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Business Management
Cognitive Ability Test
Description
Merit Systems Protection Board
Methods
Reliable And Valid
ch 6 hr – Flashcard 93 terms

Jacob Patel
93 terms
Preview
ch 6 hr – Flashcard
question
The final decision to hire an applicant usually belongs to: 6
answer
supervisors
question
The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on: 6
answer
job specifications.
question
What is usually the first step in the selection process? 6
answer
submission of resume
question
Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form? 6
answer
national origin
question
The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT: 6
answer
it absolves the organization of legal liability
question
The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is: 6
answer
the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience
question
The selection procedure usually begins with: 6
answer
completion of an application form
question
During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected: 6
answer
at any step in the procedure.
question
Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be: 6
answer
reliable and valid.
question
The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as: 6
answer
reliability.
question
If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as: 6
answer
being reliable.
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If the data upon which selection decisions are not stable or consistent 6
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the data cannot be valid and cannot be used as predictors
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The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation except: 6
answer
utility validity.
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The degree to which inferences drawn from interviews, test scores, and other selection procedures are supported by evidence (such as good job performance) is termed: 6
answer
validity.
question
Examples of criteria that can be used to validate selection procedures include all of the following except: 6
answer
test scores.
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The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is an example of: 6
answer
criterion-related validity.
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Typically, establishing validity is a matter of comparing selection test scores: 6
answer
to supervisors' performance ratings
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Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of: 6
answer
predictive validity.
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The process in which a test or test battery is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is called: 6
answer
cross-validation.
question
Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the technique used in: 6
answer
concurrent validity.
question
The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a: 6
answer
correlation coefficient.
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Validity coefficients range from: 6
answer
-1.00 to +1.00
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A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates: 6
answer
a perfect negative correlation
question
Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? 6
answer
Where were you born?
question
____ require(s) the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job. 6
answer
Work sample tests
question
According to the "Big Five" factors, ____ means the degree to which someone is talkative, sociable, active, aggressive, and excitable 6
answer
extroversion
question
The extent to which validity coefficients can be generalized across situations is called 6
answer
validity generalization
question
The type of validity assumed to exist when a selection instrument adequately samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform a particular job is: 6
answer
content validity.
question
According to the "Big Five" factors, _____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and organized and perseveres in tasks 6
answer
conscientiousness
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Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess? 6
answer
content validity
question
Constructs, or traits, include all of the following except: 6
answer
physical ability
question
Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of: 6
answer
constructs.
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Application forms should be developed carefully and revised as often as necessary, because: 6
answer
the EEOC has found that many questions asked are not job-related
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The purposes served by application forms include all of the following except: 6
answer
eliminating the need for interviews.
question
Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form? 6
answer
asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
question
Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form? 6
answer
high school and college attendance with dates
question
Approximately ______ of private firms drug test their employees 6
answer
40 percent
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______ of applicants test positive for drugs. 6
answer
Less than five percent
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Regarding credit reports: 6
answer
organizations must advise and receive written consent from the applicant if a report will be requested
question
The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants: 6
answer
is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
question
Which of the following test is not covered in the term "lie detector" under the Employee Polygraph Protection Act? 6
answer
paper-and-pencil honesty test.
question
A legal means of screening out applicants who pose a security risk is to use a: 6
answer
paper-and-pencil honesty test.
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Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes except: 6
answer
job satisfaction.
question
_____ involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after those applicants have been hired and have been on the job for a certain period of time. 6
answer
Predictive validity
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In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants. 6
answer
clinical approach
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The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that: 6
answer
physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
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Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988: 6
answer
applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
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A pre-employment test is an objective and standardized measure of: 6
answer
a sample of employee behavior.
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A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that ___ percent of the applicants will be selected. 6
answer
10 percent
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Measures of mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency, numerical ability, or reasoning ability are examples of a: 6
answer
cognitive ability test.
question
According to a report by the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, a quasijudicial agency that serves as the guardian of federal merit systems, structured interviews are _____ as nondirective interviews to predict on-the job performance. 6
answer
twice as likely
question
Which of the following interview questions is appropriate? 6
answer
Why did you leave your last job?
question
Which of the following interview questions is appropriate? 6
answer
Have you ever worked under a different name?
question
The personality trait of Extroversion refers to: 6
answer
the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
question
The personality trait of Agreeableness refers to: 6
answer
the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
question
The personality trait of Conscientiousness refers to: 6
answer
the degree to which someone is dependable and organized
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The personality trait of Openness to Experience refers to: 6
answer
the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious
question
The personality trait of Neuroticism refers to: 6
answer
the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
question
Personality tests: 6
answer
can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively
question
The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of: 6
answer
a job knowledge test
question
Which of the following types of tests are increasingly being aided by computer simulations? 6
answer
work sample tests
question
Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons except: 6
answer
interviews are the most valid method of selection.
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The type of interview that allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of discussion is the: 6
answer
nondirective interview.
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The various types of employment interviews differ primarily in: 6
answer
amount of structure.
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The type of interview that provides the greatest consistency or standardization with respect to the questions asked is the: 6
answer
structured interview.
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Questions contained in structured job interviews should be based on: 6
answer
job analysis.
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The interview method that best reduces the possibility of discrimination is the: 6
answer
structured interview.
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An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is a: 6
answer
situational interview.
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"Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee" is an example of a: 6
answer
behavioral description interview question
question
"It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed.You get a phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What will you do?" This is an example of a/an ____ question. 6
answer
situational interview.
question
A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for: 6
answer
higher-level positions
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The benefits of panel interviews include: 6
answer
higher reliability because of multiple inputs
question
A type of interview that allows the firm to immediately compare answers to the ideal candidate or profile without the problems of impression management experienced in face-to-face meetings is: 6
answer
computer interview
question
A type of interview that allows for speed and flexibility, and helps make preliminary assessments before incurring costs with face-to-face meetings is: 6
answer
video interview
question
Which of the following is an appropriate interview question? 6
answer
Are you over the age of 18?
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Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? 6
answer
What is your race?
question
All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview except: 6
answer
Have you ever been arrested?
question
The selection decision should focus on: 6
answer
both "can-do" and "will-do" factors of the applicant.
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"Can-Do" factors in selection decisions include: 6
answer
skills
question
HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions except: 6
answer
What effect will the applicants' family situation have on job performance?
question
Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the ____ approach is considered superior, although the ____ is the most commonly used. 6
answer
statistical, clinical
question
A selection model that requires an applicant to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all selection dimensions is referred to as a ____ model. 6
answer
Multiple cutoff
question
The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is the: 6
answer
statistical approach.
question
A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills is employing a ____ selection decision model 6
answer
compensatory
question
A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process on the condition that she or he satisfies a score criteria on previous parts of the process is referred to as a ____ model. 6
answer
Multiple hurdle
question
A low selection ratio means: 6
answer
only the most promising applicants will be hired.
question
A selection ratio of .10 means that: 6
answer
only 10% of the applicants will be selected.
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In large organization, notifying applicants of the selection decision and making job offers are generally the responsibility of: 6
answer
the HR department.
question
The "O" in KSAO stands for: 6
answer
other factors
question
Following 9/11 and a rash of corporate scandals, background checks have ______________. 6
answer
become standard for many corporations.
question
State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for ___________ if they fail to do adequate background checks. 6
answer
negligent hiring
question
Generally, ___________ reference checks are preferable because they save time and provide for greater candor. 6
answer
telephone
question
One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for _________. 6
answer
legal challenges.
Abnormal Psychology
AP Psychology
Business Management
Civil Rights Act Of 1991
Cognitive Ability Test
Meets The Requirements
Organizational Psychology
Psychometrics
PHP: Final Exam – Flashcards 89 terms

Elizabeth Hill
89 terms
Preview
PHP: Final Exam – Flashcards
question
Used as a standard to compare different applicants' intellectual abilities and thus predict whether they would be successful in medical training
answer
What did the old version of the MCAT measure?
question
Also provides more substantial information about the applicant's ability to manage the issues they will encounter in medical school
answer
What does the new version of the MCAT measure?
question
Biological and biochemical foundations of living systems, chemical and physical foundations of biological systems, psychological social and biological foundations of behavior and critical analysis and reasoning skills
answer
What are the four sections on the MCAT?
question
Biology, chemistry (general and organic), biochemistry, physics, sociology and psychology
answer
What classes are recommended to take before the MCAT?
question
Calculus/statistics
answer
What classes are not necessary but very helpful to take before the MCAT?
question
When you are getting consistently acceptable scores on practice tests
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How do you know you're ready to take the MCAT?
question
From January to September
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When is the MCAT offered?
question
Spring of 3rd (junior) year
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When is the MCAT typically taken for the first time?
question
As many times as you want, but more than 3 is not recommended
answer
How many times can you take the MCAT?
question
All of your past scores
answer
What MCAT score(s) do schools see?
question
500 or better
answer
What MCAT score do you need to be competitive?
question
Take advantage of undergraduate course work
answer
What is the best way to study for the MCAT?
question
Focusing too much on biology (it's only 1/4)
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What common mistake do people make when studying for the MCAT?
question
Critical reasoning and reading skills
answer
What other skills are important for taking the MCAT?
question
No specific major is considered "the best"
answer
What is the best major for applying to medical school?
question
So they know more about you than simply your grade in their course
answer
Why is it important to make a conscious effort to engage with professors you want to write a recommendation or evaluation letter?
question
Those in the science department
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Who are the best professors for writing a recommendation or evaluation letter?
question
Research, office hours, asking insightful questions, do well on test, dress well and be genuine
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What are some good ways to connect with professors?
question
It gives the admissions people more information specific to that school's mission and programs as well as more demographic information
answer
Why do some schools have a secondary application?
question
Individual professors/academic mentors or put together by a pre-health office as a packet with a cover letter
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Who may letters of recommendation or evaluation be from?
question
Must be a conservative/professional photo and don't crop others out of a photo, make sure it is a single shot
answer
What are some guidelines for an application photo?
question
Only things after high school; list relevant activities such as health care exposure, community service, research, leadership role and employment
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What should be included on an activities summary?
question
Why medicine? What is your motivation?
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What questions should be answered in the personal statement (essay)?
question
TMDSAS, AMCAS and AACOMAS
answer
What are the three application systems for medical school?
question
Texas Medical and Dental School Application Service; the application for all public medical schools in Texas; the only Texas school that doesn't use this is Baylor College of Medicine
answer
What is the TMDSAS?
question
American Medical College Application Service; the application for all MD programs outside of Texas; Baylor College of Medicine uses this
answer
What is the AMCAS?
question
American Association of Colleges of Osteopathic Medicine Application Service; used specifically for DOs
answer
What is the AACOMAS?
question
The last step in the application process
answer
What is the medical school interview considered?
question
A whole day; tour of the facility, student panel, presentation about the school and the interview itself
answer
What is the typical format of a medical school interview?
question
Men: well fitted suit of simply colors like navy, black or grey and a tie; Women: well fitted (but not too tight) pant suit or skirt suit, no plunging necklines, plain colors as listed for men, professional closed toed shoes that are easy to walk in, simple hair make up and jewelry
answer
What is considered professional attire appropriate for a medical school interview?
question
Panal interview (several people at once), one-on-one interview, multiple mini interview (several short separate interviews with different people about different topics/situations)
answer
What are the different formats for a medical school interview?
question
Closed file interview (the interviewer has limited information about the applicant; typically do not know GPA or MCAT score), blind interview (interviewer knows nothing about the applicant except maybe their undergraduate institution), open file interview (interviewer has all parts of the applicants' application)
answer
What are the three types of interviews for each of the three formats?
question
PhD/MD/DO faculty, community physicians, administrators or medical students
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Who may an interview be conducted by?
question
ERAS (Electronic Residency Application Service)
answer
What are residency applications submitted through?
question
Residency Directors submit their rank lists to them; the organization then matches based on applicant and director rankings
answer
What does the National Residency Match Program (NRMP) do?
question
The third Friday of March
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When is the national residency match day for MD students?
question
SOAP (Supplemental Offer and Acceptance Program)
answer
What do students do if they are not matched with any residency program?
question
Ophthalmology, neurology and military
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What programs do not participate in "match day" for residency?
question
AOA
answer
What do DO programs use for residency?
question
At the end of preclinical education
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When is Step 1 of USMLE or COMPLEX taken?
question
During the 4th year
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When is Step 2 of USMLE or COMPLEX taken?
question
2 parts: clinical knowledge and clinical skills
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What is Step 2 of USMLE or COMPLEX composed of?
question
Ability to apply medical knowledge and understanding of clinical science
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How is clinical knowledge assessed?
question
Mastery of clinical skills in a standardized patient setting
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How is clinical science assessed?
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2 parts: preclinical and clinical
answer
How is the medical school curriculum broken up?
question
Organ system blocks, topic/subject blocks or case based learning
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How are the first 2 years or 18 months of medical school organized?
question
Family medicine, internal medicine, surgery, psychiatry, pediatrics and obstetrics and gynecology (others often included: emergency medicine, radiology, anesthesiology)
answer
What are the 6 main rotations in the second 2-2.5 years of medical school?
question
Do the 6 clinical rotations consecutively and then do electives at the end
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What is the traditional structure for clinical years?
question
A "shelf exam"
answer
What follows each rotation?
question
Review symptoms and treatment plans and research unknown diseases and treatments that come up
answer
What are students expected to study during clinical rotations?
question
Faculty who know you particularly well, someone with specific ties to the program, only people who will highly recommend you
answer
Who should write recommendation letters for applying for residency?
question
MSPE (medical student performance evaluation), a compilation of the applicant's clinical evaluations, used to compare the applicant to peers
answer
What is the dean's letter?
question
Why this specialty?
answer
What question should the personal statement for residency answer?
question
A running record of things the student has done
answer
What is a curriculum vitae (CV)?
question
Rotations specific to residency applied for and step grades
answer
What is most importantly consider in residency admissions?
question
The system of medicine which treats diseases by the use of remedies which produce effects different from those produced by the diseases under treatment
answer
What is allopathic medicine?
question
The philosophy of holistic medicine focused on treating illnesses within the context of the whole cody; systems of the body were interrelated and impacted one another supporting the idea to treat lines within a broader context and to focus on preventative care
answer
What is osteopathic medicine?
question
Osteopathic Manipulative Medicine (OMM) -- a set of manual manipulation techniques involving the musculoskeletal system
answer
What do DOs learn that MDs do not?
question
Single accreditation system for graduate medical education (GME)
answer
What matches both MD and Do programs for residency?
question
Master of public health, master of science, master of science in clinical and translational science, master of business administration, master of science education for health care professionals, other masters
answer
What types of master's degrees are commonly pursued with an MD?
question
3 to 6 years
answer
How many years does a Doctoral degree in Philosophy add to an MD?
question
2 years
answer
How many years does a Doctoral degree of Jurisprudence add to an MD?
question
1 to 2 years
answer
How many years does a master's degree add to an MD?
question
Hospital vs. clinic, private practice vs. non-private practice and academic vs. non-academic
answer
What are the types of medical practices?
question
Students look for something that they can fully know and feel comfortable practicing, negative perception or stereotype and misconception of primary care training, contrast in compensation between primary care and subspecialties
answer
Why is there a shortage of general practitioners?
question
Conducted in a controlled lab environment, academic fields of biology chemistry and biochemistry
answer
What is bench research in medicine?
question
Biological or chemical processes are applied to a physiological/living system, plant animal cellular or human physiology, confined to a controlled laboratory setting using animals or plants
answer
What is translational research in medicine?
question
Discovering/measuring the effectiveness of new treatments drugs and protocols, conducted in a clinical or hospital setting, outcomes in patient care, ethical issues
answer
What is clinical research in medicine?
question
Academic field, concerned with prevalence of disease overall health outcomes and the general health of a specific population
answer
What is research in public health?
question
Procedure/surgical, non-procedure/clinical or mixed
answer
What are the types of residency programs?
question
Rotations within chosen speciality and some outside
answer
What do first year residents usually have?
question
A resident will take on a leadership role
answer
What is expected during the second year of residency?
question
Research/lunch education sessions/journal club/presentations
answer
What may be some additional requirements in residency?
question
USMLE Step 3 or COMPLEX, in-service, jurisprudence, board exam
answer
What tests are taken during residency?
question
Traditionally a period of sub-specialty training that follows residency or another fellowship
answer
What is a fellowship program?
question
1, 2 or 3 years
answer
How long are fellowship programs?
question
Autonomy, responsibilities of running the practice
answer
What are the pros/cons of single or small group practice?
question
Professional practice administrator, financial stability, favorable terms with insurance, loss of autonomy
answer
What are the pros/cons of large group practice?
question
Cannot employ physicians (Non-profit healthcare corporation)
answer
What are the pros/cons of hospitals?
question
Lower income, opportunity to teach
answer
What are pros/cons of academic medicine?
question
Based upon the RVU system
answer
How is employed physician compensation usually negotiated?
question
Based upon CPT (current procedural terminology) codes
answer
How are physicians reimbursed?
question
Intent to limit physician self-referral and outlaw many financial relationships between hospitals and physicians
answer
What are Stark laws?
question
PPOs (preferred provider organizations) and HMOs (health maintenance organizations)
answer
What are the two major forms of managed care?
question
Preferred provider organizations are insurable products that combine physicians, hospitals and other providers to provide care at a discounted rate
answer
What are PPOs?
question
Health maintenance organizations are insurance entities that typically have a "gatekeeper" primary care physician and drastically limit patient choice of physicians and hospitals, compensate physicians by either discounted fee for service or capitation
answer
What are HMOs?
question
All of the providers for an episode of care are paid a single lump sum and its is up to the providers to determine how the money will be split up
answer
What does bundled payment mean?
question
Accountable care organization, integrated health entities that provide care for a minimum of 5,000 Medicare patients and ultimately will be at risk for the financial aspects of their care
answer
What is an ACO?
question
Pharmaceutical industry, medical device manufactures (technology) and physician compensation
answer
Why does the U.S. spend an enormous amount on healthcare?
Acquired Needs Theory
Business Management
Closed Ended Questions
Cognitive Ability Test
Job Characteristics Model
Linguistics
Make Eye Contact
Management
Speech class coms 105 – Flashcards 185 terms

Alice Rees
185 terms
Preview
Speech class coms 105 – Flashcards
question
What is shown to be the number one skill that both an entry level employee and a corporate leader should have in the work place?
answer
Verbal communication skills
question
Which of the following comparisons between public speaking and conversation is accurate?
answer
Public speaking is more prepared than the conversation
question
the ____ model of communication is represented by a simple transfer of meaning from sender to receiver
answer
linear
question
A speaker who is dealing with a headache is facing ___ noise
answer
internal
question
Nadia need to be in the main conference room at the library at 10:00 am to present her speech. These details are part of the ___ of her speech.
answer
context
question
In medieval Europe,___ were the most polished public speakers and people would gather to listen to them.
answer
clergy
question
When someone delivers a speech that has already been made famous by another person, it is known as the art of?
answer
declamation
question
Carolyn's specific purpose is "At the end of my speech, the audience will want to visit the counseling facilities on campus." the purpose of her speech is to
answer
persuade
question
By sharing your own experiences with the audience you create supporting material that is
answer
personal
question
When do most public speaking teachers recommend that you prepare your introduction and conclusion?
answer
after you have organized the body
question
According to the text, the best way to rehearse a speech is
answer
aloud, as if you were giving the actual speech.
question
_____ is the expression of emotions through posture, gestures, facial expression and voice.
answer
Elocution
question
Which of the following words best describes a speech that is designed to inform?
answer
Define
question
The purpose of an after dinner speech that makes light of the evenings activities is to
answer
entertain
question
another name for the circular model of communication is the ____ model
answer
interactive
question
The main benefit of learning positive approaches to help with the fear of public speaking is that
answer
you can learn how to make your nervousness work for you
question
When the brain switches to the fight or flight mode as a result of anxiety, you are likely to notice that you are
answer
breathing more rapidly
question
Caroline pushe sehr hair behind her ears through the entire presentation, she used to the same in preschool, her habit is an example of
answer
trait
question
When bryssa got out bed in morning of her presentation she felt sick and she was anxious she could hardly get ready for work. Her feelings are an example of a
answer
state
question
Jack felt that he was shaking during his whole presentation, but his class mates did not notice. which aspect of understudying anxiety did jack learn?
answer
You are going to feel more nervous than you look.
question
According to research, which of the following people should be feeling the most nervous about their speech?
answer
Michel is walking to the podium to give his speech
question
For fatima gets high anxiety when she does peaches, but she spends more time preparing her self and do her best. what communication apprehension style does she do?
answer
inflexible
question
A communication apprehension style that is ____ shows the highest heart rate when speaking in public
answer
inflexible
question
Jenna knows that she get nervous during her introduction of her speech so he breathe evenly and calmly to maintain her posture. This most likely shows that jenna understands
answer
her level of communication apprehension
question
More experienced speakers are likely to demonstrate the ____ style of communication apprehension
answer
confrontational
question
the ____ style of communication apprehension is characterized by a generally positive approach to speaking in public.
answer
average
question
jake's father collected coins and his grandfather did too. jake will be talking about coins collection. What element of building conference is he using?
answer
selecting an appropriate topic
question
by being very familiar with the conclusion of your speech, you will be able to
answer
have a way to make a graceful exit in case you loose your place
question
When should a speaker should use positive visualization techniques?
answer
While practicing the speech
question
one way for a listener to give support to a speaker is to
answer
nod in agreement
question
What role did thomas jefferson and james madison played in the sedition act?
answer
They declare it unscontitutional
question
who was responsible of the law suit filed against Oprah winfrey following comments she made about the mad cow disease
answer
Four texas cattle man
question
what was the out come of the law suit of Oprah?
answer
she successfully defended her right to freedom of speech
question
when connie notice that she was going to make the company lose money, she told her boss immediately. connie actions show her strong sense of?
answer
ethics
question
the first amendment provides the right to
answer
free speech
question
speech that presented a "clear and present danger" yo the nations was ruled by unlawful by the U.S supreme court during
answer
World war I
question
During the last half of the 20th century, the U.S. Supreme Court has tried to ________ the right to free speech.
answer
protect
question
n his speech, a presidential candidate told the audience that his opponent had cheated her state out of a pension fund when he was governor. He was later criticized for making false accusations. The candidate is guilty of
answer
slander
question
White House correspondent Helen Thomas was dismissed from her duties following her response regarding
answer
the Israeli occupation of Palestine.
question
The implementation of the Patriot Act
answer
broadened investigative powers of government agencies.
question
In the early 1950s, senator Joseph McCarthy failed to use sound evidence and reasoning when he claimed that
answer
Communists were infiltrating every avenue of American life.
question
Morgan Spurlock received poor reviews for his speech regarding his Super Size Me movie at a Philadelphia high school. What did Spurlock fail to do?
answer
consider the audience
question
After he realized that the majority of his audience was from India, Ken adjusted his speech on the cattle population to show respect for their sacred animal. This is an example of
answer
accommodation
question
Molly was so intrigued by the vocabulary in the reference book that she incorporated the same vocabulary into her report and failed to credit her source. This is an example of
answer
plagiaphrasing.
question
All of the following items should be credited if used in a speech EXCEPT
answer
widely known information.
question
_________ are information that has been proven true by direct observation.
answer
Facts
question
The average attention span of a person while listening to someone talk is about ___ seconds.
answer
8 sec
question
The next step after a listener attends to a sound is for him or her to _______ it.
answer
understand
question
Which of the following is a component of the working memory theory of listening?
answer
information overload
question
According to communication expert Frank E.X. Dance, there should be a _____ balance between presenting new information and supporting those ideas with examples.
answer
30/70
question
Kyle told his roommate that he didn't even want to go to his psychology lecture today because he knew it was going to be boring. What barrier to effective listening is Kyle exhibiting?
answer
prejudice
question
Research shows that people talk at a rate of ___ words a minute.
answer
125
question
Janelle knows that her audience is feeling unsure about her topic of molecular biology. To help alleviate their apprehension, she should
answer
summarize key ideas visually with PowerPoint or other presentation methods.
question
The four major goals of listening include listening for pleasure, to empathize, to evaluate and6/6 pts
answer
to gain information.
question
Paula told Karen that she could imagine how she felt—she would have concerns too if she found out she was pregnant with triplets. Paula is listening
answer
to empathize.
question
When you listen ____ you are making a judgment about the content of the message.
answer
to evaluate
question
A(n) _______ - oriented listener enjoys listening to debate and would make a good lawyer.
answer
content
question
The speaker highlights the main points of his speech by using analogies. The speaker is using a type of _______ strategy.
answer
rhetorical
question
When you are providing feedback to a speaker, it is best to use I-statements rather than you-statements. By doing this, you are being
answer
sensitive.
question
A speaker evaluation should be all of the following EXCEPT
answer
dramatic.
question
A typical characteristic of someone born during the baby boom generation would be
answer
personal fulfillment and optimism.
question
A person's perceived importance based on things like income, occupation, and education level is known as
answer
socioeconomic status.
question
Tracey loves health food, but her roommate prefers junk food. Their individual likes represent their
answer
attitude.
question
A(n) _______ is an enduring concept of good and bad, right and wrong.
answer
value
question
Which of the following questions would be appropriate for a demographic survey?
answer
What was your major in college?
question
Steven's survey consisted of ten questions that could be answered either "yes" or "no." These are examples of __________ questions.
answer
closed-ended
question
Samuel knew that his listeners were all union workers, but he still promoted the idea of a non-union shop in his speech. What aspect of speech preparation did he fail to do?
answer
audience adaptation
question
A _______ audience analysis would ask questions about age, gender, and sexual orientation
answer
demographic
question
______ refers to the portion of a person's cultural background that relates to a national or religious heritage.
answer
Ethnicity
question
In a(n) ______ culture, people avoid singling out individuals.
answer
collectivistic
question
Stefan's audience is not at all concerned about knowing every detail of his proposal, so he can adapt by
answer
using less specificity when suggesting solutions to problems.
question
Tyler has been asked to speak at a graduation ceremony. Which aspect of a situational audience analysis should he be aware of?
answer
occasion
question
One way to counteract an audience that seems bored is to
answer
share a personal story.
question
Which of the following is an indication that you are NOT connecting with your audience?
answer
Audience members display the "listener stupor" look.
question
Mallory had tried everything to get her audience interested in her topic but realized she was failing. What final course of action should she consider?
answer
open up the topic for discussion
question
The text suggests that you consider all of the following EXCEPT ________ when selecting a topic for a speech.
answer
the channel
question
Harry's teacher has assigned him a speech that would be appropriate to give to elementary school teachers. Which of the following topics would follow the guidelines of being audience-centered?
answer
building children's self-esteem
question
What was the audience's reaction to Mark Twain's after-dinner speech at the 70th birthday celebration of John Greenleaf Whittier?
answer
silence
question
The text lists three strategies for selecting a topic when traditional guidelines are not successful. Which of the following is NOT one of those strategies?
answer
consider yourself
question
As part of his homework, Mark took out a sheet of paper, set his timer for five minutes, and wrote down everything he could think of in the time allowed. Mark is in the process of
answer
brainstorming
question
The ________ of your speech is what you want your speech to achieve.
answer
the general purpose
question
When Kevin's professor asked him if his speech was designed to persuade, the professor wanted to know the _______ of Kevin's speech.
answer
general purpose
question
A car salesperson's main goal when telling a customer about the vehicle he or she is looking to buy is to _______ the customer.
answer
persuade
question
The specific purpose of a speech is determined by the
answer
speaker
question
The __________ is what you want your audience to be able to do at the end of your speech.
answer
behavioral objective
question
The text suggests that you write your ________ on a three- by-five-inch note card and refer to it while developing your speech.
answer
specific purpose
question
Which of the following best describes a thesis (central idea)?
answer
a one-sentence summary of a speech
question
Which of the following examples uses the most specific language?
answer
The magnitude 9.0 earthquake that struck off the east coast of Northern Japan in March 2011 killed more than 18,000 people.
question
The first step in determining and organizing your main ideas is to
answer
write the central idea at the top of a sheet of paper
question
Suzette's central idea is "the battle of Gettysburg." Which of the three questions for determining main ideas would be best for her to use?
answer
Can I support the central idea with a series of steps or a chronological progression?
question
Transitions, previews, and summaries are all examples of
answer
signposts.
question
According to the text, what is the LEAST favorable strategy for moving into the conclusion of a speech?
answer
using the words "in conclusion"
question
A how-to demonstration should follow a series of steps that move
answer
from beginning to end.
question
Michaela's speech on the rapid rise in popularity of Facebook documented the current trends in social networking and then moved on to describe how Facebook was created on a college campus. Michaela's chronological speech uses a _______ organization.
answer
backward in time
question
Speakers from ________ tend to be more linear than those from other cultures.
answer
the United States
question
When classical rhetoricians referred to the disposition of a speech, they were talking about the _________ of the speech.
answer
organization
question
The motivated sequence is a variation of the ________ organizational pattern.
answer
problem-solution
question
Monica's speech was designed to educate her audience on the seven things to look for when buying a used car. Based on this, she should organize her speech using the ________ pattern.
answer
topical
question
When a piano teacher requires students to start by practicing scales before attempting more difficult sonatas, that teacher is organizing the lessons based on
answer
complexity.
question
A speech topic of the history of the suffrage movement in the United States would best be organized
answer
chronologically.
question
A speech that first discusses adult illiteracy and then moves on to the social costs of illiteracy is arranged to show
answer
cause and effect.
question
Which of the following is NOT an example of soft evidence?
answer
factual examples
question
When a speaker lists the main points of the topic by saying, "First, we will see ..." and "Second, the opinion is ...," that speaker is using ________ as a verbal transition.
answer
enumeration
question
Which of the following is an example of an internal summary?
answer
Now that we have discussed the three major problems, let's move on to some solutions."
question
A preview is designed to let the audience know
answer
whats to come
question
The most obvious purpose of an introduction is to
answer
introduce the subject of the speech.
question
Which of the following behaviors clearly demonstrates the speaker's credibility to the audience?
answer
Jenna walked confidently to the podium when her name was called.
question
In her introduction, Fran told the audience that every other person in the room would one day lose their jobs. The primary purpose of this statement was to
answer
get the audience's attention
question
To gain his audience's attention, Luke told a brief, but factual story that related to his topic—otherwise known as a(n)
answer
anecdote.
question
Audience members find ________ to be the most inherently interesting type of supporting material in an introduction.
answer
anecdotes
question
tyler's opening sentence included the fact that 75% of people over the age of 50 would require nursing home care. He was using a(n) _________ to introduce his speech.
answer
startling statistic
question
General Douglas MacArthur's famous "Farewell to the Cadets" speech is recognized for its use of ________ in the introduction.
answer
humor
question
The two most important things to think about when incorporating humor into an introduction are the audience and the7/7 pts incorrect
answer
subject matter
question
One type of subtle humor is
answer
irony
question
The text says that both quotations and ________ are often crutches for speakers who don't take the time to think of other ways to begin a speech.
answer
questions
question
According to your text, a good introduction needs to perform ______ vital functions.
answer
five
question
It is important for a speaker to get the attention of the audience during the ________ of a speech.
answer
introduction
question
"A key purpose of the introduction is to gain favorable attention for your speech." The MOST important word in this sentence is _________.
answer
favorable
question
When you demonstrate that the topic of your speech is of personal concern to your audience, you have established
answer
proximity
question
In her opening remarks, Stephanie welcomed the audience to the first annual meeting of the Silver Lining Association. What technique is she using in her introduction?
answer
reference to the occasion
question
As part of her conclusion, Marta finished the story she had used to start off her speech. She used a(n) ________ in her conclusion.
answer
reference to the introduction
question
In his conclusion, John reminded the audience of the three regions in South Africa that were most affected by the drought. He used the conclusion to
answer
re state his main ideas
question
When Lou Gehrig said, "I may have had a tough break, but I have an awful lot to live for" he was summarizing his speech by20/20 pts incorrect
answer
reemphasizing his main idea in a more memorable way
question
Which of the following is NOT listed in your text as a suggestion for an effective conclusion?
answer
historical reference
question
The audience realized Kate's speech was about to finish when she said, "Finally . . ." This verbal cue signaled
answer
closure
question
In the mapping technique described in your text, subpoints are enclosed by a(n)
answer
oval
question
Complete sentences are considered appropriate in a _________ outline.
answer
preparation
question
According to the survey of 100 public speaking students described in your text, students reported spending about ____ of their total preparation time on revising and outlining their speech.
answer
50%
question
George took out a sheet of paper and wrote down his main ideas, subpoints and types of supporting material he could use. He then drew shapes around these and connected the logical relationships with arrows. George is in the process of
answer
mapping
question
The first type of outline a speaker should be concerned with is a ______ outline.
answer
preparation
question
The Nationwide Insurance speechwriter Charles Parnell compares his technique for mapping to
answer
assembling a puzzle
question
Jared's speech to the auto mechanics lasted for more than an hour. He told them many techniques for improving their production and making more money. At the end of the speech, many in the audience members found it hard to remember what he had said. What mistake did Jared make that most audiences find hard to forgive?
answer
talk for too long
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the tips mentioned in your text to help revise a speech that is too long?
answer
change overall topic
question
A delivery outline would be used to
answer
present a speech
question
The minimum number of subdivisions you would have for any main point is
answer
two
question
You should place the ______ at the very top of your outline.
answer
specific purpose
question
The most common way for speakers to use a delivery outline is to
answer
transfer it to note cards
question
Nadia told her audience that 15 people were killed in their city last year from driving on bad tires and more than 20,000 people in the world had lost their lives for this reason. This is an example of _______ a(n) statistic.
answer
exploting
question
Which of the following elements would NOT be included in a delivery outline?
answer
purpose statement
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines in your text for using note cards?
answer
use at least 10 or more note cards
question
A "ladder of abstraction" is used by a semanticist to 7/7 pts
answer
show how something can be described as either concrete or abstract.
question
A simile is an example of a
answer
figure of speech.
question
If you want to make an implied comparison, you should use
answer
a metaphor
question
A human quality is given to an inanimate idea when a speaker incorporates _______ into a speech.
answer
personification
question
When you want to keep your audience members in suspense or catch them off guard, you should incorporate _______ into your speech.
answer
drama
question
Joseph is trying to think of another word to use instead of "unique." The most productive way to do this is to
answer
consult a thesaurus
question
Cajun and Spanglish are both examples of
answer
ethnic vernacular
question
Janet uses the word "soda" when she orders a soft drink, while Kenneth uses the word "pop." These two words are examples of
answer
regionalisms.
question
The ________ of a word is the meaning we associate with the word.
answer
connotations
question
After Jennifer's speech, her instructor told her she should eliminate phrases like, "When all is said and done . . ." because they
answer
add no meaning to the message
question
When the television reporter said that, "President Barack Obama and Michelle have two daughters," the reporter used sexist language because the sentence
answer
does not have parallel form
question
To help the class understand the concept of ________ when trying to create drama in a speech, the professor compared it to preparing a telegram.
answer
omission
question
When a speaker reverses the normal word order of a phrase or sentence, he or she is using
answer
inversion
question
The dramatic technique known as ________ has the speaker place a key word or phrase at the end of a sentence rather than at the beginning.
answer
suspension
question
_________ is represented in a sentence that has two parts with parallel structures but contrasting meanings.
answer
Antithesis
question
According to your text, as much as ___ of the social meaning of a message is based on nonverbal expression.
answer
65%
question
The delivery method known as _______ is considered the most effective for North American listeners.
answer
platform conversation
question
There are _____ basic methods of delivery that a speaker can choose from.
answer
four
question
In which of the following situations is the speaker using the gesture function known as emphasizing?
answer
Nafula pounds her fist on the desk as she announces the solution to the problem
question
A speaker dealing with a sensitive or critical issue that needs to have his or her remarks carefully scripted would find the _______ style to be the most appropriate method of delivery.
answer
manuscript
question
Your response to a question posed by a teacher in class is an example of ________ speaking.
answer
impromptu
question
Recommending by communication instructors for most students, _________ speaking is an approach where the speaker works from a written or memorized general outline.
answer
extemporaneous
question
Which category of nonverbal behavior will affect the delivery of your speech by keeping your audience interested, making you more believable as a speaker, and providing you with feedback about how your speech is coming across?
answer
eye contact
question
When visiting Boston last summer, Jackie noticed that local residents dropped the "r" sound pronouncing car as cah. What aspect of understanding speech does this reflect?
answer
dialect
question
Which of the following would NOT be categorized as an immediacy behavior?
answer
moving to stand behind the podium or lectern
question
In order for a speaker to be understood, he or she must consider all of the following EXCEPT
answer
rhetoric
question
It would be common to find a boom microphone
answer
on a movie set
question
Which of the following is a suggestion from your text to make the most out of rehearsing your speech?
answer
practice before making speaking notes
question
_________ is the degree to which the sounds of a word conform to those assigned to words in standard English.
answer
Pronunciation
question
In terms of speaking rate, studies show that most speakers average between ________ words per minute.
answer
120-180
question
Researchers have found evidence that people remember ____ of what they simultaneously see and hear.
answer
50%
question
For his presentation on how to build a birdhouse, Jonathan displayed a diagram for each part of the process. In this case, the presentation aids are helping to
answer
illustrate a procedure
question
The text lists three types of presentation aids, these include three-dimensional, two-dimensional, and
answer
audiovisual
question
Which of the following students is using an object as a presentation aid?
answer
stephanie brought her snow globes for her speech about collection
question
When using a map for a presentation aid, it is important to remember that most maps are designed to be read from a distance of no more than ____ feet.
answer
two
question
Which of the following is NOT one of advantages noted in your text of using charts as a presentation aid?
answer
they are best when handwritten
question
While no longer commonly used, if you should decide to use overhead transparencies, you should follow the same rules as you would if preparing a _______ presentation.
answer
power point
question
The best type of font to use in a PowerPointâ„¢ presentation is a _______ font.
answer
serif
question
There are several things to consider when selecting a presentation aid. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors recommended by your text?
answer
can the presentation aid be easily transported
question
During his presentation to the planning committee, Kenneth plans to exhibit a large graph showing the history of the product line. What does he need to remember when exhibiting the graph?
answer
he should explain how the graph enforces his point
question
Jackie would like to present a variety of statistical summaries during her speech. To do this she should use a(n)
answer
graph
question
A _______ graph shows the relationship between two or more variables and organizes statistical data to show overall trends.
answer
line
question
If you want to show the individual shares of a whole, you should use a ______ graph.
answer
pie
question
Parker wants his slides to feel warm and inviting to the audience. His best color choice would be
answer
orange
question
Which of the following is NOT a guideline listed in your text for developing a presentation aid?
answer
limited them to five
Cognitive Ability Test
Equal Pay Act Of 1963
Human Resource Management
Human Resources Management
National Labor Relations Act
mgmt 371 ole miss ch 10 – Flashcards 66 terms

Rae Jordan
66 terms
Preview
mgmt 371 ole miss ch 10 – Flashcards
question
Another term for human capital is
answer
intellectual capital
question
People are a source of competitive advantage when
answer
their skills, knowledge, and abilities are not equally available to all competitors.
question
HR planning involves three stages
answer
planning, programming and evaluating
question
the most difficult part of HR planning is
answer
conducting demand forecasts, that is, determining how many and what type of people are needed.
question
Firms can create a competitive advantage when human resources are
answer
valuable. rare. inimitable. organized.
question
The design and control of formal systems for the management of people within an organization is known as
answer
human resources management
question
Establishing formal systems for the management of people within the organization is the function of
answer
human resources management
question
Companies use empowerment programs, continuous improvement and total quality initiatives in order to achieve
answer
value.
question
Companies use empowerment programs, continuous improvement and total quality initiatives in order to achieve ______________ through their human resources
answer
value
question
When managers and executives describe the strategic value of skills and knowledge of employees, they use the term
answer
human capital.
question
Concerns of human resource managers include which of the following?
answer
How to manage employee layoffs
question
What is conducting demand forecasts
answer
determining how many and what type of people are needed
question
The programming stage of human resources management consists of
answer
implementing the plans determined earlier
question
The final stage in the human resource planning process is to
answer
evaluate the activities conducted to ensure that they are producing the desired results
question
Which of the following is the stage of the HR planning process in which the organization enacts specific human resource activities, such as recruitment and training?
answer
programming.
question
human resources planning consists of
answer
demand forecasts, internal and external labor supply forecasts and job analysis
question
the organization estimates the number and quality of its current employees and the available external supply of workers
answer
labor supply forecast
question
The skills, knowledge, abilities and other characteristics needed to perform a job are detailed in a
answer
job specification
question
refers to the essential tasks, duties and responsibilities involved in performing a job.
answer
job description
question
A tool for determining what is done on a given job and what should be done on that job is called a
answer
Job analysis
question
developing a pool of applicants for a job
answer
Recruitment
question
An internal mechanism for promoting open job positions
answer
job posting
question
A significant advantage associated with external recruiting is that
answer
brings in "new blood" to inspire innovation
question
Which of these methods has been found to be the way most job positions get filled
answer
Employee referrals
question
a selection technique that involves asking all applicants the same questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers
answer
structured interview
question
Which of the following explores what candidates have actually done in the past?
answer
Behavioral description interview
question
preemployment selection tool most often used by Fortune 1000 companies is
answer
criminal records check
question
Personality tests are
answer
hard to defend in court
question
measure a range of intellectual abilities, including verbal comprehension (vocabulary, reading) and numerical aptitude (mathematical calculations)
answer
Cognitive ability tests
question
the test taker performs a sample of the job.
answer
performance test
question
is a managerial performance test in which candidates participate in a variety of exercises and situations
answer
assessment center
question
tests are used to assess a job candidate's honesty
answer
Integrity
question
assessment of the accuracy of the selection test
answer
Validity
question
refers to the degree to which a test actually predicts or correlates with job performance.
answer
Criterion-related validity
question
The degree to which test scores are consistent over time and across measurements is known as
answer
reliability
question
helping displaced workers find other employment
answer
Outplacement
question
The legal concept that an employee may be terminated for any reason is known as
answer
employment-at-will
question
should deliver the bad news to employees
answer
immediate superior
question
prohibits discrimination based on race, sex, color, national origin and religion?
answer
The Civil Rights Act of 1964
question
prohibits employment discrimination against people with disabilities.
answer
The Americans with Disabilities Act
question
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits unequal pay based on
answer
gender
question
An analysis identifying the jobs, people and departments for which training is necessary is a(n)
answer
needs assessment
question
Development differs from training in that
answer
development focuses on managers and professional employees
question
Training should consist of four distinct stages or decisions. They are
answer
needs assessment, designs, method determination, evaluation of results
question
typically used to familiarize new employees with their new jobs, work units and the organization in general.
answer
Orientation
question
Training that provides employees with the skills and perspectives they need to collaborate with others is known as
answer
team training.
question
Programs that focus on identifying and reducing hidden biases against people with differences and developing the skills needed to manage a diversified workforce is known as
answer
diversity training
question
tend to be more objective and can focus on data such as sales or profits.
answer
results appraisals
question
focus more on observable aspects of performance
answer
Behavioral appraisals
question
process has both administrative functions and developmental functions
answer
Performance Appraisals
question
a process in which objectives set by a subordinate and a supervisor must be reached within a given time period.
answer
MBO
question
feedback is obtained from subordinates, peers, and superiors—every level involved with the employee. Often the person being rated can select the appraisers.
answer
360-degree appraisal
question
Which of the following is an appropriate guideline to follow when conducting performance appraisals with an underperforming employee?
answer
Describe detailed expectations and standards
question
are the traditional source of appraisal information because they are often best positioned to observe an employee's performance.
answer
Managers and supervisors
question
Which of the following is an external factor that affects the wage mix
answer
Legal requirements
question
what are devised to encourage and motivate employees to be more productive?
answer
Incentive plans
question
The most common incentive systems are
answer
individual incentive plans
question
what benefit is required by law
answer
Workers Compensation
question
employees choose from a menu of options to create a benefit package tailored to their needs.
answer
cafeteria benefit plans
question
The principle of equal pay for different jobs of equal value is called
answer
comparable worth.
question
The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 states that pregnancy is a
answer
disability
question
The legislation which requires employers to pursue workplace safety is the
answer
Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
question
The National Labor Relations Act of 1935
answer
declared unions legal
question
Collective bargaining commonly establishes
answer
A. wages, hours and working conditions. B. a grievance procedure. C. order of layoffs. D. job bidding.
question
The use of a neutral third party to resolve a labor dispute is known as
answer
arbitration
question
Legislation that allows employees to work without having to join a union is known as
answer
right-to-work
Business Management
Cognitive Ability Test
Deep Level Diversity
Hersey And Blanchard
Leader Member Relations
Linguistics
Long Term View
Organizational Psychology
Personal Growth And Development
Problems And Concerns
Productivity And Efficiency
Ch 12 – Leadership Answers – Flashcards 92 terms

Patrick Marsh
92 terms
Preview
Ch 12 – Leadership Answers – Flashcards
question
What's the difference between managers and leaders
answer
Leaders begin with the question, "What should we be doing?" while managers start with "How can we do what we're already doing better?"
question
Define trait theory
answer
Effective leaders possess a similar set of traits and characteristics.
question
Define traits
answer
relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior. Trait theory is also known as the "great person" theory because early versions of the theory stated that leaders are born, not made. In other words, you either have the right stuff to be a leader, or you don't. And if you don't, there is no way to get it.
question
What are the 7 leadership traits?
answer
Drive, Desire to lead, Honesty and Integrity, Self Confidence, Emotional stability, cognitive ability, knowledge of the business
question
Define drive
answer
refers to high levels of effort and is characterized by achievement, motivation, initiative, energy, and tenacity. In terms of achievement and ambition, leaders always try to make improvements or achieve success in what they're doing.
question
Define desire to lead
answer
They want to be in charge and think about ways to influence or convince others about what should or shouldn't be done.
question
Define honesty/integrity
answer
Honesty, being truthful with others, is a cornerstone of leadership. Without it, leaders won't be trusted. When leaders are honest, subordinates are willing to overlook other flaws. Integrity is the extent to which leaders do what they say they will do. Leaders may be honest and have good intentions, but if they don't consistently deliver on what they promise, they won't be trusted.
question
Define self confidence
answer
believing in one's abilities, also distinguishes leaders from nonleaders. Self confident leaders are more decisive and assertive and are more likely to gain others' confidence. Moreover, self confident leaders will admit mistakes because they view them as learning opportunities rather than a refutation of their leadership capabilities.
question
Define emotional stability
answer
Even when things go wrong, they remain even tempered and consistent in their outlook and in the way they treat others. Leaders who can't control their emotions, who become angry quickly or attack and blame others for mistakes, are unlikely to be trusted. Leaders are also smart.
question
Define cognitive abilities
answer
This doesn't mean that leaders are necessarily geniuses far from it. But it does mean that leaders have the capacity to analyze large amounts of seemingly unrelated, complex information and see patterns, opportunities, or threats where others might not see them.
question
Define knowledge of the business
answer
Finally, leaders also know their stuff , which means they have superior technical knowledge about the businesses they run. Leaders who have a good knowledge of the business understand the key technological decisions and concerns facing their companies. More often than not, studies indicate that effective leaders have long, extensive experience in their industries.
question
What are the 2 leadership behaviors that form the basis for many of the leadership theories discussed in this chapter
answer
Initiating structure and consideration
question
Define initiating structure
answer
the degree to which a leader structures the roles of followers by setting goals, giving directions, setting deadlines, and assigning tasks. A leader's ability to initiate structure primarily affects subordinates' job performance.
question
Define consideration
answer
the extent to which a leader is friendly, approachable, and supportive and shows concern for employees. Consideration primarily affects subordinates' job satisfaction.
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Describe the Blake/Mouton leadership grid
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Blake and Mouton used two leadership behaviors, concern for people (i.e., consideration) and concern for production (i.e., initiating structure), to categorize five different leadership styles. Both behaviors are rated on a 9 point scale, with 1 representing "low" and 9 representing "high." Blake and Mouton suggest that a "high high," or 9, 9 leadership style is the best. They call this style team management because leaders who use it display a high concern for people (9) and a high concern for production (9). By contrast, leaders use a 9, 1 authority compliance leadership style when they have a high concern for production and a low concern for people. A 1, 9 country club style occurs when leaders care about having a friendly, enjoyable work environment but don't really pay much attention to production or performance. The worst leadership style, according to the grid, is the 1, 1 impoverished leader, who shows little concern for people or production and does the bare minimum needed to keep his or her job. Finally, the 5, 5 middle of the road style occurs when leaders show a moderate amount of concern for both people and production. Is the team management style, with a high concern for production and a high concern for people, the best leadership style? Logically, it would seem so. Why wouldn't you want to show high concern for both people and production? Nonetheless, nearly 50 years of research indicates that there isn't one best leadership style. The best leadership style depends on the situation. In other words, no one leadership behavior by itself and no one combination of leadership behaviors works well across all situations and employees.
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Here is what the Blake/Mouton leadership grid looks like
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What are the 3 assumptions of Fiedler's Contingency Theory?
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the first basic assumption of Fiedler's theory is that leaders are effective when the work groups they lead perform well. So, instead of judging leaders' effectiveness by what they do (i.e., initiating structure and consideration) or who they are (i.e., trait theory), Fiedler assesses leaders by the conduct and performance of the people they supervise. Second, Fiedler assumes that leaders are generally unable to change their leadership styles and that they will be more effective when their styles are matched to the proper situation. Third, Fiedler assumes that the favorableness of a situation for a leader depends on the degree to which the situation permits the leader to influence the behavior of group members. Fiedler's third assumption is consistent with our definition of leadership as the process of influencing others to achieve group or organizational goals. In other words, in addition to traits, behaviors, and a favorable situation to match, leaders have to be allowed to lead.
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Fiedler uses a questionnaire called the __ __ __ scale to measure leadership style. The way that leaders treat people now is probably the way they've always treated others
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Least Preferred Coworker
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People who describe their LPC in a positive way (scoring 64 and above) have ___ ___ leadership styles. By contrast, people who describe their LPC in a negative way (scoring 57 or below) have ___ ___ leadership styles
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relationship oriented, task oriented
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When completing the LPC scale
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people are instructed to consider all of the people with whom they have ever worked and then to choose the one person with whom they have worked least well. Fiedler explains, "This does not have to be the person you liked least well, but should be the one person with whom you have the most trouble getting the job done."
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Define situational favorableness
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The degree to which a particular situation either permits or denies a leader the chance to influence the behavior of group members.
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What are the 3 situational factors determine the favorability of a situation
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Leader member relations, task structure, position power
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In ___ ___ situations, leaders find that their actions influence followers. But in ___ ___ situations, leaders have little or no success influencing the people they are trying to lead
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highly favorable, highly unfavorable
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What is the most important situational factor and define this?
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Leader member relations and refers to how well followers respect, trust, and like their leaders. When leader member relations are good, followers trust the leader and there is a friendly work atmosphere.
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Define task structure
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the degree to which the requirements of a subordinate's tasks are clearly specified. With highly structured tasks, employees have clear job responsibilities, goals, and procedures.
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Define position power
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the degree to which leaders are able to hire, fire, reward, and punish workers. The more influence leaders have over hiring, firing, rewards, and punishments, the greater their power.
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Here's what matching leadership styles to situations looks like
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Describe what the matching leadership styles to situations is
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Relationship oriented leaders with high LPC scores were better leaders (i.e., their groups performed more effectively) under moderately favorable situations. In moderately favorable situations, the leader may be liked somewhat, tasks may be somewhat structured, and the leader may have some position power. In this situation, a relationship oriented leader improves leader member relations, which is the most important of the three situational factors. In turn, morale and performance improve. By contrast, as Exhibit 12.6 shows, task oriented leaders with low LPC scores are better leaders in highly favorable and unfavorable situations. Task oriented leaders do well in favorable situations where leaders are liked, tasks are structured, and the leader has the power to hire, fire, reward, and punish. In these favorable situations, task oriented leaders effectively step on the gas of a well tuned car. Their focus on performance sets the goal for the group, which then charges forward to meet it. But task oriented leaders also do well in unfavorable situations where leaders are disliked, tasks are unstructured, and the leader doesn't have the power to hire, fire, reward, and punish. In these unfavorable situations, the task oriented leader sets goals, which focus attention on performance and clarify what needs to be done, thus overcoming low task structure. This is enough to jump start performance even if workers don't like or trust the leader. People with moderate LPC scores, who can be somewhat relationship oriented or somewhat task oriented, tend to do fairly well in all situations because they can adapt their behavior. Typically, though, they don't perform quite as well as relationship oriented or task oriented leaders whose leadership styles are well matched to the situation.
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Fiedler assumes leaders to be
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be incapable of changing their leadership styles.
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What is the key to applying Fiedler's contingency theory in the workplace
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Accurately measure and match leaders to situations. Teach leaders how to change situational favorableness by changing leader member relations, task structure, or positive power.
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Define path goal theory
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A leadership theory that states that leaders can increase subordinate satisfaction and performance by clarifying and clearing the paths to goals and by increasing the number and kinds of rewards available for goal attainment.
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In contrast to Fiedler's contingency theory, path goal theory assumes
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that leaders can change and adapt their leadership styles.
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What are the 5 assumptions of path goal theory
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Clarify paths to goals. Clear paths to goals by solving problems and removing roadblocks. Increase the number and kinds of rewards available for goal attainment. Do things that satisfy followers today or will lead to future rewards or satisfaction. Offer followers something unique and valuable beyond what they're experiencing.
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Leaders need to clarify how followers
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can achieve organizational goals, take care of problems that prevent followers from achieving goals, and then find more and varied rewards to motivate followers to achieve those goals.
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What are the 2 conditions that leaders must meet for path clarification, path clearing, and rewards to increase followers' motivation and effort
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First, leader behavior must be a source of immediate or future satisfaction for followers. The things you do as a leader must either please your followers today or lead to activities or rewards that will satisfy them in the future. Second, while providing the coaching, guidance, support, and rewards necessary for effective work performance, leader behaviors must complement and not duplicate the characteristics of followers' work environments. Thus, leader behaviors must offer something unique and valuable to followers beyond what they're already experiencing as they do their jobs or what they can already do for themselves. In contrast to Fiedler's contingency theory, path goal theory assumes that leaders can change and adapt their leadership styles.
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Here is how path goal theory looks like
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What are the 4 leadership styles in path goal theory
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Directive, supportive, participative, and achievement oriented
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Define directive leadership
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involves letting employees know precisely what is expected of them, giving them specific guidelines for performing tasks, scheduling work, setting standards of performance, and making sure that people follow standard rules and regulations
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Define supportive leadership
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involves being approachable and friendly to employees, showing concern for them and their welfare, treating them as equals, and creating a friendly climate. Supportive leadership is very similar to considerate leader behavior. Supportive leadership often results in employee satisfaction with the job and with leaders. This leadership style may also result in improved performance when it increases employee confidence, lowers employee job stress, or improves relations and trust between employees and leaders.
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Define participative leadership
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involves consulting employees for their suggestions and input before making decisions. Participation in decision making should help followers understand which goals are most important and clarify the paths to accomplish them. Furthermore, when people participate in decisions, they become more committed to making them work.
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Define achievement oriented leadership
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means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
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Path goal theory identifies 3 kinds of subordinate contingencies
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Perceived ability, experience, and locus of control (internals vs externals)
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Define perceived ability
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simply how much ability subordinates believe they have for doing their jobs well. Subordinates who perceive that they have a great deal of ability will be dissatisfied with directive leader behaviors.
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Define experience
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Experienced employees are likely to react in a similar way. Since they already know how to do their jobs (or perceive that they do), they don't need or want close supervision. By contrast, subordinates with little experience or little perceived ability will welcome directive leadership.
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Define locus of control and intervals vs externals
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Locus of control is a personality measure that indicates the extent to which people believe that they have control over what happens to them in life. Internals believe that what happens to them, good or bad, is largely a result of their choices and actions. Externals, on the other hand, believe that what happens to them is caused by external forces beyond their control. Accordingly, externals are much more comfortable with a directive leadership style, whereas internals greatly prefer a participative leadership style because they like to have a say in what goes on at work.
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What are the 3 kinds of environmental contingencies
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Task structure, formal authority system, and primary work group
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Define task structure
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the degree to which the requirements of a subordinate's tasks are clearly specified. When task structure is low and tasks are unclear, directive leadership should be used because it complements the work environment. When task structure is high and tasks are clear, however, directive leadership is not needed because it duplicates what task structure provides. Alternatively, when tasks are stressful, frustrating, or dissatisfying, leaders should respond with supportive leadership.
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Define the formal authority system
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is an organization's set of procedures, rules, and policies. When the formal authority system is unclear, directive leadership complements the situation by reducing uncertainty and increasing clarity. But when the formal authority system is clear, directive leadership is redundant and should not be used.
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Define primary work group
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group refers to the amount of work oriented participation or emotional support that is provided by an employee's immediate work group. Participative leadership should be used when tasks are complex and there is little existing work oriented participation in the primary work group. When tasks are stressful, frustrating, or repetitive, supportive leadership is called for.
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Here's what path goal theory: when to use directive, supportive, participative, or achievement oriented leadership looks like
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Define outcomes
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People who work for supportive and directive leaders are more satisfied with their jobs and their bosses.
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Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory takes into consideration what 2 things?
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Work readiness and leadership styles
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Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership theory is based on the
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idea of follower readiness. They argue that employees have different levels of readiness for handling different jobs, responsibilities, and work assignments. Accordingly, Hersey and Blanchard's situational theory states that leaders need to adjust their leadership styles to match followers' readiness.
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Define worker readiness
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The ability and willingness to take responsibility for directing one's behavior at work.
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What 2 components are worker readiness composed of
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Job readiness and psychological readiness
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Define job readiness
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consists of the amount of knowledge, skill, ability, and experience people have to perform their jobs. As you would expect, people with greater skill, ability, and experience do a better job of supervising their own work.
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Define psychological readiness
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is a feeling of self confidence or self respect. Confident people are better at guiding their own work than insecure people are.
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What does situational theory define
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leadership style in terms of task behavior and relationship behavior.
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What are the 4 leadership styles
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Telling, selling, participating, delegating
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Define telling leadership style
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(high task behavior and low relationship behavior) is based on one way communication in which followers are told what, how, when, and where to do particular tasks. Telling is used when people are at the R1 stage. For instance, someone using a telling leadership style would identify all the steps in a project and give explicit instructions on exactly how to execute each one.
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Define selling leadership style
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(high task behavior and high relationship behavior) involves two way communication and psychological support to encourage followers to own, or buy into, particular ways of doing things. Selling is used most appropriately at the R2 stage. For instance, someone using a selling leadership style might say, "We're going to start a company newsletter. I really think that's a great idea, don't you? We're going to need some cost estimates from printers and some comments from each manager. But that's pretty straightforward. Oh, don't forget that we need the CEO's comments, too. She's expecting you to call. I know that you'll do a great job on this. We'll meet next Tuesday to see if you have any questions once you've dug into this. By the way, we need to have this done by next Friday."
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Define participating style
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(low task behavior and high relationship behavior) is based on two way communication and shared decision making. Participating is used with employees at R3. Since the problem is with motivation rather than ability, someone using a participating leadership style might solicit ideas from a subordinate about a project and let the subordinate get started but ask to review progress along the way.
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Define delegating style
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(low task behavior and low relationship behavior) is used when leaders basically let workers run their own show and make their own decisions. Delegating is used for people at R4. For instance, someone using a delegating leadership style might say, "We're going to start a company newsletter. You've got 10 days to do it. Run with it. Let me know when you've got it done. I'll email you a couple of ideas, but other than that, do what you think is best. Thanks."
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Job readiness and psychological readiness are combined to produce
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four different levels of readiness in Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership theory. The lowest level, R1, represents insecure people who are neither willing nor able to take responsibility for guiding their own work. R2 represents people who are confident and are willing but not able to take responsibility for guiding their own work. R3 represents people who are insecure and are able but not willing to take responsibility. And R4 represents people who are confident and willing and able to take responsibility
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Decision styles and levels of employee participation range from
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those styles vary from autocratic decisions (AI or AII) on the left, in which leaders make the decisions by themselves, to consultative decisions (CI or CII), in which leaders share problems with subordinates but still make the decisions themselves, to group decisions (GII) on the right, in which leaders share the problems with subordinates and then have the group make the decisions.
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Define normative decision theory
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(also known as the Vroom Yetton Jago Model) helps leaders decide how much employee participation (from none to letting employees make the entire decision) should be used when making decisions.
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Describe normative decision theory
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instead specifies five different decision styles or ways of making decisions. As shown in this slide, those styles vary from autocratic decisions (AI or AII), in which leaders make the decisions by themselves, to consultative decisions (CI or CII), in which leaders share problems with subordinates but still make the decisions themselves, to group decisions (GII), in which leaders share the problems with subordinates and then have the group make the decisions.
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According to the normative decision theory, using the right degree of employee participation
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improves the quality of decisions and the extent to which employees accept and are committed to decisions.
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What is the decision tree
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Helps leaders identify optimal level of participation
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What are the 5 decision rules to increase decision quality
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Quality rule, leader information rule, subordinate information rule, goal congruence rule, problem structure rule
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Define quality rule
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If the quality of the decision is important, then don't use an autocratic decision style
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Define leader information rule
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If the quality of the decision is important and if the leader doesn't have enough information to make the decision on his or her own, then don't use an autocratic decision style.
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Define subordinate information rule
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If the quality of the decision is important, and if the subordinates don't have enough information to make the decision themselves, then don't use a group decision style
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Define goal congruence rule
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If the quality of the decision is important and subordinates' goals are different from the organization's goals, then don't use a group decision style
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Define problem structure rule
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If the quality of the decision is important, the leader doesn't have enough information to make the decision on his or her own, and the problem is unstructured, then don't use an autocratic decision style
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What are the 3 decision rules to increase decision acceptance
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Commitment probability rule, subordinate conflict rule, commitment requirement rule
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Define commitment probability rule
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If having subordinates accept and commit to the decision is important, then don't use an autocratic decision style
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Define subordinate conflict rule
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If having subordinates accept the decision is important and critical to successful implementation and subordinates are likely to disagree or end up in conflict over the decision, then don't use an autocratic or consultative decision style.
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Define commitment requirement rule
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If having subordinates accept the decision is absolutely required for successful implementation and subordinates share the organization's goals, then don't use an autocratic or consultative style.
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Define strategic leadership
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the ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, think strategically, and work with others to initiate changes that will create a positive future for an organization. For example, every dollar invested in Walgreen's over the last 25 years would be worth twice as much as a dollar invested in Intel, and five times as much as a dollar invested in GE. CEO Charles Walgreen III transformed the company by focusing Walgreen's managers and employees on the strategic objective of "providing the best drugstore service in America." Not once did Mr. Walgreen point to himself as a key factor, preferring instead to credit the great people he had on his team.Thus, strategic leadership captures how leaders inspire their followers to change and to give extraordinary effort to accomplish organizational goals.
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Define visionary leadership
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creates a positive image of the future that motivates organizational members and provides direction for future planning and goal setting.
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Define charismatic leadership
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The behavioral tendencies and personal characteristics of leaders that create an exceptionally strong relationship with followers.
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What do charismatic leaders do?
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articulate a clear vision for the future that is based on strongly held values or morals. model those values by acting in a way consistent with the vision. communicate high performance expectations to followers. display confidence in followers' abilities to achieve the vision.
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What are the 2 kinds of charismatic leaders
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Ethical charismatics and unethical charismatics
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Define ethical chrismatics
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provide developmental opportunities for followers, are open to positive and negative feedback, recognize others' contributions, share information, and have moral standards that emphasize the larger interests of the group, organization, or society. Ethical charismatics produce stronger commitment, higher satisfaction, more effort, better performance, and greater trust.
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Define unethical charismatics
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control and manipulate followers, do what is best for themselves instead of their organizations, only want to hear positive feedback, only share information that is beneficial to themselves, and have moral standards that put their interests before everyone else's. John Thompson, a management consultant, said, "Often what begins as a mission becomes an obsession. Leaders can cut corners on values and become driven by self interest. Then they may abuse anyone who makes a mistake."
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Define transformational leadership
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Generates awareness and acceptance of a group's purpose and mission and gets employees to see beyond their own needs and self interests for the good of the group.
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What are the 4 components of transformational leadership
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Idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration
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Define idealized influence
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means that transformational leaders act as role models for their followers
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Define inspirational motivation
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means that transformational leaders motivate and inspire followers by providing meaning and challenge to their work.
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Define intellectual stimulation
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means that transformational leaders encourage followers to be creative and innovative, to question assumptions, and to look at problems and situations in new ways even if their ideas are different from the leaders.
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Define individualized consideration
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means that transformational leaders pay special attention to followers' individual needs by creating learning opportunities, accepting and tolerating individual differences, encouraging two way communication, and being good listeners.