
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true
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t/f a purpose of IASB's conceptual framework is to assist preparers, auditors and users of financial statements
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true
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a purpose of FASB's conceptual framework is to assist preparers auditors and users of financial statements
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false
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_______ are identical under US GAAP and IFRS
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objective and qualitative characteristics
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which of the following is not a purpose of FASB's conceptual framework
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ovverride existing accounting standards
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when developing new standards, the standard setters must first determine_____?
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if the proposed standard meets the objective of financial reporting
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when developing a new proposed accounting standard, after FASB has determined that the proposed standard meets the objective of financial reporting, the enxt step in the developmental process is to
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consider whether the proposed standard possesses the qualitative characteristics that make accounting information useful
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the primary purpose of the conceptual framework is to provide guidance too
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standard setters (The framework provides some guidance to preparers and auditors, but the best answer would be C, standard setters, as it provides them the most guidance with development of standards. )
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which of the following best characterizes the current situation concerning revisions to the conceptual framework?
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the FASB and the IASB are working independently on their conceptual framework
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in the conceptual framework, what are the two types of qualitative characteristics of financial reporting?
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fundamental and enhancing
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in the conceptual framework, what are the two types of elements of financial reporting
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recognition and measurement
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the IASB and FASB share the goal that standards will be based on an agreed set of fundamental_______?
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concepts
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all of the following are primary components of the conceptual framework for financial reporting except
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standards
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what is the purpose of the conceptual framework
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the purpose of the conceptual framework is to establish objectives and fundamental concepts that are the basis for developing and revising financial accounting and reporting standards
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discuss how standard setters use the conceptual framework in developing new standards
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standard setters will determine if the proposed standard meets the objective of financial reporting, establish that the information provided by the new standard possesses qualitative characteristics that make accounting information usefule, consider the elements of the financial statements affected and the recognition and measurement concept use to support the new standard, weigh constraints such as the cost and benefit of issuing the new standard which may deter requiring the new standard
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list three active phases in the FASB conceptual framework project
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objective and qualitative characteristics, measurement, presentation and disclosure
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List the three primary components of the conceptual framework for financial reporting and the two subcomponents of each component.
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qualitative, made of fundamental and enhancing characteristics. Elements, made of point-in-time and period of time. Principles, made of recognition and measurement.
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t/f the two types of qualitative characteristics are fundamental characteristics and elective characteristics
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false
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t/f the role of qualitative characteristics in the conceptual framework is to increase the decision of usefulness of financial information
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true
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t/f information exhibits the characteristics of faithful representation if it is complete, neutral and free from errors
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true
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t/f information is relevant if it reliably depicts the substance of an economic event
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false
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t/f information has predictive value if it provides feedback about prior evaluations
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false
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t/f information that is not material is never relevant
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true
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t/f verifiability is a characteristic of faithful representation
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false
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t/f relevance is an enhancing characteristic of financial information
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false
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t/f information that is not accurate can be considered faithfully representative
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true
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t/f materialty cannot always be expressed quantitatively but sometimes requires judgement
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true
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the two fundamental characteristics of financial information are
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faithful representation and relevance
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the most important characteristic of accounting information is whether it is
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free from error
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_______ characteristics distinguish useful financial information from information that is not useful
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fundamental
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what are the attributes of relevant information?
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materiality, predictive value, and confirmatory value
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which of the following is not a characteristic of relevance
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free from error
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_______ indicates whether financial information depicts an economic event in a way that is complete, neutral and free from error
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faithful representation
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which of the following is a characteristic of faithful representation
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complete
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the attribute ______ relates to the information that is relevant
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predictive value
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all of the following are enhancing characteristics except
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consistency
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_________means that a group of reasonably informed financial statement users are able to reach a consensus decision that reported information is a faithful representation of an underlying economic event.
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verifiability
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Financial statements should provide all financial information that is relevant and faithfully representative within the limitations of the ________ constraint.
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cost
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baxter company issues its annual financial reports within one month of the end of the year. This is an example of which enhancing quality of accounting information?
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timeliness
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TLR Studio reported earnings per share of $2.11. This surpassed the average analyst forecast of $2.06. This information has ________ to users of financial information.
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confirmatory value
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Poseidon Corp is aware that a large portion of receivables may become uncollectible because the customer is in talks for bankruptcy. By choosing not to disclose this information, the information provided in the statements ________.
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does not faithfully represent the firms financial position
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25) Black Gold Gem Co omitted the fact that a mine has been depleted ahead of estimates. Because of this omission, the financial information provided to users ________.
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is not free from error, does not faithfully represent the firms financial position.
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Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: "Financial statements that are free from error are accurate." Explain your answer.
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A financial statement that is free from error is not the same thing as an accurate statement. The nature of accrual accounting is one that relies on estimates; therefore, when saying information reported is free from error, it is really referring to the process used to generate the financial statements being error-free. The amounts reported may be different than the actual amounts in accounts that rely on estimates.
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What is the cost constraint and how does it affect financial reporting?
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standard setters should compare the cost of requiring information to the benefits derived from presenting this information . Standard setters consider costs for both financial statement reporters and users. To be reported, accounting information not only must be relevant and faithfully represented but it also must pass an economic test by satisfying the cost constraint.
question
Caesar & Company is planning a major expansion, and is in negotiations with their bank for a loan. The bank requested that Caesar & Co provide them with financial statements as soon as possible after the end of the year. Caesar & Co has several suppliers that are slow to submit invoices, so they are considering making estimates for the amounts associated with those liabilities in order to expedite the preparation of the financial statements for the bank. Discuss the qualitative characteristics that they need to consider.
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This will be a trade-off between verifiability and timeliness. By estimating the amounts for the liabilities, the statements will be less verifiable — because the associated invoices will not be available. However, this will allow them to prepare the statements quickly — and timeliness stipulates that financial information is available to users early enough to assist with decision making.
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t/f US GAAP and IFRS identify the same three period of time elements
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false
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t/f US GAAP and IFRS identify the same three point in time elements
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t/f
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t/f elements are categorized by whether they are relevant or faithfully representative
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false
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t/f according to IFRS, point in time elements include assets, liabilities and equity
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true
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t/f according to IFRS, period of time elements include income expenses performance and transactions with owners
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false
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t/f comprehensive income is the residual interest in the assets of an entity that remains after deducting its liabilities
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false
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t/f according to US gaap, period of time elements include investments by owners, revenues, comprehensive income and others
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true
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t/f IFRS does not treat transactions with owners as separate elements
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true
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t/f the IFRS element capital maintenance is identical to the GAAP element comprehensive income
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false
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t/f according to IFRS there are two types of capital maintenance adjustments: financial and physical
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true
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under US GAAP, comprehensive income includes which of the following
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Investments by owners: No Operating Income: Yes
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what is the term that describes the building blocks of the financial statements?
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elements
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______ elements appear on the balance sheet
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point in time
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under US GAAP, _____ is an example of a period of time element and appears on the _________
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sales revenue, income statement
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IFRS and US GAAP both identify assets as
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point in time elements
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US GAAP identifies _____ point in time elements
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three
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US GAAP identifies ______ period in time elements
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seven
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IFRS identifies ____ point in time elements
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three
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IFRS identifies _____ period in time elements
answer
four
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changes in equity that result from the company's central business operations are
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revenues and expenses
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which of the following terms describe probably future economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity as a result of past transactions or events
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asset
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__________ includes all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from transactions with owners
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comprehensive income
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which element of the financial statements results from peripheral or incidental transactions
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gains
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which of the following statements is not true about distributions of owners
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distributions to owners are included in other comprehensive income
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the primary distinction between expenses and losses is ____?
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the nature of the activities that bring about the transactions
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IFRS element performance refers to
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profit
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The IFRS element income relates to which US GAAP element
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revenues and gains
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the IFRS element expenses encompasses which US GAAP elements
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losses and expenses
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_____ are restatements or revaluations of reported amounts of assets and liabilities that companies usually report in comprehensive income
answer
Capital and Maintenance
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_______ are restatements or revaluations of reported amounts of assets and liabilities that companies usually report in comprehensive income
answer
Capital maintenance adjustments
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Under the concept of ____, capital is regarded in terms of the productive capacity of a company
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physical capital maintenance
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financial capital maintenance refers to the concept that capital is viewed in terms of
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the monetary investment in the company
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What is the relationship between the point in time elements and the period of time elements
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the period of time elements provide a way to describe how the point in time elements change during the accounting period
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what is equity and how does it change during a period of time
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equity is the residual interest in the asset of an entity that remains after deducting its liabilities. it changes when there are investments by the owners, distributions to the owners, increases or decreases in comprehensive income
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Explain comprehensive income in terms of other elements of the financial statements.
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Comprehensive income includes all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from investments by owners and distributions to owners. That is, comprehensive income includes revenues, expenses, gains, and losses, and all other changes to equity not resulting from transactions with the owners.
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t/f The FASB and IASB are converged in general recognition principles
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False
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t/f recognition is the process of reporting an economic event in the financial statements
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true
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t/f the cost constraint means that an item is not recognized in the financial statements unless omission would significantly influence the judgment of an informed user
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false
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t/f the major difference between cash and accrual accounting is the timing of revnue and expense recognition
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true
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t/f revenues are considered earned when a company exchanges a good or service for a cash or claims cash
answer
false
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t/f firms change the value of an asset or a liability when expected future cash flows change
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true
question
t/f current cost is the amount of cash received in exchange for an asset less the direct costs of disposal
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false
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t/f US GAAAP does not allow companies to prepare financial statements using a cash-basis system
answer
true
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t/f quoted prices in active markets are the measure of fair value that is neither the most observable nor the least observable
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false
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t/f unobservable values cannot be used to report fair value in the financial statements
answer
False
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which of the following is not an underlying principle of accrual accounting
answer
monetary unit
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the process of reporting an economic event in the financial statements is known as
answer
recognition
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which is not one of the four general recognition criteria under US GAAP
answer
material
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under IFRS which of the following is not a criteria for recognizing items in the financial statements
answer
the item is relevant
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A fortune 500-company purchases a new clock whcih is expected last for five years for 35$. according to the materiality threshold, this would be treated as an ____ in the accounting record
answer
expense
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Under US GAAP, it would need ot be disclosed that smith company is under investigation for bribery charges because of
answer
materiality
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under IFRS, Which of the following is considered to be a measure of current cost
answer
present value of future cash flows
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under US GAAP what is a condition for revenue to be realized or realizable
answer
cash or fixed claims to cash are received, the company receives the right to bill with expectation of payment
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Under US GAAP revenues are considered _____ when the seller has accomplished what it must do to be entitled to the revenues
answer
earned
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IFRS includes all of the following bases of measurement except
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current cost
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under IFRS income recognized simultaneously with
answer
increases in assets and decreases in laibilities
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which of the following is not an approach to determine when to report an expense
answer
net realizable value
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US GAAP identifies ___ measurements bases used in financial reporting and IFRS identifies ______
answer
five, four
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the _____ cost is the amount of cash that a firm paid to acquire an asset, whereas ____ is the amount the firm would pay fi the asset were purchased today
answer
historical, current cost
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____ is the amount of cash that the firm actually paid to acquire an asset
answer
historical cost
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when the buyer and seller are unrelated and independent, the transaction is considered to be
answer
an arms length transaction
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whe deciding how to measure fair value of an asset or liability there is sometimes a trade off between
answer
relevance and faithful representation
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_______ accounting measures cash receipts and disbursements leaving out economic activity
answer
cash basis
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____ accounting measures non cash transactions
answer
accrual
question
31) Purrfect Pets, Inc. provides animal daycare for $25 per day. Customers buy three month packages, which provide 15 days of care per month. In January they received cash payments from 10 customers. For the month of January, they will recognize ________ of revenue under the cash basis, and ________ of revenue under the accrual basis.
answer
11250, 3750
question
32) Purrfect Pets, Inc. provides animal daycare for $25 per day. Customers buy three month packages, which provide 15 days of care per month. In January, they received cash payments from 10 customers. For the month of February, they will recognize ________ of revenue under the cash basis, and ________ of revenue under the accrual basis.
answer
0, 3750
question
33) Shadow's Cleaning Service provides weekly cleaning services for $40 per week. In January, they collected payments from 50 customers for 3 months (12 weeks) of service each. For the month of January they will recognize ________ of revenue under the cash basis, and ________ under the accrual basis.
answer
24000, 8000
question
34) Shadow's Cleaning Service provides weekly cleaning services for $40 per week. In January, they collected payments from 50 customers for 3 months (12 weeks) of service each. For the month of February they will recognize ________ of revenue under the cash basis, and ________ under the accrual basis.
answer
0, 8000
question
35) TNT Inc charges $125 per month for a storage unit. In the first quarter of the year, they collected $6,125. Ten customers pre-paid for three months rental in January, seven customers pre-paid for two months rental in February, and five customers paid for one month in March. Using the cash basis of accounting, TNT will recognize ________ in revenue for January and ________ using the accrual basis.
answer
3750, 1250
question
36) TNT Inc charges $125 per month for a storage unit. In the first quarter of the year, they collected $6,125. Ten customers pre-paid for three months rental in January, seven customers pre-paid for two months rental in February, and five customers paid for one month in March. Using the cash basis of accounting, TNT will recognize ________ in revenue for February and ________ using the accrual basis.
answer
1750, 2125
question
37) TNT Inc charges $125 per month for a storage unit. In the first quarter of the year, they collected $6,125. Ten customers pre-paid for three months rental in January, seven customers pre-paid for two months rental in February, and five customers paid for one month in March. Using the cash basis of accounting, TNT will recognize ________ in revenue for March and ________ using the accrual basis.
answer
625, 2750
question
38) Angelo's charges $200 per month for catering services. In the first quarter of the year, they collected $14,000. Fifteen customers pre-paid for three months of catering beginning in January, ten customers pre-paid for two months of catering beginning in February, and five customers paid for one month of catering in March. Using the cash basis of accounting, Angelo's will recognize ________ in revenue for January and ________ using the accrual basis.
answer
9000, 3000
question
39) Angelo's charges $200 per month for catering services. In the first quarter of the year, they collected $14,000. Fifteen customers pre-paid for three months of catering beginning in January, ten customers pre-paid for two months of catering beginning in February, and five customers paid for one month of catering in March. Using the cash basis of accounting, Angelo's will recognize ________ in revenue for February and ________ using the accrual basis.
answer
4000, 5000
question
40) Angelo's charges $200 per month for catering services. In the first quarter of the year they collected $14,000. Fifteen customers pre-paid for three months of catering beginning in January, ten customers pre-paid for two months of catering beginning in February, and five customers paid for one month of catering in March. Using the cash basis of accounting, Angelo's will recognize ________ in revenue for January and ________ using the accrual basis.
answer
1000, 6000
question
Identify the three main approaches to expense recognition under U.S. GAAP — provide examples of each. How does IFRS expense recognition principles differ?
answer
match expense to the related revenue, to expense it in the period incurred, or to systematically allocate the expense over periods of use. . An example of matching the expense to the revenue would be matching the cost of goods sold expense to the related revenue recognized when the inventory is sold. Expensing in the period incurred would be recording supplies expense during the period that they were consumed. Depreciating a piece of equipment over its useful life is an example of systematic allocation. While U.S. GAAP focuses on determining the period when an expense is recognized, IFRS focuses on what expenses are recognized during a period. Specifically, IFRS recognizes all decreases in future economic benefits related to a decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability if can be reliably measured. Thus, the matching principle is not explicitly described as an expense recognition principle because it is subsumed under the other IFRS criteria.
question
45) What drives the measurement and timing of revenue recognition?
answer
companies should recognize revenue to record the transfer of control of goods or services that reflects the consideration to which the company expects to be entitled. this occurs when a company satisfies its performance obligations specified in the contract with a customer
question
t/f like US GAAP, IFRS directly addresses the going concern concept
answer
false
question
t/f the going concern concept justifies accounting practices such as depreciation
answer
true
question
t/f the going concern concept is explicitly stated in the IFRS conceptual framework but not in the US GAAP conceptual framework
answer
true
question
t/f the periodicity assumption stipulates that the entity wil continue to operate for an indefinite period of time
answer
False
question
t/f the economic entity concept stiplates that an entity will measure and report economic activities in monetary units
answer
False
question
which of the following is not an underlying assumption in financial reporting
answer
reliability concept
question
a company reports financial results each year. which underlying assumption is illustrated by this example
answer
periodicity assumption
question
the ______ justifies the use of depreciation on buildings
answer
going concern concept
question
the _____ ignores inflation
answer
monetary unit assumption
question
if a company is facing bankruptcy which underlying assumption would not be valid
answer
going concern concept
question
classificiation of assets into current and long term illustrates which assumption
answer
going concern concept
question
the ____ justifies the use of accrual accounting
answer
going concern concept
question
which underlying assumption is violated if the owners personal residence is included on the company balance sheet
answer
economic entity concept
question
the _____ stipulates that an entity measure and report its economic activities in dollars
answer
monetary unit assumption
question
which fundamental characteristic makes explicit the assumption fo the full disclosure principle
answer
completeness
question
recording online sales transactions in bitcoin currency is a violation of
answer
the monetary unit assumption
question
the economic entity concept
answer
is applicable to all forms of business organizations
question
preparation of consolidated financial statements when a parent subsidiary relationship exists is an example of
answer
economic entity concept
Accounting
Conceptual Framework
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Finance
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
ACG3131 Ch 2 – Flashcards 70 terms

Sonia Kelly
70 terms
Preview
ACG3131 Ch 2 – Flashcards
question
What is the conceptual framework intended to establish? A. The meaning of "present fairly in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles." B. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles in financial reporting by business enterprises. C. The objectives and concepts for use in developing standards of financial accounting and reporting. D. The hierarchy of sources of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
answer
C
question
According to the conceptual framework, the objectives of financial reporting for business enterprises are based on: A. The need for conservatism. B. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. C. The needs of the users of the information. D. Reporting on management's stewardship.
answer
C
question
According to the FASB conceptual framework, which of the following is not an enhancing qualitative characteristic? A. Comparability. B. Verifiability. C. Timeliness. D. Confirmatory value.
answer
D
question
Under Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts (SFAC) 8, predictive value is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of A. Verifiability. B. Representational faithfulness. C. Relevance. D. Reliability.
answer
C
question
Under Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts (SFAC) 8, which of the following relates to both relevance and faithful representation? A. Completeness. B. Predictive value. C. Timeliness. D. Neutrality.
answer
C
question
According to the FASB Conceptual Framework, what does the concept of faithful representation in financial reporting include? A. Precision. B. Neutrality. C. Effectiveness. D. Certainty.
answer
B
question
Under Statements of Financial Accounting Concepts, comprehensive income includes which of the following?
answer
Gains and GM
question
According to the conceptual framework, the process of reporting an item in the financial statements of an entity is: A. Allocation. B. Matching. C. Realization. D. Recognition.
answer
D
question
Which of the following is an example of the expense recognition principle of associating cause and effect? A. Sales commissions. B. Depreciation of fixed assets. C. Officers' salaries. D. Allocation of insurance cost.
answer
A
question
Ande Co. estimates uncollectible accounts expense using the ratio of past actual losses from uncollectible accounts to past net credit sales, adjusted for anticipated conditions. The practice follows the accounting concept of: A. Substance over form. B. Going concern. C. Matching. D. Consistency.
answer
C
question
According to the conceptual framework, the usefulness of providing information in financial statements is subject to the constraint of: A. Representational faithfulness. B. Relevance. C. Consistency. D. Cost-benefit.
answer
D
question
Dividends
answer
Distributions to owners
question
Interest receivable
answer
assets
question
Issuance of preferred stock
answer
investments by owners
question
prepaid insurance
answer
assets
question
amortization
answer
expenses
question
cost of goods sold
answer
expenses
question
accounts payable
answer
liabilities
question
cash
answer
assets
question
equipment
answer
assets
question
gain on sale of equipment
answer
gains
question
Target Corporation prepares its financial statements in U.S. dollars.
answer
monetary unit
question
The financial statements of General Motors combine all of the activities of its subsidiaries.
answer
economic entity
question
Office Depot records depreciation on its equipment over their estimated useful lifes.
answer
going concern
question
It purchased 5,000 shares of Microsoft stock, which trades on the NASDAQ.
answer
level 1
question
The company purchased 500 shares of Anthony Technical Company, a start-up company. TravelCo used an internally developed model to evaluate the amount of the investment.
answer
level 3
question
It invested $10,000 in utility bonds of a small neighboring community. Although these bonds do not trade on an active market, their value closely tracks movements in U.S. Treasury bonds.
answer
level 2
question
In developing accounting standards, the FASB attempts to determine that each proposed pronouncement will fill a significant need and that the costs imposed to meet the rule are justified in relation to overall benefits of the resulting information. What accounting assumption, principle, or constraint is being illustrated?
answer
cost constraint
question
In preparing financial reports, it is assumed that users of the reports have reasonable knowledge of business and economic activities. T or F
answer
T
question
The fundamental qualitative characteristics that make accounting information useful are relevance and verifiability. T or F
answer
F
question
Verifiability is solely an enhancing characteristic for faithful representation. T or F
answer
F
question
Relevant information only has predictive value, confirmatory value, or both. T or F
answer
F
question
Comparability pertains to the reporting of information in a similar manner for different companies as well as a company reporting under the same accounting policies over time. T or F
answer
T
question
Information that is a faithful representation is characterized as having predictive or confirmatory value. T or F
answer
F
question
Sprull Inc. switches from FIFO to average-cost to FIFO over a 2-year period. Which qualitative characteristic of accounting information is not followed?
answer
consistency
question
Assume that the profession permits the savings and loan industry to defer losses on investments it sells because immediate recognition of the loss may have adverse economic consequences on the industry. Which qualitative characteristic of accounting information is not followed?
answer
neutrality
question
The chairman of the SEC at one time noted, "If it becomes accepted or expected that accounting principles are determined or modified in order to secure purposes other than economic measurement, we assume a grave risk that confidence in the credibility of our financial information system will be undermined." Which qualitative characteristic of accounting information should ensure that such a situation will not occur?
answer
neutrality
question
What are the two fundamental qualities that make accounting information useful for decision-making?
answer
relevance and faithful representation
question
Davidson Inc. does not issue its first-quarter report until after the second quarter's results are reported. Which qualitative characteristic of accounting is not followed?
answer
timeliness
question
Identify the pervasive constraint developed in the conceptual framework.
answer
cost
question
Predictive value is an ingredient of which of the two fundamental qualities that make accounting information useful for decision-making purposes?
answer
relevance
question
Rubin Company is the only company in its industry to depreciate its plant assets on a straight-line basis. Which qualitative characteristic of accounting information may not be followed?
answer
comparability
question
What is the quality of information that enables users to confirm or correct prior expectations?
answer
confirmatory value
question
Murray Company has attempted to determine the replacement cost of its inventory. Three different appraisers arrive at substantially different amounts for this value. The president, nevertheless, decides to report the middle value for external reporting purposes. Which qualitative characteristic of information is lacking in these data?
answer
verfiability
question
Polley Co. has reported a positive trend in earnings over the last 4 years. In the current year, it reduces its bad debt allowance to ensure another positive earnings year. The impact of this adjustment is equal to 2% of net income. Is this material?
answer
yes
question
Linsmeier Co. expenses all capital equipment under $18,000 on the basis that it is immaterial. The company has followed this practice for a number of years. Is this material?
answer
no
question
Carnall Co. has a gain of $3.1 million on the sale of plant assets and a $3.3 million loss on the sale of investments. It decides to net the gain and loss because the net effect is considered immaterial. Carnall's income for the current year was $10 million. Is this material?
answer
no
question
Intangible assets are capitalized and amortized over periods benefited.
answer
expense recognition principle
question
Repair tools with purchase prices below $1,000 are expensed when purchased.
answer
materiality
question
Brokerage firms use fair value for purposes of valuing investments.
answer
measurement fair value principle
question
Each enterprise is kept as a unit distinct from its owner or owners.
answer
economic entity
question
All significant post-balance-sheet events are reported.
answer
full disclosure principle
question
Fair value changes of fixed assets are not recognized in the accounting records.
answer
measurement historical cost principle
question
Supplemental information is presented so that investors will not be misled.
answer
full disclosure principle
question
Revenue is recorded at point of sale.
answer
revenue recognition principle
question
All important aspects of bond indentures are presented in financial statements.
answer
full disclosure principle
question
Rationale for accrual accounting.
answer
expense recognition and revenue recognition
question
The use of consolidated statements is justified.
answer
economic entity
question
Reporting must be done at defined time intervals.
answer
periodicity principle
question
An allowance for doubtful accounts is established.
answer
measurement fair value principle
question
Goodwill is recorded only at time of purchase.
answer
measurement historical cost principle
question
A company charges its sales commission costs to expense.
answer
expense recognition principle
question
To be _______ accounting info must be capable of making a difference in a decision
answer
relevant
question
Information is _______ if omitting it or misstating it could influence decisions that users make in the basis of information
answer
material
question
Faithful representation consists of
answer
completeness, neutrality, free from error
question
Enhancing qualities consist of
answer
comparability, verifiability, timeliness, understandability
question
company that keeps its activity separate from its owners and other businesses
answer
economic entity
question
company to last long enough to fulfill objectives and commitments
answer
going concern
question
money is the common denominator
answer
monetary unit
question
company can divide its economic activities into time periods
answer
periodicity
Accounting
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Intermediate Accounting 1
Trusts 15: Variation of trusts – Flashcards 24 terms

Paula Corcoran
24 terms
Preview
Trusts 15: Variation of trusts – Flashcards
question
principle concern over variations
answer
must be carefully designed so as to benefit all the Bs under the T, and it is this concern, that a variation does not disadvantage any of the Bs, which has generated the current legal regime.
question
law's answer to the problem of V
answer
essentially to require each sui juris beneficiary, (i.e. of full age and sound mind), to consent to a proposed variation, while the court will consent on behalf of those not sui juris. It will not, however, do so unless it is convinced that a genuine benefit has been conferred on such incapable beneficiaries by the proposed variation.
question
principle in Saunders v Vautier (1841)
answer
typically that a B or a group of Bs who is or are sui juris, and who is/are absolutely entitled under the T, may 'call' for the T Rs representing their interests to be conveyed to them. By the same token, sui juris Bs can instead consent to a variation of T - a change in the terms upon which the T Rs are held.
question
2 limitations on the principle in S v V
answer
1. re Brockbank [1948] Bs, though sui juris, are not entitled to direct the Tee in the exercise of his discretions under the T. They can collapse the T or insist upon a variation, but they are not entitled to 'micromanage' the T by themselves, taking the decisions that a Tee is authorised to take to give effect to the T. That would completely defeat the point of there being a T. 2. . Only sui juris Bs can consent to a variation. Under-age Bs, or those who are otherwise unable to act for themselves, for example, the mentally disabled, cannot consent.
question
inherent jurisdiction of the court
answer
Court of EQ has an inherent supervisory jurisdiction over T.
question
Chapman v Chapman [1954] considered: does the court have an inherent jurisdiction to consent on behalf of those not sui juris?
answer
House firmly opposed the existence of any such jurisdiction. The inherent jurisdiction of the Court was limited to: 1. granting additional administrative powers to the Tee in 'emergency' situations, e.g. situations where the limitations upon, for example, investment in the T instrument jeopardised the functioning of the T, and 2. sanctioning maintenance payments to a B otherwise not provided for. Variation of Trusts Act 1958: provides the powers courts lacked
question
re Chapman (sub nom in re Downshire Settled Estates) [1953] Ch 218 at 269-279 and then the speech of Lord Simonds LC in the HL [1954] AC . How do the two judges' views differ as to the inherent jurisdiction of the court in the matter of T?
answer
Denning LJ's sense that the court's inherent jurisdiction is actively facilitative (a kind of approach you may recognise having studied other of his lordship's decisions in other subjects on the course). Denning looks historically important thing to notice in all these cases is that court did not only emergency or necessity, but only for benefit of infant, and it sanctioned transaction, even though not in T instrument. jurisdiction is not confined to cases where a dispute about extent of beneficial interests, nor to cases of emergency or necessity, but extends wherever a bargain about beneficial interests which is for benefit of infants or unborn persons. Saving taxes (death duties). In Chapman mistake would mean losing 30000 in taxes. Jurisdiction of court should include correcting mistakes of solicitor. court, whose function it is to protect interests of grandchildren, shows itself to be their own worst enemy. grandparents are ready and anxious to correct mistake. So is everyone else. If grandchildren and unborn persons were at liberty to consent, any prudent adviser would tell them that they ought to consent because scheme is so greatly advantageous to them. Lord Simonds LC is clearly more concerned that the court does not take it upon itself to re-write settlements just because it might be beneficial so to do. He is also much more concerned that the law develop piecemeal over time, rather than founding the scope of the court's inherent jurisdiction on a broad, abstract principle of 'doing good' for the Bs. to accept any suggestion that court has an inherent jurisdiction to alter a man's will because it thinks it beneficial. It seems to me that is quite impossible." . . It should then be asked what are exceptions to this rule. They seem to me to be reasonably clearly defined. change nature of an infant's property from real to personal estate and vice versa, though this jurisdiction was generally so exercised as to preserve Rs of testamentary disposition and of succession. Equally, no doubt that from an early date court assumed power, sometimes for that purpose ignoring direction of a settlor, to provide maintenance for an infant, and, rarely, for an adult, B. So, too, court had power in administration of T property to direct that by way of salvage some transaction unauthorized by T instrument should be carried out. Nothing is more significant than repeated assertions by court that mere expediency was not enough to found jurisdiction. extended to cover cases in which no real dispute as to Rs and, therefore, no comP, but it is sought by way of bargain between Bs to rearrange beneficial interests under T instrument and to bind infants and unborn persons to bargain by order of court. function of court to execute a T, to see that Tees do their duty and to protect them if they do it, to direct them if they are in doubt and, if they do wrong, to penalize them. It is not function of court to alter a T because alteration is thought to be advantageous to an infant B. It was, I thought, significant that counsel was driven to admission that since benefit of infant was test, court had power, though in its discretion it might not use it, to override wishes of a living and expostulating settlor, if it assumed to know better than he what was beneficial for infant.
question
grant of administrative powers: the Tee Act 1925, s.57 57 Power of court to authorise dealings with trust property. (1)Where in the management or administration of any property vested in trustees, any sale, lease, mortgage, surrender, release, or other disposition, or any purchase, investment, acquisition, expenditure or other transaction, is in the opinion of the court expedient, but the same cannot be effected by reason of the absence of any power for that purpose vested in the trustees by the trust instrument, if any, or by law, the court may by order confer upon the trustees, either generally or in any particular instance, the necessary power for the purpose, on such terms, and subject to such provisions and conditions, if any, as the court may think fit and may direct in what manner any money authorised to be expended, and the costs of any transaction, are to be paid or borne as between capital and income. (2)The court may, from time to time, rescind or vary any order made under this section, or may make any new or further order. (3)An application to the court under this section may be made by the trustees, or by any of them, or by any person beneficially interested under the trust. (4)This section does not apply to trustees of a settlement for the purposes of the Settled Land Act, 1925.
answer
extends the court's power to confer upon Tees additional administrative powers to cases where 'in the opinion of the court' it is 'expedient' to do so. Thus, by virtue of the statute, the situation need not be one of 'emergency', to which cases the House in Chapman v Chapman said the inherent jurisdiction was confined.
question
Trustees of the British Museum v A-G [1984]
answer
Tees of the British Museum successfully persuaded the court to extend their powers of investment so that they would continue to be able to amass the funds necessary to enhance the museum's collection by purchases from time to time. used s57
question
why the enlargement of investment powers in Tees of the British Museum v A-G could be authorised by the court under s.57 of the Tee Act 1925 but not under the court's inherent jurisdiction.
answer
The court's inherent jurisdiction with regard to the variation of administrative powers is restricted to 'emergency' situations, and the Tees of the British Museum could not argue that an extension of their investment powers was necessary to prevent an emergency. But as it was sensible and 'expedient', the court could allow the variation under s 57.
question
Admin powers summary
answer
As a corollary of the principle in Saunders v Vautier, sui juris Bs can consent to any variation of T, but those under-age or otherwise incompetent cannot. The court's inherent jurisdiction is limited to the grant of further administrative powers in cases of 'emergency' powers, though s.57 of the Tee Act 1925 enlarges the power to any case where the enlargement of powers is expedient, and, with respect to dispositive provisions of a T, to allowing maintenance payments. The court can consent to a comP of rights, but this is not properly seen as a power to vary dispositive T provisions. Chapman establishes that the court has no inherent jurisdiction to consent to the variation of T on behalf of those not sui juris, however much in those Bs' interests such a variation might be.
question
Variation of Trusts Act 1958
answer
reverses the decision in Chapman, empowering the court to consent to a variation on behalf of Bs who are not sui juris. appears merely to authorise the court to approve a variation of the T on behalf of certain Bs; the remaining Bs (essentially all those who are sui juris and ascertainable) must give their own consent if they are to be bound by the variation (IRC v Holmden [1968] AC 685; re Holt's Settlement T [1969] IMPORTANT:was assumed that the court in effect made an order of variation, but would do so only when all the sui juris Bs consented and the court was able to consent on behalf of the others.
question
(IRC v Holmden [1968] court is not in the position of a statutory settlor. Lord Reid described the provisions of the 1958 Act:
answer
Under the Variation of T Act the court does not itself amend or vary the T of the original settlement. The Bs are not bound by variations because the court has made the variation. Each B is bound because he has consented to the variation. If he was not of full age when the arrangement was made he is bound because the court was authorised by the Act to approve of it on his behalf and did so by making an order. If he was of full age and did not in fact consent he is not affected by the order of the court and he is not bound. So the arrangement must be regarded as an arrangement made by the Bs themselves. The court merely acted on behalf of or as representing those Bs who were not in a position to give their own consent and approval.
question
impact of s53(1)(c) and VTA
answer
In earlier cases, it was assumed that the court in effect made an order of variation, but would do so only when all the sui juris Bs consented and the court was able to consent on behalf of the others. The difference is substantial, for arguably, if the sui juris Bs' consent to the variation agreement effects the variation of the T, rather than the court's order, they 'dispose' of their equitable interests under the T, and must do so in writing or, by s.53(1)(c) , such variation is void If this were indeed the law, variations would be more inconvenient and many past variations would be void BUT cf Holt
question
LPA s 53 requirement of written agreements for Land
answer
53 Instruments required to be in writing. (1)Subject to the provision hereinafter contained with respect to the creation of interests in land by parol— (a)no interest in land can be created or disposed of except by writing signed by the person creating or conveying the same, or by his agent thereunto lawfully authorised in writing, or by will, or by operation of law; (b)a declaration of trust respecting any land or any interest therein must be manifested and proved by some writing signed by some person who is able to declare such trust or by his will; (c)a disposition of an equitable interest or trust subsisting at the time of the disposition, must be in writing signed by the person disposing of the same, or by his agent thereunto lawfully authorised in writing or by will. (2)This section does not affect the creation or operation of resulting, implied or constructive trusts.
question
re Holt's Settlement Trusts [1969]
answer
although, from one perspective, the sui juris Bs 'dispose' of their equitable interests under the T when they consent to the variation and so fall within s.53(1)(c), the court's declared consent on behalf of the other Bs is sufficient to make the variation effective, even in the absence of writing. The court may give its approval on behalf of the classes of Bs set out in s.1 of the Act. s 1(1)(a) comprises minors and others lacking capacity to consent.
question
VTA s1
answer
(1)Where property, whether real or personal, is held on trusts arising, whether before or after the passing of this Act, under any will, settlement or other disposition, the court may if it thinks fit by order approve on behalf of— (a)any person having, directly or indirectly, an interest, whether vested or contingent, under the trusts who by reason of infancy or other incapacity is incapable of assenting, or (b)any person (whether ascertained or not) who may become entitled, directly or indirectly, to an interest under the trusts as being at a future date or on the happening of a future event a person of any specified description or a member of any specified class of persons, so however that this paragraph shall not include any person who would be of that description, or a member of that class, as the case may be, if the said date had fallen or the said event had happened at the date of the application to the court, or (c)any person unborn, or (d)any person in respect of any discretionary interest of his under protective trusts where the interest of the principal beneficiary has not failed or determined. any arrangement (by whomsoever proposed, and whether or not there is any other person beneficially interested who is capable of assenting thereto) varying or revoking all or any of the trusts, or enlarging the powers of the trustees of managing or administering any of the property subject to the trusts: Provided that except by virtue of paragraph (d) of this subsection the court shall not approve an arrangement on behalf of any person unless the carrying out thereof would be for the benefit of that person.
question
re Suffert's Settlement [1961] refusal of 2 cousins NoK to consent prevented order being made. Cf VTA s1and re Moncrieff's Settlement T [1962] VTA s 1(1)(b):unable to consent on behalf of adopted son who would have been entitled had life tenant died at date of application. Court could supply consent for other NoK because depended on death of Son and tenant,=> DOUBLY CONTINGENCY TEST
answer
court may approve on behalf of those who may in the future become entitled under a T, except for ascertainable, i.e. identifiable, persons who would become entitled on the happening of a single event - such persons, if sui juris, must give their own consent. So for example, if Paul, aged 25 and mentally competent, will become entitled to an interest under the T if his widowed mother re-marries, then he must consent to any proposed variation; the court cannot consent for him. s 1(1)(c) comprises the unborn, while s.1(1)(d) comprises those persons who would be Bs under the discretionary T following the extinction of the principal T under a protective T NOTE: court must be satisfied that any variation benefits each member of classes (a), (b), or (c) before giving its approval on their behalf.
question
re Weston's Settlement [1969] settler had sought a variation of two settlements. All the parties to the proposed variation supported it, but the court's approval was required on behalf of infant and unborn beneficiaries. The settler wanted to do the following: The court had to consider whether the variation would be for the benefit of the persons for whom it was acting.
answer
financial advantage is not sufficient to justify variation Provided a scheme is legal, the court found that there was nothing improper or contrary to public policy in approving the variation of trusts for the purpose of avoiding or reducing tax liability. Lord Denning noted that there are a number of cases where the court approved variations that were proposed for that purpose (for a recent example, see Re N's 1989 settlement [1999]). However, the court held that it should not just consider the financial benefit to the infants or unborn children, but also the educational or social benefit. In other words, would it be for the benefit of beneficiaries to emigrate just to save money? As Lord Denning put it: 'The avoidance of tax may be lawful but it is not yet a virtue.' The court considered whether the ties of patriotism were greater or less than the fiscal advantages of the proposed variation. Lord Denning's comments showed his views clearly: • 'there are many things more worthwhile than money' • 'one of these things is to be brought up in this our England, which is still the envy of less happier lands'; and • 'children are like trees: they grow stronger with firm roots'. He found it was not for the benefit of the children to be uprooted from England simply to avoid tax. Moving the trusts to Jersey would only give the beneficiaries an even greater fortune than they would have had if the trusts were still in England and subject to taxation. Here, educational and social considerations outweighed tax-saving benefits. court will be concerned with securing a financial benefit for the beneficiaries, this will not be the only type of benefit it will consider. Non-financial benefits are also relevant.
question
re Remnant's Settlement Trusts [1970] related to a clause in a trust preventing the beneficiaries from marrying a Roman Catholic or a person practising Roman Catholicism. The adult beneficiaries applied to the court to vary the trust as they felt that the offending clause was likely to cause problems and tension in the family and would affect the beneficiaries' choice of religion and marriage partners.
answer
financial advantage is not necessary to accept a variation The court affirmed Lord Denning in Re Weston in holding that 'benefit' encompasses more than financial benefit. In this case: An important question is the extent to which, if at all, the court should have regard to the settlor's intention. Clearly, the court may override the settlor's plan where it is satisfied that the variation is of benefit to the Bs
question
re Cohen's Will Trusts [1959]
answer
here the outcome of the arrangement cannot be predicted with certainty then the Court should be prepared to take on behalf of a minor, a risk which an adult would be prepared to take
question
Goulding v James [1997]
answer
settlor's intentions are relevant only in so far as they assist the court in determining what is of benefit to the Bs on behalf of whom the court consents - the court is not bound by the settlor's intention, and the sui juris Bs are not bound by them either. This principle of English T law stands in contrast to the 'material purpose' doctrine prevalent in many US jurisdictions and which has been imported by statute elsewhere; under this doctrine, no variation of a T, even if all the Bs are sui juris, may occur if a 'material purpose' of the settlor in creating the T may yet be fulfilled. This doctrine detracts from the principle of Saunders v Vautier no for UK
question
Knocker v Youle [1986] explain why the Act may give rise to substantial inconvenience. It was difficult to identify all the children of the settlor's 4 sisters and not practicable to obtain their consent. application for variation however was denied due to strict requirements of act.
answer
The Act requires any ascertainable contingent B who is sui juris to consent to a variation even if the likelihood of his becoming entitled to a benefit under the T is slight; as a result, many individuals who have no real interest under the T must be found and properly advised in order for a variation to proceed, which can cause substantial cost and inconvenience. The situation is no different than it would be under the general law principle in Saunders v Vautier, but the possibility of such cases suggests that the Variation of T Act 1958 should have allowed courts to consent on behalf of such Bs.
question
re Steed's Will Trusts [1960] cf Goulding v James [1997] Tees were about to sell the farm in exercise of the discretionary powers conferred by the will but the plaintiff opposed the sale. She made an application under s 1 of the Variation of T Act, 1958 , 1 for approval by the court of an arrangement *408 proposed by her varying the T so that the Tees would hold the farm and the legacy on T for her absolutely. The Tees did not consider that the proposal would be for the benefit of the plaintiff and declined to approve it:-
answer
duty imposed by section 1 of the Act of 1958 was not confined to inquiring into the effect of a proposed scheme on those on whose behalf approval was sought, but required also consideration on behalf of any person or persons who might have an interest under the discretionary trusts, and whose presence prevented the sole beneficiary from putting an end to the settlement. The proposal had to be looked at as a whole to see whether it was proper to be sanctioned by the court, and the court had to have regard not only to the material benefit of the person who was unable to give his consent because he was not in a position to do so, but to the purpose of the trust. The views of the trustees were relevant though not conclusive That the court should not interfere with the exercise of the trustees' discretionary powers in fulfilment of the duty imposed by the will.
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Credit Card Debt
Finance
Financial Institutions And Markets
Real Time Processing
IBF True/False Questions – Flashcards 39 terms

Jill Lopez
39 terms
Preview
IBF True/False Questions – Flashcards
question
The structure of any financial system can be classified into one main category, that is the financial market.
answer
False, it is also known as capital markets.
question
Al-Ijarah Thumma Al-Bay is a leasing (Ijarah) contract with a condition to sell (bay')
answer
False. No condition to sell, it must be a promise.
question
In a Musharakah agreement, the distribution of profits and losses but be done strictly according to capital contribution ratios.
answer
False. It is not based on capital contributions.
question
Bank has discretion to provide gifts or bonuses either in cash or in kind to the Wadi'ah Yad Dhamanah and Mudharabah depositors.
answer
False. In Mudharabah it is profit and loss sharing, no gifts or bonuses are given.
question
In Musharakah contract, profit and loss are being determined at the conclusion of the contract based on any mutually agreed ratio.
answer
False. The agreement of the contract, not the conclusion.
question
Bank ABC indicates a rate of potential profit to be given to General Investment Account Holder, but clearly states that it is only "indicative rate" and may change according to actual profit made. This practice is totally Shariah compliant.
answer
True.
question
In applying Murabahah as a mode of financing, many Islamic banks adopt the conventional interest rate as a benchmark in determining their profit rates. This practice is Shariah compliant.
answer
True. As long as contract elements are sharia compliant
question
Under the concept of diminishing partnership in home ownership home buyer and the bank jointly acquire and own the property. The bank leases the bank's share of the property to the home on the basis of ijarah.
answer
True. The Bank does lease its share of the property on the home based off of Ijarah.
question
Prohibited elements such as riba and maysir (gambling) are absent in takaful. However, the element of gharar is still present in the takaful contract.
answer
True. But tolerated in unilateral charitable contracts.
question
The main purpose of a sale and leaseback arrangement is to finance the purchase of a specific asset or property.
answer
False. To get cash
question
Bay' Bithamin Ajil (BBA) floating rate implies that both ceiling profit rate and effective profit rate are adjustable to the actual market rate.
answer
False. Only effective profit rate reflects market rate.
question
From the fiqh perspective, for the financing of the purchase of houses under construction, the contract of Istisna'a is more suitable than the contract of bay' Bithaman Ajil (BBA).
answer
True.
question
In principle, Murabahah financing is to enable customers to get funds to purchase assets, as well as to pay wages and salaries, overheads, maintenance expenses and other working capital related costs.
answer
False. Only commodities and assets.
question
Debit card functions the same way as credit card, except that for debit card, the cardholder is only allowed to charge up to actual amount of cash held in account.
answer
True.
question
Under Wadi'ah yad dhamanah contract deposited property must be kept separately. There is no pooling of funds.
answer
False. deposits need not be segregated
question
In Al Rahn, the source of profit for the Murtahin is the service or administrative fees for the Qardhul Hassan (benevolent loan).
answer
False. Custodial fee/Storage costs
question
In Ijarah contract, the lessor is allowed to review the rent at specified intervals, particularly for long term leases.
answer
True. As long as it states in contract mutually agree
question
In Murabahah contract, the cost and mark-up prices need not necessarily be disclosed.
answer
False. Have to disclose the cost and the profit mark up.
question
Participation in the stock market is similar to gambling (Maysir) therefore Muslims should avoid the buying and selling of shares.
answer
False. Shares are not gambling, investing is shariah compliant.
question
In a Mudarabah Investment account, the bank does provide a guarantee that the deposited (invested) funds will be completely safe (that is the bank does provide capital protection).
answer
False. Contractually the deposited amount is not guaranteed (no capital protection).
question
The Shariah prohibition of Riba implies that Islam does not recognize any time value of money.
answer
False. Shariah does recognize TVM (Time Value Money). Time is a valuable economic resource.
question
Expertise and skill in equity investment and management is not an important issue for Mudharabah/Musharakah financing.
answer
True. All partners have the right to participate in the business or trade no matter their qualification. However, it should be taken into consideration the skill sets of each individual participating in the business.
question
Islamic bank are allowed to provide a rebate in case of early repayment in Bay' Bithaman Ajil (BBA) contract.
answer
True. In a BBA floating rate financing banks are granted to give rebates for early settlement or redemption.
question
In Al-Rahnu, the Murtahin is allowed to use the pledged asset in the event that the pledger does not re-pay the Qardhul Hassan loan within the agreed time period.
answer
False. Can auction assets
question
Juristic differences on Bay-Al 'Inah issue on credit cards centers on the issue of early settlement.
answer
False. Acceptability as sale
question
The usage of Islamic credit card should be encouraged, since it fulfills all the Shariah requirements and it facilities the payment of goods and services.
answer
False. Unresolved fiqh issues. Islamic perspective on debts.
question
One of the key features under the Mudarabah contract is that in the event of loss, both the Rabbal-mal and the Mudarib must bear the capital loss.
answer
False. Only Rabbal-mal bears the loss
question
In a pure Wakalah model of Takaful some part of the underwriting surplus is given to the operator. However, the underwriting loss if any has to be borne by the participants only.
answer
False. It is given to the operator depending on performance.
question
In a Salam contract both the price and delivery of goods are postponed to a future date.
answer
False. In a Salam contract the price is paid in advance and delivery of goods is at a future date.
question
In Murabahah contract, the cost and mark-up prices need not necessarily be disclosed
answer
False. In Murabahah contract is a contract of sale where the seller discloses to buyer actual cost of the commodity and the profit margin added.
question
Under Musharakah/Mutanaqisah arrangement financier and customer participate in joint ownership of property or commercial enterprise with the objective of permanently owning and managing the enterprise together.
answer
False. Diminishing partnership.
question
In Al Rahnu the source of profit for the Murtahin is the service or administrative fees for the Qardhul Hassan (benevolent loan).
answer
False. The source of profit for the Murtahin is the storage costs.
question
The use of conventional interest rates as the benchmark to determine the profit rate in a Murabahah financing arrangement does not make that Murabahah contract invalid.
answer
True. As long as the Murabahah contract is Shariah compliant and agreed by both parties it remains valid.
question
In Itisna' contract the required materials can be purchased by either the manufacturer or the purchaser.
answer
False. Materials are only to be bought by the manufacturer, not the purchaser.
question
In Wakalah model of Islamic credit card, bank earns profit from mark up on deferred sale
answer
True.
question
In Al-Rahnu the Murtahin is allowed to use pledged asset in event that pledger doesn't pay the benevolent loan within agreed time.
answer
False? Can auction asset.
question
Juristic differences on Bay al-'inah issue on credit cards centers on issue of early settlement.
answer
False. Acceptability as sale, etc.
question
Usage of Islam credit card should be encouraged; since it fulfills all Shariah requirements and facilitates payment of goods and services.
answer
False. Unresolved Fiqh issues, Islam perspective on debt.
question
One of the key features of Mudarabah contract is that in the event of loss both the rabbal-mal and mudarib bear capital loss.
answer
False. Only Rabbal-mal.
Accounting
Accrual Basis Accounting
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Cost Accounting
Finance
General Purpose Financial Statements
Intermediate Accounting 1
practice quiz ch 1 acct – Flashcards 34 terms

Michael Seabolt
34 terms
Preview
practice quiz ch 1 acct – Flashcards
question
Accounting principles are "generally accepted" only when I. an authoritative accounting rule-making body has established it in an official pronouncement. II. it has been accepted as appropriate because of its universal application I only. II only. I or II. Neither I nor II.
answer
I or II
question
The role of the Securities and Exchange Commission in the formulation of accounting principles can be best described as consistently primary. consistently secondary. sometimes primary and sometimes secondary. non-existent.
answer
sometimes primary and sometimes secondary.
question
The first step taken in the establishment of a typical FASB statement is: the board conducts research and analysis and a discussion memorandum is issued. a public hearing on the proposed standard is held. the board evaluates the research and public response and issues an exposure draft. topics are identified and placed on the board's agenda.
answer
topics are identified and placed on the board's agenda.
question
Generally accepted accounting principles include detailed practices and procedures as well as broad guidelines of general application. are influenced by pronouncements of the SEC and IRS. change over time as the nature of the business environment changes. all of these answer choices are correct.
answer
all of these answers are correct
question
From the four statements that follow, which are true? 1. Technical competence is not enough when encountering ethical decisions. 2. The pressures "to bend the rules," "to play the game," "to just ignore it" can be considerable. 3. Time, job, client, personal, and peer pressures do not complicate the process of ethical sensitivity and selection among alternatives. 4. The decision may be easier because there is no comprehensive ethical system to provide guidelines. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are all true. 1, 2, and 4 are all true. 2 and 4 are all true. 1 and 2 are all true.
answer
1 and 2 are true
question
Financial information that is better provided, or can only be provided, by means of financial reporting other than formal financial statements include all of the following except: News releases. Management's forecasts. President's letter. Cash flow information.
answer
cash flow information
question
An effective capital allocation process promotes productivity. encourages innovation. provides an efficient market for buying and selling securities. all of these choices are correct.
answer
all of these choices are correct
question
The objective of general purpose financial reporting adopts an entity perspective, which means that financial reporting should be focused an assessing the company's stewardship. financial reporting should be focused solely on the needs of the owners. companies are viewed as separate and distinct from their owners. none of these answer choices are correct.
answer
companies are viewed as separate and distinct from their owners.
question
Which of the following would result if there was not set of generally accepted and universally practiced accounting standards? It would be almost impossible to prepare statements that could be compared. Each company would have to develop its own standards. Readers of financial statements would have to familiarize themselves with every company's peculiar accounting and reporting practices. All of these answer choices are correct.
answer
all of the above
question
Which group selects members of the FASB? FAF. SEC. AICPA. FASAC.
answer
FAF (financial accounting foundation)
question
The organization whose purpose is to reach consensus on how to account for new and unusual financial transactions that have potential for creating differing financial reporting practices is the: FASB. FASAC. EITF. AICPA.
answer
EITF (emerging issues task force)
question
The mission of the International Accounting Standards Board is to issue enforceable standards which regulate the financial accounting and reporting of multinational corporations. develop a uniform currency in which the financial transactions of companies through-out the world would be measured. develop a single set of high-quality and understandable IFRS for general-purpose financial statements. arbitrate accounting disputes between auditors and international companies.
answer
develop a single set of high-quality and understandable IFRS for general-purpose financial statements.
question
All of the following are true regarding IFRS except: IFRS includes standards referred to as International Auditing Standards (IAS). The adoption of IFRS by U.S. Companies would make it easier to compare them with foreign companies. IFRS is more "principle-based than U.S. GAAP". IFRS are developed by the IASB.
answer
IFRS includes standards referred to as International Auditing Standards (IAS).
question
Which of the following generally provides a better indication of an enterprise's present and continuing ability to generate favorable cash flows? Cash basis accounting. Accrual basis accounting. Managerial basis accounting. Financial basis accounting.
answer
Accrual basis accounting.
question
Which of the following was established by the federal government to help develop and standardize financial information presented to stockholders? AICPA. FASB. GASB. SEC.
answer
sec
question
Which of the following publications is not considered a GAAP document? Statements of financial standards issued by the FASB Accounting interpretations issued by the FASB APB Opinions Accounting research studies issued by the AICPA
answer
Accounting research studies issued by the AICPA
question
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) are issued by the: FASB. IASB. IASF. SEC.
answer
IASB
question
Which of the following is not a significant difference between the FASB and its predecessor, the APB? Greater autonomy. Larger membership. Increased independence. Broader representation.
answer
larger membership
question
The objective of financial reporting identifies ______________ as the primary users for general-purpose financial statements. Managers. Regulators (IRS and SEC). Investors and creditors. Employees.
answer
investors and creditors
question
Which of the following user groups influence the formulation of accounting standards? Government. Academicians. CPAs and accounting firms. All of these choices are correct.
answer
all of the above
question
The failure of financial reports to provide information on customer satisfaction indexes, reject rates, and company sustainability efforts describes the financial reporting challenge of Forward-looking information. Nonfinancial measurements. Soft assets. Understandability.
answer
non financial measurements
question
All of the following are true regarding the FASB Codification except: the goal of the Codification was to provide one place where all authoritative literature about financial statement preparation could be found. the purpose of the Codification is to create new GAAP. the Codification was created to simplify user access. the Codification changes the way GAAP is documented, presented, and updated.
answer
the purpose of the Codification is to create new GAAP
question
T/F? GAAP is the term used to indicate the whole body of FASB authoritative literature.
answer
true
question
T/F? Any company claiming compliance with GAAP must comply with most standards and interpretations but does not have to follow the disclosure requirements.
answer
false. any company claiming compliance with GAAP must comply with all standards and interpretations, including disclosure requirements
question
T/F? The primary governmental body that has influence over the FASB is the SEC.
answer
true
question
T/F? The FASB has a government mandate and therefore does not have to follow due process in issuing a standard.
answer
false. in establishing financial accounting standards, the FASB relies on two basic premises: 1. the fasb should be responsive to the needs and viewpoints of the entire econoimc community not just the public accounting profession 2. it should operate in full view of the public through a "due process" system that gives interested people ample opportunities to make their view known
question
GAAP stands for: governmental auditing and accounting practices. government audit and attest policies. generally accepted accounting principles. generally accepted attest principles.
answer
generally accepted accounting principles.
question
Accounting standard-setters use the following process in establishing accounting standards: Research, exposure draft, discussion paper, standard. Research, preliminary views, discussion paper, standard. Research, discussion paper, exposure draft, standard. Discussion paper, research, exposure draft, standard.
answer
Research, discussion paper, exposure draft, standard.
question
GAAP is comprised of: FASB standards, interpretations, and concepts statements. any accounting guidance included in the FASB Codification. FASB standards, interpretations, EITF consensuses, and accounting rules issued by FASB predecessor organizations. FASB financial standards.
answer
any accounting guidance included in the FASB Codification.
question
The authoritative status of the conceptual framework is as follows. It takes precedence over all other authoritative literature. It is used when there is no standard or interpretation related to the reporting issues under consideration. It is not as authoritative as a standard but takes precedence over any interpretation related to the reporting issue. It has no authoritative status.
answer
It is used when there is no standard or interpretation related to the reporting issues under consideration.
question
The objective of financial reporting places most emphasis on: providing specific guidance related to specific needs. providing information to individuals who are experts in the field. reporting to capital providers. reporting on stewardship.
answer
reporting to capital providers.
question
General-purpose financial statements are prepared primarily for: external users. auditors. government regulators. internal users.
answer
external users.
question
Economic consequences of accounting standard-setting means: accounting standards can have detrimental impacts on the wealth levels of the providers of financial information. standard-setters must give first priority to ensuring that companies do not suffer any adverse effect as a result of a new standard. standard-setters must ensure that no new costs are incurred when a new standard is issued. the objective of financial reporting should be politically motivated to ensure acceptance by the general public.
answer
accounting standards can have detrimental impacts on the wealth levels of the providers of financial information.
question
The expectations gap is: what the users of financial statements want from the government and what is provided. what financial information management provides and what users want. what the public thinks accountants should do and what accountants think they can do. what the governmental agencies want from standard-setting and what the standard-setters provide.
answer
what the public thinks accountants should do and what accountants think they can do.
Accounting
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Current Assets Minus Current Liabilities
Finance
Financial Accounting
ACG Chapter 2 – Flashcards 29 terms

Noel Macdonald
29 terms
Preview
ACG Chapter 2 – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is a constraint in accounting?
answer
Cost
question
The periodicity assumption states
answer
the life of a business can be divided into artificial time periods for financial reporting purposes.
question
The principle that indicates that assets should be reported at the price received to sell an asset is the
answer
fair value principle
question
The net cash inflow from operating activities is $140,000; cash received from issuing stock is $75,000; cash paid for capital expenditures is $60,000; cash paid for bonds held as an investment is $20,000; and dividends paid are $20,000. How much is free cash flow?
answer
$60,000
question
Which of the following is the correct order for listing assets on the balance sheet?
answer
Cash, short-term investments, land, and patents
question
Bombay Corporation had $48,000 at the beginning of the year and it had cash disbursements of $21,000 during the year. At the end of the year, Bombay Company had $51,000. What was Bombay Corporation's cash receipts for the year?
answer
$24,000
question
What is the primary criterion by which accounting information can be judged?
answer
Usefulness for decision making
question
Which of the following is an example of an intangible asset?
answer
Trademarks
question
A company purchased a tract of land on which it expects to build a factory in approximately five years. During the five years before construction, the land will be idle. In what classification should the land be reported?
answer
A long-term investment
question
Which of the following describes a company's ability to pay its obligations that are expected to become due within the next year or operating cycle whichever is longer?
answer
Liquidity
question
How does a company compute its free cash flow?
answer
Net cash provided by its operating activities minus (i) expenditures on property, plant, and equipment and (ii) its dividends paid
question
Clawson Corporation has current assets of $3,750,000 and current liabilities of 2,050,000. If Clawson Corporation pays $500,000 of its accounts payable what will the new current ratio be?
answer
2.10
question
Net income is $200,000, preferred dividends are $20,000, and average common shares outstanding are 50,000. How much is earnings per share?
answer
$3.60
question
At the end of the year, Green Company had retained earnings of $2,640,000. During the year, the company issued stock for $120,000 and paid dividends of $25,000. Net income for the year was $412,000. How much was the retained earnings balance at the beginning of the same year?
answer
$2,253,000
question
Jose Inc. reports the following balances and amounts. The following information is presented in random order (amounts are in dollars). Accounts payable, 35,000 Cash provided by operations, 90,000 Accounts receivable, 37,500 Net income, 36,000 Average common shares, 20,000 Salaries and wages payable, 8,000 Average current liabilities, 110,000 Stockholders' equity, 240,000 Average and total assets, 600,000 Total current assets, 300,000 Average total liabilities, 320,000 Total current liabilities, 120,000 Cash, 100,000 How much is its current ratio?
answer
2.50
question
Jose Inc. reports the following balances and amounts. The following information is presented in random order (amounts are in dollars). Accounts payable, 35,000 Cash provided by operations, 90,000 Accounts receivable, 37,500 Net income, 36,000 Average common shares, 20,000 Salaries and wages payable, 8,000 Average current liabilities, 110,000 Stockholders' equity, 240,000 Average and total assets, 600,000 Total current assets, 300,000 Average total liabilities, 320,000 Total current liabilities, 120,000 Cash, 100,000 How much is its working capital?
answer
$180,000
question
Which financial statement is used by most corporations instead of the retained earnings statement?
answer
Statement of stockholder's equity
question
Which of the following is an indicator of profitability?
answer
Earnings per share
question
Pilgrim Corporation reports the following on its financial statements. Cash paid for new equipment, $30,000 Cash collected from customers, $100,000 Paid a note payable, $5,000 Cash collected in exchange for issuing additional shares of Pilgrim stock to stockholders, $15,000 Cash dividends paid, $25,000 The company reports $75,000 of net income for the year and it has $90,000 of cash at year-end. What is the company's free cash flow?
answer
$45,000
question
The following ratios are available for Rock Inc. and Pebble Inc. Rock Inc. Pebble Inc. Current Ratio 1.8 1.6 Compared to Rock Inc., Pebble Inc. has
answer
Lower liquidity
question
A ratio summarizes the relation between selected items. Financial statement analysis (i.e., ratio analysis) focuses on the relation between certain financial statement data, such as earnings and the number of shares of common stock (i.e., earnings per share or EPS). A ratio by itself is not particularly useful. Rather, ratios tend to be compared to standards. Which of the following is a comparison facilitated by ratios when conducting a financial statement analysis (i.e., ratio analysis)?
answer
All of these
question
Earnings per share is computed by dividing
answer
net income less preferred stock dividends by the average common shares outstanding.
question
For a given company, total assets are $150,000, current liabilities are $10,000, long-term liabilities are $20,000, common stock is $50,000, and retained earnings is $70,000. How much is total stockholders' equity?
answer
$120,000
question
What are generally accepted accounting principles?
answer
A set of accounting rules and practices that have authoritative support
question
What is the primary accounting standard-setting body in the United States?
answer
Financial Accounting Standards Board
question
Riverview Inc. reports the following balances and amounts. The following information is presented in random order. Accounts payable, $50,000 Cash provided by operations, 100,000 Accounts receivable, 35,000 Net income, 40,000 Average common shares, 15,000 Salaries and wages payable, 40,000 Average current liabilities, 225,000 Stockholders' equity, 200,000 Average total assets, 600,000 Current assets, 300,000 Average total liabilities, 320,000 Current liabilities, 250,000 Dividends paid to preferred shareholders, 5,000 How much is earnings per share?
answer
$2.33
question
Accounting information is relevant to business decisions because it
answer
has predictive value
question
A company using the same accounting principles and the same accounting methods from one year to the next year is an application or example of
answer
consistency
question
Accounting information should be neutral in order to enhance
answer
faithful representation
Accounting
Conceptual Framework For Financial Reporting
Databases
Date
Derivatives
Finance
Intermediate Accounting 1
Business combinations 2 – Flashcards 24 terms

Alexander Barker
24 terms
Preview
Business combinations 2 – Flashcards
question
FV
answer
Generally, identifiable assets acquired, liabilities assumed, and any non-controlling interest in the acquiree are measured at
question
either have future benefits that arise from contractual or legal rights (e.g., trademarks, copyrights, franchise agreements, etc.) or are capable of being separately sold, transferred, licensed, rented, or exchanged (e.g., customer lists, databases, etc.).
answer
Intangible assets on the books of an acquired entity immediately before a business combination would be recognized by the acquiring entity if they
question
answer
within business combinations recognize the gain even if it is hitting oci
question
if it is more likely than not that the contingency will give rise to a liability (or an asset).
answer
Noncontractual contingencies (contingencies that do not result from an existing contract), including lawsuits, are recognized only
question
basically the price paid and whatever needs to be capitalized
answer
when it asks for how much of consideration it means
question
not included
answer
Acquition costs are included or not included in a calculated loss/ gain for combinations
question
The fair value of the investment by the acquiring entity and any noncontrolling interest in the acquired entity is greater than the fair value of the acquired entity's net assets.
answer
goodwill be recognized in a business combination when
question
the investment value in the acquired entity is less than the fair value of the entity's net assets.
answer
A gain occurs in a business combination when
question
when the fair value of the identifiable net assets acquired exceeds the fair value of the investment by the acquirer and any noncontrolling interest in the acquiree
answer
bargain purchase gain
question
answer
For valuing an investment when acquiring the value must use an active market to value the investments. Default to the side that has an active market.
question
As a gain in earnings at the acquisition date.
answer
How should the acquirer recognize a bargain purchase in a business acquisition?
question
answer
If there is a change after the acquisition it does not change the consideration (amount to purchase) but it does create a gain or loss
question
I,II,III
answer
When a bargain purchase occurs in a business combination, which of the following types of information must be disclosed in the period of the combination? I. The amount of gain recognized. II. The income statement line item that includes the gain. III. A description of the basis for the bargain purchase amount.
question
I,II,III
answer
When goodwill is recognized in a business combination, which of the following types of information about that goodwill must be disclosed? I. A quantitative description of the factors that make up the goodwill. II. The amount of goodwill that is expected to be deductible for tax purposes. III. The amount of goodwill allocated to each reportable segment.
question
I,II
answer
Which of the following occurrences in a business combination, if any, identify circumstances that require extensive disclosures in the period of the combination? I. The existence of a noncontrolling interest. II. Achieving control in step acquisition.
question
FV
answer
When the required acquisition method of accounting is used to record a business combination, all acquired assets and liabilities should be reported at
question
remember
answer
When trying to find ending paid in capital you must deduct out issuance and registration costs after everything is calculated.
question
ONLY Acquisitions (no mergers or combinations have the need)
answer
What legal forms of business combination will result in the need to prepare consolidated financial statements?
question
The entity being considered for consolidation must be assessed to determine (1) if it is a variable-interest entity (VIE) and, if so, the primary beneficiary of the VIE, and (2) if the entity is not a VIE, whether or not an investor has equity ownership that enables it to exercise control of the investee.
answer
What gets consolidated if it is a subsidiary?
question
Only one entity can be the primary beneficiary of a variable-interest entity.
answer
Variable interest entities:The primary beneficiary has the ability to direct the most significant economic activities of the variable-interest entity.
question
If it is in legal bankruptcy, because it is under the control of the bankruptcy court and, therefore, not under the control of the parent.
answer
When does a subsidiary not have to be reported in the consolidated financial statements?
question
yes
answer
Do you consolidate a sub that has a different year end
question
A variable-interest entity is thinly capitalized(Cannot finance its activities without additional subordinated financial support). The risks and rewards associated with a variable-interest entity mostly accrue to the variable-interest holders. The value of a variable-interest entity depends on the net asset value of the variable-interest entity.
answer
Characteristics of a variable interest entity
question
Not recognized. Under US GAAP contingent assets are recognized if the item meets the criteria of the definition of an asset.
answer
Under IFRS, contingent assets are or are not recognized?