Building Blocks Of Dna Flashcards, test questions and answers
Discover flashcards, test exam answers, and assignments to help you learn more about Building Blocks Of Dna and other subjects. Don’t miss the chance to use them for more effective college education. Use our database of questions and answers on Building Blocks Of Dna and get quick solutions for your test.
We've found 6 Building Blocks Of Dna tests
Biology
Building Blocks Of Dna
Genetics
James Watson And Francis Crick
DNA Replication, Transcription, and Translation Study Guide – Flashcards 36 terms

Ethan Carter
36 terms
Preview
DNA Replication, Transcription, and Translation Study Guide – Flashcards
question
Nucleotide Structure
answer
Nucleotides are made up of three basic components: a 5-carbon sugar called deoxyribose, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous (nitrogen containing) base.
question
Watson & Crick
answer
Watson & Crick's model of DNA was a double helix, in which 2 strands were wound around each other.
question
Nucleotide
answer
Consists of a sugar, phosphate, and a base.
question
Nucleotide Image
answer
Circle- phosphate, Pentagon- Sugar, Half Oval- nitrogen base- A,T,G,C
question
Adenine pairs to?
answer
Thymine
question
Guanine pairs to?
answer
Cytosine
question
DNA has?
answer
Deoxyribose sugar
question
RNA has?
answer
Ribose sugar
question
RNA has what nitrogen base that DNA doesn't have?
answer
Uracil
question
DNA has what nitrogen base that RNA doesn't have?
answer
Thymine
question
mRNA means?
answer
Messenger RNA
question
tRNA means?
answer
Transfer RNA
question
Transcription takes place in the?
answer
Nucleus
question
In Transcription, A strand of DNA is used as a template to create what?
answer
A strand of mRNA
question
In Transcription, Within a strand of DNA there are two different types of segments, what are those segments?
answer
Introns and Exons
question
In Transcription, Introns do not contain what?
answer
genes for proteins (aka "non-coding segments")
question
In Transcription, Exon contains what?
answer
genes for proteins
question
In Transcription, An enzyme called _____ finds the gene that codes for a protein and starts reading it at the "starting point" called the ____
answer
RNA polymerase and promoter
question
In Transcription, As the RNA polymerase reads the gene, free-floating nucleotides attach together to form a complementary strand of what?
answer
mRNA (A,U,G,C)
question
Transcription does what to the recipe?
answer
Reads it
question
Translation does what to the recipe?
answer
Makes it
question
In Transcription, Every _____ (also known as codon) of mRNA codes for protein building blocks=_____
answer
3 nucleotide bases and Amino Acid
question
In Translation, mRNA travels to the _____ and attaches to a ____
answer
Cytoplasm and Ribosome
question
In Translation, The ribosome does what to the mRNA strand?
answer
Reads it
question
In Translation, tRNA is instructed to an attach amino acid to the mRNA. What is amino acids also known as?
answer
Protein Building Blocks
question
In Translation, after the tRNA attaches the amino acid to the mRNA it forms a polypeptide chain of amino acids called a?
answer
Protein
question
List differences between Transcription and Translation.
answer
Transcription: Reads recipe, Takes place in nucleus, DNA-->mRNA, RNA poly, Has Introns & Exons, 3 nucleotides= codon. Translation: Makes recipe, Takes place in Cytoplasm, Amino Acids, Proteins, mRNA--> protein, Ribosome, tRNA
question
DNA Replication does what?
answer
Copies the recipe, DNA--> DNA
question
In DNA Rep., mRNA codons is the?
answer
Recipe
question
What phase of interphase does DNA replicate?
answer
S phase
question
DNA replicates how?
answer
Semi-conservatively, half the old strand is saved and creates a new complementary strand.
question
An enzyme called ____ breaks the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together to "unzip" the DNA.
answer
Helicase
question
In DNA Rep., As DNA is being unzipped, free- floating ____ are attached to the nitrogenous base on each strand.
answer
Nucleotides
question
In DNA Rep., Each new strand formed is called the _____ strand to the original strand.
answer
Complement
question
In protein synthesis practice you do what?
answer
Change original DNA strand to mRNA strand, then figure out the amino acids that the codons form.
question
List all differences in DNA replication from Transcription and Translation.
answer
DNA Replication: DNA copies itself, replicates in S phase, Replicates semi-conservatively, Helicase unzips DNA, nucleotides attach to nitrogenous bases, forms complement strand, copies the recipe, DNA--->DNA, A,T,G,C
AP Biology
Biology
Building Blocks Of Dna
Cell Biology
Genetics
IB Biology
Bio 1, Chapter 12 DNA – Flashcards 37 terms

Malcolm Bright
37 terms
Preview
Bio 1, Chapter 12 DNA – Flashcards
question
What does DNA replication results in? What does semi conservative mean in regards to DNA replication?
answer
DNA replication is considered semi conservative because it produces two DNA strands each with one new strand and one original strand
question
During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CATTACGGA produces a strand with the bases
answer
GTAATGCCA.
question
Where is DNA located in eukaryotes and prokaryotes
answer
Eukaryotes the nucleus and prokaryotes in the cytoplasm
question
When does DNA replication happen?
answer
DNA replication happens before cell division in the S phase of interphase.
question
How many copies of chromosomes are left after DNA replication?
answer
2
question
____________adds bases to the new strand of DNA
answer
DNA Polymerase
question
Produced images of DNA molecules using X-rays.
answer
Franklin
question
Used X-ray diffraction to take pictures of DNA. 2nd discovery
answer
Franklin
question
Chargaff showed that adenine and thymine were found in equal percentages in DNA, but he did not know this was because of base-pairing. First discovery
answer
Chargaff
question
Figured out the shape of DNA was a double helix and the two strands in DNA ran in opposite directions. 3rd Discovery
answer
Watson and Crick
question
Discovered that weak hydrogen bonds hold the bases together at the center of a strand of DNA and strong covalent bonds hold the backbone of DNA together
answer
Watson and Crick
question
What structural problem prevents adenine from pairing with guanine and cytosine with thymine?
answer
Guanine and adenine would be too long. cytosine and thymine would too short.
question
True or False: Rosalind Franklin contributed to the understanding of DNA by producing images of DNA molecules using X-rays.
answer
true
question
What stores information in a cell?
answer
DNA
question
What makes up a nucleotide of DNA?
answer
deoxyribose + phosphate group + a nitrogenous base such as cytosine, guanine, thymine, adenine
question
What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?
answer
Genetic information is lost
question
DNA makes a good molecule for storing information because
answer
its bases can be joined together in any order, like the letters of the alphabet can be strung to form different words.
question
In what way is DNA like a book?
answer
DNA has stored information, that can be copied and passed on
question
In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what happened to the bacteria that had been infected by viruses that had radioactive DNA, and to the bacteria that had been infected with viruses that had been marked with radioactive proteins?
answer
The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins were not radioactive.
question
Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorous and not radioactive sulfur?
answer
DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur.
question
What do bacteriophages infect?
answer
Bacteria
question
What is inside a bacteriophage?
answer
Nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA
question
True or False : Griffith's experiments advanced the study of genetics by proving that there is a chemical that contains genetic information that can be passed from one organism to another.
answer
True
question
What happened when Griffith injected mice with the harmless, R-strain bacteria alone?
answer
The mouse lived
question
What would happen if Griffith took some of the bacteria from Experiment 4 in Figure 12-11, grew them on culture plates, killed them with heat, and mixed them with harmless bacteria? How could he test this hypothesis? Refer to study guide for figure.
answer
The harmless bacteria would be transformed into disease-causing bacteria. To test this hypothesis, he could inject the bacteria in to mice and see if the mice develop pneumonia, or he could grow them on plates and observe the colonies that grow.
question
What happened to the bacteria and the mice in experiment 4, in Figure 12-11? refer to study guide for figure
answer
The harmless bacteria were transformed by the heat-killed bacteria, making the harmless bacteria deadly. The mice that were injected with the mixture died.
question
In which experiments in Figure 12-11 do the mice live Refer to study guide for figure
answer
Experiment 2 and 3
question
What process did Griffith identify in the series of experiments in Figure 12-11? Refer to study guide for figure.
answer
Bacterial transformation
question
concluded that DNA was the transforming factor.
answer
Avery
question
Griffith called the process he observed transformation because the _______ bacteria had been transformed.
answer
_____harmless___
question
Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffith's transformation experiment?
answer
The live harmful bacteria (S strain) and the heat-killed, harmful bacteria mixture
question
Process in which one strain of bacteria is changed by a gene or genes from another strain of bacteria.
answer
Transformation
question
kind of virus that infects bacteria
answer
bacteriophage
question
Principle that bonds in DNA can form only between adenine and thymine and between guanine and cytosine.
answer
base pairing
question
Process of copying DNA prior to cell division
answer
replication
question
principle enzyme involved in DNA replication
answer
DNA Polymerase
question
repetitive DNA at the end of a eukaryotic chromosome
answer
telomere
AP Biology
Biology
Building Blocks Of Dna
Chapter 12 Mastering Biology – Flashcards 98 terms

Patrick Marsh
98 terms
Preview
Chapter 12 Mastering Biology – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is an example of a transgenic organism?
answer
a bacterium with human gene for producing insulin
question
Restriction enzymes _____.
answer
cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences
question
The process of accurately amplifying a sample of DNA is called _____.
answer
the polymerase chain reaction
question
Gel electrophoresis separates pieces of DNA based on _____.
answer
size
question
A supplemental appendix is to a book as a _____ is to a bacterial chromosome.
answer
plasmid
question
The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as _____.
answer
sticky ends
question
Which of the following statements best defines recombinant DNA technology?
answer
combining genes from different sources
question
Frequently, genetic engineers use plasmids, which are _____.
answer
small circlets of DNA found in bacteria
question
What does the term vector refer to in genetic engineering?
answer
a plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into a living cell
question
An enzyme that "cuts" DNA at a specific sequence of nucleotide bases is called _____.
answer
a restriction enzyme
question
A genomic library is _____.
answer
a collection of cloned DNA fragments from an organism's genome
question
Copies of cloned genes are stored in a _____.
answer
genomic library
question
DNA synthesized using an RNA template is called _____.
answer
cDNA
question
Which step in this process requires use of restriction enzymes?
answer
step B
question
Which step in the creation of cDNA involves the use of reverse transcriptase?
answer
step 3
question
When DNA from two sources is combined into one single piece of DNA, it is known as
answer
recombinant DNA
question
In the process of human gene cloning using plasmids, the bacterial plasmid
answer
is used as the vector.
question
DNA ligase binds
answer
nucleotides in the DNA backbone together.
question
When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein,
answer
the desired gene is inserted into the plasmid, and the plasmid is returned to the bacterium by transformation.
question
_____ are a major source of restriction enzymes.
answer
Bacterial cells
question
Restriction enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of DNA called
answer
restriction sites.
question
"Sticky ends" are
answer
DNA fragments with single-stranded ends.
question
After DNA fragments with matching sticky ends are temporarily joined by complementary base pairing, the union can be made permanent by the "pasting" enzyme
answer
DNA ligase
question
Genomic libraries can be constructed using either bacterial plasmids or what other vector?
answer
bacteriophages
question
The enzyme that converts information stored in RNA to information stored in DNA is
answer
reverse transriptase
question
A cDNA library differs from a genomic library in that
answer
cDNA libraries only contain information from genes that have been transcribed.
question
A nucleic acid probe is
answer
a piece of radioactively labeled DNA that is used to locate a specific gene.
question
The type of recombinant bacteria most often used to mass-produce genes is
answer
Escherichia coli.
question
The only cells that can correctly attach sugars to proteins to form glycoprotein products are
answer
mammalian cells.
question
The advantage of being able to clone the gene for human insulin is that
answer
human insulin is less likely to cause harmful side effects than cow, pig, or horse insulin.
question
A vaccine works by
answer
stimulating the immune system.
question
Which of the following statements about DNA technology is false?
answer
DNA technology is now used to create cells that can identify and kill cancer cells.
question
Golden Rice is golden in color because it is rich in
answer
beta-carotene
question
A transgenic animal is
answer
an animal containing a gene from another organism, typically of another species.
question
Which of the following genetically modified organisms has not been developed by genetic engineers (at least, not yet)?
answer
transgenic corn with the gene for human insulin
question
Which of the following has not been a significant issue in the creation of genetically modified (GM) organisms?
answer
the fact that GM organisms cannot be modified to prevent them from reproducing once they pass beyond the experimental stage
question
What purpose does a nucleic acid probe serve?
answer
It helps identify genes that have been inserted into bacterial plasmids.
question
Insulin used for the treatment of diabetes in humans is now obtained from _____.
answer
bacteria
question
The production of genetically identical animals that are carrying recombinant human genes for pharmaceutical purposes, for example using goats to produce antithrombin, is called __________.
answer
pharming
question
Golden rice has been genetically engineered. Golden rice differs from other rice varieties because it contains genes that will produce _____.
answer
beta-carotene
question
Transgenic organisms are only scientifically or commercially useful if _____.
answer
the inserted ("foreign") gene is expressed in the host organism
question
Why is golden rice pale yellow in color?
answer
It is rich in beta-carotene.
question
Which of these is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency?
answer
blindness
question
Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
answer
beta-carotene
question
The transfer of antibiotic-resistant genes from genetically engineered bacteria to disease-causing bacteria _____.
answer
seems unlikely
question
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a health problem for someone with cystic fibrosis?
answer
obesity
question
The allele that causes cystic fibrosis is recessive. An individual who is heterozygous for cystic fibrosis
answer
is a carier.
question
If Sophie conceives a child, and the father neither has cystic fibrosis nor is a carrier, what are the chances that the child would have cystic fibrosis?
answer
0%, because the child must receive the bad gene from both parents
question
If Sophie has a brother or sister from the same parents, what are the chances that sibling would have cystic fibrosis?
answer
25%
question
If someone is a carrier of a recessive genetic disorder, it means he or she has __________ of the allele, and __________ exhibit symptoms of the disorder.
answer
one copy; does not
question
Which of the following do you think contributed the most to the success of Rhys' gene therapy?
answer
Doctors were replacing only one gene, and they only had to insert that gene into bone marrow cells.
question
Theoretically, which of the following diseases should be the easiest to treat through gene therapy, considering the targeted organs and tissues where the corrected gene must be delivered?
answer
diabetes, since the target cells are found only in the pancreas
question
What does the process of gene therapy involve?
answer
It adds a functioning version of the defective gene to the cells of an individual.
question
DNA profiling is a forensic procedure being utilized to identify individuals. This technique _____.
answer
compares the DNA banding patterns of small segments of the genome
question
In a PCR reaction, the strands of DNA are first separated by ___.
answer
heating
question
When is PCR particularly applicable?
answer
When there are small quantities of DNA to analyze
question
What is the correct sequence of events that occur in a PCR reaction?
answer
separation of DNA strands; addition of primers; use of DNA polymerase to produce second strand of DNA
question
DNA polymerase is a heat-sensitive enzyme. What is one thing that would need to be considered concerning the activity of this enzyme in PCR when the temperature is heated during each cycle to separate the DNA strands?
answer
that the DNA polymerase could be denatured
question
What is the function of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
answer
It can make a large amount of DNA from a tiny amount.
question
During the Polymerase Chain Reaction, the two strands of DNA are separated by _____.
answer
applying heat that breaks the hydrogen bonds connecting the DNA strands
question
In gel electrophoresis DNA molecules migrate from _____ to _____ ends of the gel.
answer
negative ... positive
question
DNA moves through a gel toward the positive electrode when an electric charge is applied. What property of DNA allows this movement or migration to occur?
answer
DNA has a negative charge.
question
Gel electrophoresis separates DNA molecules on the basis of size. Which of the following DNA molecules would move the slowest?
answer
F plasmid (100 kb)
question
The variation that occurs in 13 predetermined sites scattered throughout the human genome can be used to identify individual people. This DNA profile is possible because _____.
answer
an individual is likely to have the same sequence in the same places but with a different number of repeats
question
To identify an individual involved in a crime, criminologists analyze DNA from a suspect's blood and compare the __________ to samples found at the crime scene.
answer
short tandem repeat DNA profile
question
What does the term restriction fragment length polymorphism mean?
answer
fragments of DNA that are different lengths in different individuals
question
Comparison of whole genome sequences shows that we share _____ of our genome sequence with our closest relative.
answer
96%
question
The RP13 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein _____.
answer
involved in eye development
question
The TP53 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein _____.
answer
involved in the regulation of the cell cycle
question
Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in growth?
answer
GH1
question
Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in white blood cell function?
answer
MPO
question
The individuals working on the Human Genome Project (HGP) were attempting to _____.
answer
map all the human genes and determine the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome
question
Approximately what percentage of the human genome actually encodes proteins?
answer
3%
question
Celera Genomics implemented a faster way of sequencing the human genome. What was this method?
answer
shotgun cloning
question
Proteomics studies _____.
answer
all of the proteins encoded in a genome
question
Analyses of human and Neanderthal FOXP2 genes have revealed that __________.
answer
Neanderthals may have had the ability to speak
question
In order for gene therapy to be permanent in the patient being treated,
answer
the normal gene must be transferred to somatic cells that can continuously multiply.
question
Genetically modifying ________ cells may directly affect future generations.
answer
gamete-forming
question
What is the preferred name of the technique used to determine if DNA comes from a particular individual?
answer
DNA profiling
question
The polymerase chain reaction relies upon unusual, heat-resistant ________ that were isolated from bacteria living in hot springs.
answer
DNA polymerases
question
If you commit a crime, you need to make sure that you do not leave even the smallest speck of blood, hair, or other organic matter from your body. If you do, the DNA in this material can be amplified by _____, subjected to genetic analysis, and used to identify you as the perpetrator of the crime.
answer
PCR
question
Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their
answer
size.
question
During the process of electrophoresis, the ________ functions like a molecular sieve, separating the samples according to their size.
answer
agarose gel
question
What is the current standard tool used for DNA profiling by forensic scientists?
answer
STR analysis
question
Which of the following statements regarding repetitive DNA is false?
answer
Repetitive DNA is identical in all humans.
question
Which of the following pieces of evidence would be considered the best for establishing biological relatedness?
answer
a very close match in the DNA profile
question
What is the smallest number of cells needed to perform a successful DNA profile?
answer
20
question
When genetic variation in one nucleotide is found in at least 1% of the population, it is known as a
answer
single nucleotide polymorphism.
question
Which of the following statements about genome sequencing is false?
answer
Most of the genomes that have been sequenced to date are eukaryotes.
question
Approximately what percentage of human DNA is noncoding?
answer
98.5%
question
The type of repetitive DNA composed of sequences of large repeated units is often associated with
answer
transposable elements.
question
Segments of eukaryotic DNA that can move or be copied from one site to another in the genome are called
answer
transposable elements.
question
The ________ approach to gene cloning employs a mixture of fragments from the entire genome of an organism and results in the production of thousands of different recombinant plasmids.
answer
shotgun
question
Why is the whole-genome shotgun method currently the tool of choice for analyzing genomes?
answer
It is fast and inexpensive.
question
The number of proteins in humans
answer
is much greater than the number of genes.
question
Which of the following statements regarding proteomics is true?
answer
Proteomics is the systematic study of the full set of proteins encoded by a genome.
question
Approximately what percentage of the human genome is identical to that of a chimpanzee?
answer
98.8%
question
Genome sequence analysis suggests that Neanderthals
answer
at least sometimes had pale skin and red hair.
AP Biology
Biology
Building Blocks Of Dna
Genetically Modified Foods
Human Genome Project
Unit 3 mastering Bio. – Flashcards 202 terms

Maisie Clarke
202 terms
Preview
Unit 3 mastering Bio. – Flashcards
question
Which of the following sentences correctly makes use of terms from the introduction to biotechnology?
answer
Genetic engineering can move genes from one species into another, creating a transgenic organism.
question
The pointer is indicating the virus's _____.
answer
genome
question
Viral DNA makes mRNA by the process of _____.
answer
transcription
question
How does the definition of "transformation" in Griffith's work with lethal and non-lethal strains of Streptococcus relate to the use of the term in this chapter?
answer
This chapter expands the definition of transformation to include the specific mechanism, DNA transfer, by which bacteria can gain new traits.
question
Which of the following is a major difference between PCR and replication of DNA during the cell cycle?
answer
PCR only copies a specific portion of DNA. Replication copies the entire genome.
question
Looking at the gel below, what can you conclude about the DNA in these samples?
answer
The DNA in sample C is longer than the DNA in sample A.
question
Which of these DNA molecules is the shortest?
answer
E
question
In gel electrophoresis DNA molecules migrate from _____ to _____ ends of the gel.
answer
negative ... positive
question
Why is golden rice pale yellow in color?
answer
It is rich in beta-carotene.
question
Which of these is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency?
answer
blindness
question
Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
answer
beta-carotene
question
The transfer of antibiotic-resistant genes from genetically engineered bacteria to disease-causing bacteria _____.
answer
seems unlikely
question
DNA fragment A consists of _____ base pairs.
answer
1,268
question
Which of these genes are located on the q arm of chromosome 17?
answer
gastrin and GH1
question
The RP13 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein _____.
answer
involved in eye development
question
The gene that codes for gastrin is located on the _____ of chromosome 17.
answer
q arm
question
The TP53 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a protein _____.
answer
involved in the regulation of the cell cycle
question
Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in growth?
answer
GH1
question
Which of these genes codes for a protein that plays a role in white blood cell function?
answer
MPO
question
You perform a restriction digest using Allele 2, run the sample on a gel, and probe using a piece of DNA that spans this extra restriction site. Which sample on the gel below belongs to Allele #2?
answer
sample C
question
Why have Florida citrus farmers been using more pesticides?
answer
In an effort to kill the organism that spreads citrus greening.
question
Which of the following techniques are scientists using to disrupt the DNA in crop species in the hope of speeding up evolution?
answer
Bombarding the plants with radiation.
question
You are buying groceries at a typical American grocery store. Which of the following foods is most likely to be genetically modified or contain genetically modified ingredients?
answer
corn meal
question
You are a member of Greenpeace and wish to organize a protest outside of the federal agency in charge of food labeling in the U.S. Where should you take your group of protestors?
answer
Food and Drug Administration
question
Utilizing a gene from which of the following currently appears to offer the most hope of saving Florida's orange trees from citrus greening?
answer
spinach
question
Imagine if proteins were constructed from 45 amino acids instead of 20. How many bases long would each codon in the DNA need to be in order to code for 45 unique amino acids?
answer
three
question
In the diagram below, the gray unit represents _____.
answer
RNA polymerase
question
In the diagram below, the green unit represents _____.
answer
the promoter
question
In the diagram below, the two blue strands represent _____.
answer
DNA
question
Which of these correctly illustrates the pairing of DNA and RNA nucleotides?
answer
GTTACG CAAUGC
question
The direction of synthesis of an RNA transcript is _____.
answer
5' —> 3'
question
The genetic code is often described as redundant. What feature of the genetic code does this reference?
answer
Most amino acids have more than one codon.
question
How does RNA polymerase know where to start transcribing a gene?
answer
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter of the gene.
question
Which of the following is a good reason for mRNA to be single-stranded, instead of double-stranded like DNA?
answer
because a complementary strand of RNA would prevent the binding of tRNA anticodons to the codon
question
What type of mutation is caused by adding one nucleotide into the middle of a sequence?
answer
insertion
question
The operon model of the regulation of gene expression in bacteria was proposed by _____.
answer
Jacob and Monod
question
Which of these is NOT a component of the lac operon?
answer
regulatory gene only
question
Regulatory proteins bind to _____.
answer
the operator
question
In the presence of a regulatory protein the lac operon is _____.
answer
not transcribed
question
In this animation the blue sphere represents _____.
answer
lactose
question
Click on the diagram to start the animation. In this animation the orange object represents _____.
answer
RNA polymerase
question
Which of these is a regulatory gene?
answer
D
question
The protein pepsin is produced in the cells lining the stomach, but not in cheek cells. Why is this?
answer
There are no transcription factors for pepsin in cheek cells.
question
What would you expect to see inside the cells of a woman with Turner's syndrome (XO)?
answer
no Barr bodies
question
Which of the following would have to be collected to provide a sample for a DNA profile from a home testing kit?
answer
saliva or blood
question
You wish to write a letter of concern to the federal agency in charge of regulating home DNA testing kits. Who should you contact?
answer
Food and Drug Administration
question
You buy a home DNA test kit and you send in a sample. What is being read to analyze your results?
answer
SNPs
question
You are a geneticist and discover a gene that increases the chance of an individual getting colon cancer. Can you patent this gene?
answer
No
question
Which of the following is a big concern regarding home DNA test kits?
answer
The lack of standards.
question
If there is a gene in humans that works the same as MRAP2 in mice, what will happen if it is switched off?
answer
The individual will gain weight.
question
Your friend was adopted. Her weight is most likely to be similar to who?
answer
her biological mother
question
Following the old concept of weight loss and caloric intake and assuming you do not begin an exercise program, how many Calories a day would you have to give up every day in order to lose one pound in a week?
answer
500
question
Which of the following is true regarding mice lacking MRAP2?
answer
Their appetites increased as they got older.
question
What do current studies indicate?
answer
Humans have similar genetic responses to weight gain as mice lacking MRAP2.
question
According to the findings in this study, which of the following is true?
answer
The environment plays a role in the cause of certain diseases.
question
Rheumatoid arthritis, celiac disease, and multiple sclerosis are all autoimmune diseases. Which of the following is true?
answer
Gene switches likely play a role in these diseases.
question
Rather than "junk" DNA, such material is now referred to as what?
answer
Dark matter
question
Your identical twin is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following is true?
answer
You may or may not get Crohn's disease.
question
According to this study, which of the following is true?
answer
In humans, less DNA is used for genes than gene switches.
question
The lytic cycle of bacteriophage infection ends with the _____.
answer
rupture of the bacterium
question
The pointer is indicating the _____.
answer
viral protein coat
question
As a result of the lytic cycle, _____.
answer
the host cell's DNA is destroyed
question
What did Wilkins and Franklin discover?
answer
DNA is a helix with repeating subunits.
question
How can we best summarize the role of Watson and Crick in discovering the structure of DNA?
answer
They created a key hypothesis for the structure of DNA.
question
In a DNA double helix an adenine of one strand always pairs with a(n) _____ of the complementary strand, and a guanine of one strand always pairs with a(n) _____ of the complementary strand.
answer
thymine ... cytosine
question
After DNA replication is completed, _____.
answer
each new DNA double helix consists of one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand
question
The first step in the replication of DNA is catalyzed by _____.
answer
helicase
question
The action of helicase creates _____.
answer
replication forks and replication bubbles
question
Why is the new DNA strand complementary to the 3' to 5' strands assembled in short segments?
answer
DNA polymerase can assemble DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction
question
The synthesis of a new strand begins with the synthesis of a(n) _____.
answer
RNA primer complementary to a preexisting DNA strand
question
An old DNA strand is used as a _____ for the assembly of a new DNA strand.
answer
template
question
Short segments of newly synthesized DNA are joined into a continuous strand by _____.
answer
ligase
question
After DNA replication is completed, _____.
answer
each new DNA double helix consists of one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand
question
The first step in the replication of DNA is catalyzed by _____.
answer
helicase
question
The action of helicase creates _____.
answer
replication forks and replication bubbles
question
Why is the new DNA strand complementary to the 3' to 5' strands assembled in short segments?
answer
DNA polymerase can assemble DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction
question
The synthesis of a new strand begins with the synthesis of a(n) _____.
answer
RNA primer complementary to a preexisting DNA strand
question
Which of these is responsible for catalyzing the formation of an RNA primer?
answer
D (the green square)
question
An old DNA strand is used as a _____ for the assembly of a new DNA strand.
answer
template
question
Which of the following build(s) new strands of DNA?
answer
DNA polymerases
question
Which statement about DNA replication is CORRECT?
answer
The leading strand is built continuously, and the lagging strand is built in pieces.
question
During DNA replication, which nucleotide will bind to an A nucleotide in the parental DNA?
answer
T
question
The molecule that seals the gaps between the pieces of DNA in the lagging strand is
answer
DNA ligase.
question
Which statement about DNA replication is FALSE?
answer
DNA ligase adds nucleotides to the lagging strand.
question
Which of the following is most responsible for DNA forming a double helix instead of a single helix?
answer
hydrogen bonding between bases
question
How is DNA replication most affected by the two strands of DNA running in antiparallel directions?
answer
Replication of one strand must be discontinuous.
question
You wish to prove that DNA replication is semi-conservative. You choose to work with bacteria because they only have a single chromosome. You have a very special device that can measure radiation in individual cells. Which radioactive element or compound should you add to the cells prior to division and what do you expect to see?
answer
Add radioactive phosphate and expect each cell to contain a radioactive chromosome.
question
How do mutations affect an organism?
answer
all of the above
question
DNA replication occurs at an unbelievably fast rate. Once replication is complete, we can expect to find a _____ number of mistakes.
answer
small
question
A female that is planning to become pregnant is concerned about her exposure to environmental mutagens which may have caused DNA mutations. In order for these mutations to become heritable, they must affect the:
answer
her egg cells
question
Which of the following would indicate a base pairing mutation in DNA?
answer
a G paired with a T
question
In replicating a DNA strand, polymerase makes a mistake and puts adenine across from guanine. How might a proofreading enzyme detect this mistake?
answer
The two nucleotides are too large to fit across from each other. The enzyme will notice the bulge.
question
A thymine base is replaced by a cytosine in a DNA molecule. What type of mutation is this?
answer
substitution
question
UV rays can strike two thymine bases sitting beside each other on the same strand, causing them to become linked tightly to one another. This pulls the thymines closer together, altering the spacing of the nucleotides. What kind of error during replication is this likely to cause?
answer
deletion
question
Assuming other things to be equal, which of the following individuals is most likely to suffer from heart disease?
answer
A person with high LDL levels.
question
Your uncle suffers from heart disease and controls it with a common form of medicine. What does he take?
answer
statin
question
What is currently believed to be the biggest hurdle to overcome with the new heart disease drugs being tested?
answer
They are expensive.
question
You are a scientist for the federal agency in charge of deciding if a new heart disease drug can be used. Who do you work for?
answer
Food and Drug Administration
question
Your family is known to have a mutation in PCSK9. Which of the following is true?
answer
Members of your family are more likely to have a heart attack or stroke.
question
You are a molecular biologist and wish to change the proteins that cells make. Which of the following should you do?
answer
Change the sequence of the nucleotides.
question
Which of the following is in the correct order from simplest to most complex?
answer
nucleotide, amino acid, protein
question
You work for Synthorx, creating synthetic DNA. You create a sequence on one strand of CTXAGGC. What is its complimentary strand?
answer
GAYTCCG
question
Your cousin is a xenobiologist working to insert synthetic DNA into a virus with the goal of creating a vaccine for H.I.V. If she follows similar methods to those already used, which of the following will she need to aid her in this process?
answer
algae gene
question
Which of the following has yet to be shown?
answer
Cells with synthetic nucleotides make new proteins.
question
Which of the following is most likely to be passed on to the next generation?
answer
a mutation in the DNA in cells in the ovaries
question
In the 1800s, it was commonly believed that the traits of both parents for any feature blended to create the offspring and that the blended trait was passed on. Which of the following observations was most important to Mendel's understanding of genes as unchanged units of information?
answer
Recessive traits can reappear in later generations.
question
Considering pea flowers, where purple is dominant to white, describe the genotype of a plant with the alleles Pp.
answer
heterozygous
question
Mendel worked _____.
answer
in a monastery
question
Which of the following represents an EXCEPTION to the law of independent assortment?
answer
linkage
question
Which of these facts, if he had known them, might have led Mendel to formulate different rules for inheritance?
answer
There are many genes on each chromosome.
question
What error is responsible for creating Jacob syndrome?
answer
nondisjunction of chromosomes
question
Considering all the genetic diseases covered in this chapter, what general conclusion can you draw about genetic diseases?
answer
Most genetic diseases are pleiotropic.
question
Which of the following tools is NEVER necessary when evaluating a gene with incomplete dominant inheritance?
answer
test cross
question
Doing which of the following increases your risk of developing heart disease?
answer
Smoking.
question
Your brother died of a heart attack at age 47. Assuming no other risk factors, what does this do to your chance of developing heart disease?
answer
Doubles it.
question
Which of the following is true?
answer
If a person has early heart disease, their children may or may not have it.
question
Your aunt is 63 and has a non-fatal heart attack. Which of the following is true?
answer
She is younger than average for having a first heart attack. (found this answer to be shocking)
question
You are a cardiovascular surgeon. Where do you insert stents?
answer
blocked arteries
question
Your 28 year old friend is pregnant. Which of the following screenings is she most likely to initially have to test for Down syndrome?
answer
blood test
question
How is the fetal DNA used in this new screening tool unique?
answer
It is not from a cell, but is floating freely in the mother's blood.
question
Which of the following is true?
answer
The chance of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality increases with the age of the mother.
question
Which of the following is true regarding this new fetal DNA test?
answer
A decreased number of false positive tests for both Down syndrome and Trisomy 18.
question
Which of the following best summarizes current research on this new fetal DNA test?
answer
It works well for finding errors in chromosome number.
question
What defines a short sleeper?
answer
They can function well on 6 hours of sleep or less.
question
While it is estimated that less than 5% of the population are short sleepers,
answer
an estimated 30% of the population sleep only 6 hours per night or less.
question
The risks of sleep deprivation include which of the following?
answer
all of the above
question
The discovery of a gene associated with short sleepers means that
answer
there is potential to manipulate sleep pathways with medication.
question
Since there is a genetic explanation for short sleepers, you would expect
answer
that this trait appears more frequently among family members.
question
Current best estimates suggest that life has been on Earth for how long?
answer
3.5 billion years
question
If life exists or originated on another planet, most scientists today believe that it is which of the following planets?
answer
Mars
question
Which of the following is true regarding current scientific thought?
answer
RNA originated before DNA.
question
You discover a new means of energy transfer by organisms living in hydrothermal vents in the ocean. Who is most likely to be interested in funding your research?
answer
Everett Shock
question
Which of the following scientists is closest to creating life?
answer
J. Craig Venter
question
dys- difficult trop- change ad- to poly- many neutr- neither gender de- from, out of non- not anti-against -phil- to love co- together
answer
question
hem- blood hetero- different trans- across semi- one half -ase -enzyme intra- within tri- three meta- change, after lact- milk
answer
question
How do cells fit long pieces of DNA into a compartment as small as the nucleus?
answer
The DNA is wrapped around histones.
question
What is the function of the telomere?
answer
Telomeres prevent the ends of chromosomes from being damaged.
question
True or false. Mitosis takes place during M phase of the cell cycle, which is longer than interphase.
answer
false
question
A certain species of animal has six pairs of chromosomes. How many DNA molecules are present in the nuclei of these animals during G2 phase?
answer
24
question
Which of the following checkpoints does not occur late in G1?
answer
A check that chromosome replication has been successfully completed
question
Compare the cells of a woman's leg muscle to the cells of a baby growing inside her womb. What is the most important difference between them?
answer
The chromosomes in the cells of the woman's leg muscle are genetically identical to the rest of her body. The baby's cells contain only half of the mother's chromosomes.
question
Nucleoli are present during _____.
answer
interphase
question
Cytokinesis often, but not always, accompanies _____.
answer
telophase
question
Chromosomes become visible during _____.
answer
prophase
question
Centromeres divide and sister chromosomes become full-fledged chromosomes during _____.
answer
anaphase
question
Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores during _____.
answer
prometaphase
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
anaphase
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
cytokinesis as it occurs in animal cells
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
prophase
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
metaphase
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
prometaphase
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
cytokinesis as it occurs in plant cells
question
Click on the art to see an animation. This animation illustrates the events of _____.
answer
telophase
question
During prophase a homologous pair of chromosomes consists of _____.
answer
two chromosomes and four chromatids
question
Stages of the cell cycle activity
answer
interphase->prophase->metaphase->anaphase-> telophase
question
Centrioles duplicate during the cell cycle. Given your knowledge of the cell cycle, when would you guess that the duplication of centrioles occurs?
answer
S phase
question
Which phase of mitosis comes last during cell division?
answer
telophase
question
Which of these is NOT a carcinogen?
answer
all of the above are carcinogens
question
_____ is a carcinogen that promotes colon cancer.
answer
fat
question
Meiosis concept map
answer
a. diploid organisms b. haploid gametes c. meiosis d. maternal chromosomes e. crossing over occurs f. sister chromatids separate
question
Meiosis starts with a single diploid cell and produces
answer
four haploid cells.
question
A cell preparing to undergo meiosis duplicates its chromosomes during
answer
interphase.
question
During prophase I of meiosis,
answer
homologous chromosomes stick together in pairs.
question
The correct order of events during meiosis is
answer
prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, cytokinesis, meiosis II.
question
During meiosis, segments of nonsister chromatids can trade places. This recombination of maternal and paternal genetic material is a key feature of meiosis. During what phase of meiosis does recombination occur?
answer
prophase I.
question
Which of the following is a correct description of meiosis?
answer
Meiosis is one round of DNA replication followed by two rounds of cell division.
question
Which of these phases is the most different between mitosis and meiosis?
answer
anaphase and anaphase I
question
Asexual and sexual life cycles What name is given to this process?
answer
asexual reproduction
question
Gametes are produced by _____.
answer
meiosis
question
Normal human gametes carry _____ chromosomes.
answer
23
question
Which of these cells is (are) haploid?
answer
C and D
question
A diploid organism whose somatic (nonsex) cells each contain 32 chromosomes produces gametes containing _____ chromosomes.
answer
16
question
In the laboratory fruit fly, n is 4. How many different chromosome sets can be produced by one fly, excluding crossing over?
answer
24 variations
question
Which of the following is necessary for cancer to begin in a person?
answer
a mutation in the person's DNA
question
Which of the following is true?
answer
A specific gene can be involved with the development of more than one type of cancer.
question
Which of the following is most likely to happen if a developing embryo lacks integrin?
answer
The embryo will be unable to stay attached to the uterine wall.
question
You are an oncologist trying to invent a drug that prevents tumors from creating their own blood supply. What are you looking to stop?
answer
angiogenesis
question
A person would be born with webbed hands and/or feet if which of the following failed to happen?
answer
apoptosis
question
Which of the following currently appears most beneficial in preventing cancer?
answer
Not smoking
question
Based on current findings, which of the following individuals is most likely to get cancer?
answer
An obese male who eats a lot of fruits and vegetables.
question
You are an oncologist and agree with the 1997 findings published by the World Cancer Research Fund and the American Institute for Cancer Research. What do you believe?
answer
Eating judicious amounts of fruits and vegetables will decrease a person's risk of developing cancer.
question
For many years, it was believed that heavy consumption of which of the following increased a person's chance of getting colon cancer?
answer
red meat
question
You are an epidemiologist studying the effects of years of vigorous exercise on health. You ask participants to recall how much they have exercised per week every week for the last three years. What type of study are you conducting?
answer
retrospective
question
Research indicates that the best estimate of your age is from ______.
answer
markers in your cells
question
The cells examined from the 2,400 people in this study were from ______.
answer
blood
question
Which of the following damages cells and causes cell aging?
answer
inflammation
question
The researchers used strands of DNA located at the ends of chromosomes (called telomeres) to classify the cells they studied. What assumption did they make about telomeres?
answer
Longer telomeres indicate younger cells.
question
The researchers found that telomeres were ______.
answer
longer in individuals who exercised regularly
question
The research showed that individuals who _______ had younger looking cells based on telomere measurements.
answer
exercised for an average of 30 minutes per day
question
Which of the following is true?
answer
Once it is established in a population, a new mutation may increase or decrease in frequency depending on the environment.
question
You are infected with an antibiotic-resistant strain of Klebsiella pneumoniae. Where did you most likely contract it?
answer
hospital
question
Which of the following is true?
answer
Current research indicates that medians are not similar to islands when comparing the diversity of animals or plants.
question
Natural selection ultimately depends on favorable what?
answer
mutations
question
You discover that a company illegaly dumped old vats of PCBs into a nearby river. What do you expect to see?
answer
Fish with deformities.
question
The overall process of nuclear division is known as....
answer
Mitosis
question
___ is the first phase of mitosis
answer
Prophase
question
___ is the second phase of mitosis
answer
metaphase
question
__ is the final stage of mitosis
answer
Telophase
question
___is the stage of the cell cycle between cell division
answer
Interphase
question
___ is the stage of the cell cycle when the cytoplasm and organelles divide into two daughter cells
answer
Cytokinesis
question
A(n) ___ consist of a very long DNA molecule associated with many proteins
answer
Chromosomes
question
In the process known as ____, a bacterium divides in half
answer
Binary fission
Adolescents And Young Adults
Building Blocks Of Dna
Human Anatomy And Physiology 1
Nursing
Oncology
Human Disease chapter 3 and 4 PTT 140 – Flashcards 59 terms

Daniel Jimmerson
59 terms
Preview
Human Disease chapter 3 and 4 PTT 140 – Flashcards
question
Describe the grades of cancers.
answer
Grades-microscope examination of the tumor to determine the degree of differentiation. More differentiated, the more it looks like tissue of origin. Good prognosis. Undifferentiating or anaplastic not resembling the tissue of origin, poor prognosis and highly malignant .
question
Describe the stages of cancers
answer
determines the extent of spread of the neoplasm by clinical examination, xrays, and biopsy. I= no lymph node spread; good prognosis , II- small % of nodes nearby: fair survival; mod survival, IV= aggressive invasive, metastases; poor survival rate.
question
Stages
answer
I = well differentiated resemble normal, II moderately differentiated, III poorly differentiated, IV= undifferentiated difficult to recognize tissue of origin
question
Grades
answer
I= no lymph node spread; good prognosis , II- small % of nodes nearby: fair survival; III distant nodes involved; mod survival, IV= aggressive invasive, metastases; poor survival rate.
question
TMN
answer
Another staging system. T= Tumor size and extent of primary, N= Nodes- number of lymph nodes involved, M= Metatasis to other sites.
question
Describe the signs and symptoms of cancer.
answer
Pain, Obstruction, Hemorrhage, Anemia, Pathologic Fx, Infection, cachexia.
question
Pain
answer
Late symptom. Cancer cell growing to destruction normal tissue and placing pressure on nerve endings, causing inflammation leading to pain.
question
Obstruction
answer
- can occur from a growing tumnor that compresses or pushes into the organ ex. Bronchus of the lung and intestine.
question
Anemia
answer
might be the result or hemorrhage or RBC loss as a result of cancer treatment
question
Pathologic Fracture
answer
- weakness in bone tumor may be a sign primary or secondary cancer.
question
Infection
answer
Tumor ulceration allow entry of microorganisms, chemotherapy and radition causes a decrease production of WBC.
question
Cachexia
answer
- condition of general illness from malnutrition seen terminally ill pt. evidence from rapidly growing tumor and treatment modalities with poor nutritional intake. - Ca cell take all of the nutrition from the good like a bully, that is why person atrophy.
question
What are some of the causes of cancer and how are they treated
answer
1. Chemical Carcinogens 2. Hormones, 3. Radiation, 4.Viruses, 5.Genetic predisposition, 6.smoking and tobacco,7. Diet, 8.Alcohol.
question
Chemical Carcinogens
answer
abound in our environment, frequency of exposure and potency (inhaled, ingested). Sometime, they do not cause a problem by themselves, but enhance cancer development.
question
Hormones

answer
can stimulate or treat cancers
question
Radiation
answer
UV, Xray exposure: basal and squamous cell, Melanomas, leukemia.
question
Viruses

answer
Hep B - liver Cancer, Herpes Simplex: and Cervical Cancer
question
Genetic Predisposition
answer
run in the family, colon and breast cancer.
question
Smoking and Tobacco

answer
smokers are 10 to 20 x likely to get lung cancer . bladder, pancreas, throat and mouth.
question
Diet and alcohol
answer
increase risk for many cancers alc- mouth,throat, and esophagus. diet- colon
question
Sexual bahavior
answer
increase the risk if cervical cancer.
question
cancer is treated with...
answer
Surgery, Chemotherapy, Radiation, and Hormones
question
surgery

answer
lung, stomach, colon, skin, breast, uterus, ovaries
question
Chemotherapy
answer
alone or in combination with surgery and radiation therapy
question
Radiation
answer
esp for tumors not surgically accessible, or as adjunct post-op X 6 wks
question
Hormones
answer
usually palliative for metastatic tumors
question
How can you tell from the name if a cancer is benign or malignant?
answer
Suffix indicates benign or malignant -oma = benign -carcinoma = malignant epithelial & glandular tissue: skin, breast, liver -sarcoma = malignant connective tissue: bone, muscle, fat, cartilage; faster spread & growth via circulation
question
Give examples of the exceptions of the oma suffix rule.
answer
Exceptions = lymphoma- lymph or bloodforming organs,- glioma- starts in brain or spine, melanoma- skin, glioblastoma- Brain, leukemia-WBC
question
Brain Death Irreversible

answer
No response to stimuli No reflexes No respirations or effort to breathe No brain activity evident on EEG Flat line EEG Irreversible for death
question
Compare and contrast benign vs malignant tumors.
answer
Benign-"tumor" Malignant-"Ca"
question
Benign-"tumor"
answer
Slow growth, local Symmetrical Encapsulated -won't spread Similar to original Similar to normal cells Non-recurrent Good prognosis -if not in brain, SC, gland, passageway(obstruct
question
Malignant-"Ca"
answer
Fast, metastasizes Invasive, crab-like Cells break away Different from original Atypical, immature Frequent recurrence Poor prognosis
question
What are some of the carcinogens that promote DNA cell changes that lead to cancers?
answer
cancer causing agent. virus, chemicals and radiation.
question
Cancer Diagnosis
answer
*C*hange in *bowel or bladder* habits *A* *sore* that does not *heal* *U*nusual *bleeding or discharge* *T*hickening or *lump in breast* or elsewhere *I*ndigestion or *difficulty swallowing* *O*bvious change in a *wart or mole* *N*agging *cough or hoarseness*
question
Development of Malignant Cancers
answer
1.Normal cell growth & differentiation stops 2.Mutation - genetic alteration of DNA 3.Precipitated by virus, chemicals, radiation, other carcinogens 4.Continued exposure to carcinogens causes cell abnormality & dysfunction 5.Immune system may prevent or reverse 6.Rapid growth to establish a site & thrive 7.Pre-cancerous if not yet firmly established 8.Deprive normal cells of nutrients
question
Describe the first steps in the inflammation process in cell and tissue healing.
answer
1.Body's response to cell or tissue injury 2.Must precede cell or tissue repair 3.Triggered by any trauma; physical injury, micro-organism invasion, ischemia, burn...
question
Describe the second steps in the inflammation process in cell and tissue healing.
answer
1. Mast cells release histamine when tissue is injured or irritated. 2.RUBOR redness, COLOR heat results, TUMOR-edema due to dilation DOLOR - pain: pressure on nerve endings. 3.Guarding creates loss of function.
question
Describe the third steps in the inflammation process in cell and tissue healing.
answer
1.Phagocytosis by neutrophils creates pus formation 2.Macrophages enter & clean up dead cells 3.If >7-10 days lymphocytes respond & form antibodies to destroy invader Becomes chronic if >2 weeks 4.Collagen & calcium deposits wall off invader = granuloma, may be permanent
question
antigen
answer
all cell have a protein or saccharide marker on the their surface that identify them.
question
antibodies

answer
made by the lymphocytes to indentify and link to forgiein antigen and then remember the invader if returns
question
antibodies also
answer
also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large Y-shape protein produced by plasma cells that is used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects such as bacteria and viruses.
question
Compare primary intention healing of wounds.
answer
Clean surgical incision + approxim. Small am't exudate. Little granulation tissue. Smallest scar. Shrinks in size in months or years.
question
Compare secondary intention healing of wounds.
answer
Large or dirty wound. Cannot be approx. must fill in. Large am't exudate. A lot of granulation tissue. Large scar. May need graft if epithelium cannot bridge the gap.
question
What factors help cells and tissues to heal? Positive
answer
Good blood supply to provide O2 and nutrients. Clean wound area - debridement. Good nutrition with protein, Vit A & C. Immobilization. No complications (infection).
question
What factors help cells and tissues to heal? Negative-detrimental
answer
Impaired circulation. Dead tissue & debris present. Large wound. Poor nutrition, dehydration. Infection, esp virulent organism. Excessive mobility - tears, bleeding. Radiation exposure - cell mitosis impaired. Steroid therapy.
question
mitosis

answer
Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle process by which chromosomes in a cell nucleus are separated into two identical sets of chromosomes, each in its own nucleus.
question
Describe potential complications that can occur during healing of wounds.
answer
Wound dehiscence, Adhesions, Infection, Keloid, and Soft tissue contractures.
question
Wound dehiscence

answer
due to poor scar
question
Adhesions
answer
fibrous bands scar cling to nearby surface of organs
question
Infection
answer
esp resistant micro-organisms
question
Keloid

answer
not cosmetic, but harmless
question
soft tissue contractures
answer
due to wound and scar contraction over time
question
the characteristics of bacteria

answer
Normal flora on skin, orifices, intestines. ex: Staph, Strep, E.Coli, Pseudomonas, Salmonella. Doesn't require living tissue to survive. *Short incubation time (hours)*. Multiply very rapidly. Form characteristic pus. *Need antibiotic treatment*
question
the characteristics of Viruses

answer
Smallest micro-organisms. Invade living host cell nucleus to survive. Take over the cell and reproduce by replicating its DNA. Tendency to MUTATE . Incubation of *days, weeks, months, years*. Often has LATENT effect. *Antibiotocs do not kill it -immunizations create antibodies*. Produce a serous exudate. *Flu, colds, herpes, mononucleosis, AIDS, measles, small pox, mumps*.
question
What are the signs/symptoms of infection?
answer
- fever, tachycardia, fatigue, malaise Leukocytosis - increase in WBC #. Septicemia may develop if not controlled. Culture from involved tissue will identify organism.
question
10. How can you prevent infections?
answer
Universal precautions. Minimize direct/indirect exposure. Use disinfectants for objects & antiseptics for skin. Good nutrition.
question
What is the medical treatment for bacterial infections?
answer
antibiotics Broad-spectrum vs narrow-spectrum. Follow directions for taking with food, fluids, or fasting. Take in evenly-spaced intervals. Complete full course of meds. Avoid unnecessary use. May cause drug resistance.
question
What important steps must be followed while taking this medication? Why?
answer
Complete full course of meds. Avoid unnecessary use because it May cause drug resistance.
question
Give examples of infections that can be prevented by immunizations.

answer
-immunizations create antibodies Flu, colds, mononucleosis, measles, small pox, mumps
Building Blocks Of Dna
Nobel Prize In Chemistry
Molecular Biology/Genetics MIC 445 – Flashcards 119 terms

Cindy Krause
119 terms
Preview
Molecular Biology/Genetics MIC 445 – Flashcards
question
Kary Mullis |
answer
Developed the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) |
question
Central Dogma |
answer
DNA->RNA->Protein |
question
Replication |
answer
DNA Synthesis |
question
Arthur Kornberg |
answer
Discovered the function of DNA Polymerase |
question
5'-3' |
answer
Direction of DNA synthesis, RNA Polymerase |
question
Semiconservative Repication |
answer
Method of DNA Strand Templating, each helix contains a parental strand and a daughter strand |
question
Semidiscontinous Strand Growth |
answer
One strand is replicated continuously in the direction of the movement of the replicating fork. |
question
Okasaki Fragments |
answer
Located in the lagging strand that is replicated discontinously |
question
RNA Primers (5'-3') |
answer
Are needed for initiation of DNA synthesis |
question
Primase |
answer
Binds directly to DNA without help from nucleotides, synthesizes primer to initiate DNA synthesis |
question
Bi-directional Replication |
answer
Occurs in Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells (exceptions are bacterial plasmids and linear DNA viruses) |
question
Bi-Directional Forks |
answer
Are created by chromosomal replication |
question
100 Base Pairs/Second |
answer
The rate of fork movement in human cells. |
question
10,000 to 100,000 |
answer
Possible locations of fork formation in the human genone |
question
Specific Chromosomal Sites |
answer
Where DNA replication begins |
question
Helicase (DnaB) |
answer
Melts the two strands of the chromosome to generate unpaired template strands |
question
DNA Pol III |
answer
Synthesizes the leading strand |
question
Multiple primers, 2 nucleases, DNA pol, and Ligase |
answer
Are required to develop the lagging strand of the replication fork |
question
DNA replicases |
answer
DNA pols that make new double stranded DNA's (dsDNA) |
question
Replicase |
answer
de novo synthesis of new strands of DNA; catalyzes chain elongation at the growing fork |
question
Telomeres |
answer
Consist of repetitive oligometric sequences, are needed because the lagging strand is copied in discontinuously which would create a problem for linear DNA. |
question
rNTP |
answer
Ribonucleotides with three phosphate groups, is the building block of RNA synthesis and synthesis of primers in DNA replication |
question
Accuracy of Transcription |
answer
Is not as accurate as replication |
question
Only one strand is copied |
answer
In Transcription |
question
RNA pol does not require a________to initiate |
answer
primer |
question
rRNA |
answer
Form the core of ribosomes |
question
mRNA |
answer
Used in translation to make protein |
question
tRNA |
answer
Adaptors that link amino acids to mRNA during translation |
question
snRNA |
answer
RNA splicing of pre-mRNA to mRNA, found in nucleus of eukaryotic cells |
question
srRNA |
answer
Non-coding DNA |
question
Stable ribosomal RNA has |
answer
Three characteristic molecular weights |
question
Rate of synthesis in transcription |
answer
50 nucleotides/sec/molecule |
question
Complementary copy of the template strand |
answer
mRNA in Transcription |
question
Leader Sequence |
answer
5',25-200 nucleotides with a ribosome binding sequence |
question
AUG |
answer
Translation Start Codon |
question
UAG, UAA, or UGA |
answer
Translation stop codon |
question
Introns in eukaryotes |
answer
Intervening sequences that are removed prior to translation |
question
3 RNA Polymerases |
answer
in Eukaryotes |
question
Single RNA polymerase |
answer
In Prokaryotes |
question
5'-Ribonucleoside triposphates |
answer
Are used to synthesize mRNA |
question
Initiation |
answer
When RNA pol docks at a promoter, first step of transcription |
question
Elongation |
answer
RNA chain elongates, second step of transcription |
question
Termination |
answer
Pol reaches a terminator and releases the completed transcript, third and final step of transcription |
question
The promoter is always located |
answer
Upstream of the gene |
question
Promoter |
answer
DNA sequence that the RNA pol binds to initially. |
question
Transcription start site is also called the |
answer
Initiation site |
question
Predominant mechanism that the cell uses to control what proteins will be made at a given time |
answer
Initiation of transcription |
question
Promoter strength depends on |
answer
Similarity to consensus sequence |
question
Mechanism of control of transcription initiation rates |
answer
Divergent sequences |
question
The most common bacterial promoters are located at |
answer
-35 and -10 |
question
Closed Promoter Complex |
answer
Known as the promoter sequence in duplex DNA, RNA Pol Core binds to this first in initiation. |
question
Elongation |
answer
Polymerase advances 3'-5' down template strand, melting duplex DNA and adding rNTP's to growing DNA |
question
Operons |
answer
Mechanism used by bacteria to control gene expression, share a single promoter |
question
lacZ, lacY, lacA |
answer
Are genes located in the lac operon, are transcribed together |
question
Core Promoter |
answer
Where polymerase binds |
question
RNA Pol II |
answer
Transcribes genes into mRNA's in nucleus |
question
RNA Pol III |
answer
Transcribes tRNA's, 5S rRNA's and snRNA's, genes transcribed by this can carry promoter sequences deep within the coding region |
question
RNA Pol I |
answer
Located in the nucleus, transcribes all rRNA genes except for 5SrRNA |
question
Translation |
answer
Most highly conserved process, most energy cost |
question
Features of the genetic code relevant to translation |
answer
Codons are sets of 3 bases in the mRNA, codons instruct ribosomes to incorporate specific amino acids into the polypeptide chain, code is non-overlapping and gapless, 61 codons direct the incorporation of 20 a.a. |
question
Proteins are synthesized from |
answer
amino (N) terminus to carboxyl (C) terminus |
question
Peptide bonds are synthesized at |
answer
15 amino acids/second, same rate of transcription |
question
Coupled transcription/translation |
answer
Occurs in Prokaryotes |
question
Polysomes are formed when |
answer
Multiple ribosomes translate a mRNA at the same time |
question
Non standard base pairing can occur between |
answer
Anti-codon and Codon, wobbles occur at the 3rd codon position or 1st anti-codon position |
question
Anticodon-Codon base pairing is |
answer
Imprecise due to wobble and isoaccepting tRNA's |
question
fMet-tRNA |
answer
Initiates prokaryotic protein synthesis |
question
tRNAf and tRNAm |
answer
Recognize the AUG codon |
question
aminoacyl-tRNA synthase |
answer
Charge tRNAf and tRNAm with (Met) |
question
The first amino acid at the amino terminus of the polypeptide chain |
answer
fMet-tRNAf |
question
Met-tRNAm |
answer
Use at internal positions of the polypeptide chain, used in elongation |
question
Met-tRNAi |
answer
Used to start protein synthesis |
question
Ribosomal subunits that disassemble after each round of translation |
answer
(30S/40S), (50S, 60S) |
question
Initiation Complex |
answer
Formed when a free 30S/40S subunit combines with an mRNA translation site + fMet-tRNAf or Met-tRNAi |
question
70S/80S ribosome |
answer
Consists of an AUG codon and an attached 70S/80S ribosome |
question
Release factors |
answer
Are required to terminate protein synthesis, release the polypeptide chain from the last tRNA, and release the ribosome from the mRNA |
question
Elongation factor (EF-G/EF-2) |
answer
Translocates the growing chain with it's mRNA to P site, final step of Elongation |
question
Elongation factor (EF-G/EF-2) |
answer
Translocates the growing chain with it's mRNA to P site, final step of Elongation |
question
Restriction-modification system in bacteria consists of |
answer
Restriction endonucleases and methylases. |
question
Palindromic sequences |
answer
Sequences that are the same but in alternating directions, sites of methylation. |
question
If the DNA is properly methylated |
answer
Specific nucleases cannot cleave the recognition sequence. |
question
EcoRi |
answer
"Six cutter", leave 5' overhang. |
question
Alu I |
answer
"Four cutter", leaves blunt ends to the DNA |
question
Bgl |
answer
"Six cutter with interrupted palindrome". Leaves 5' overhang |
question
Aat II |
answer
"Six cutter" with 3' overhang. Same recognition sequence as Bsa HI, but different cleavage position |
question
The utility of restriction endonucleases lies in their |
answer
Sequence specificity and the relatively predictable frequency with which the recognition sites occur within any DNA sample |
question
If there is a 25% probability for a specific base at any given site, the frequency with which different restriction endonuclease sites will occur will be |
answer
0.25^N, N being the length of the recognition site |
question
Exonuclease III |
answer
Catalyzes the stepwise removal of nucleotides from the 3' terminal of duplex DNA |
question
Mung Bean Nuclease |
answer
Single strand specific DNA and RNA nuclease which will degrade single strand extensions from the ends of DNA and RNA and leave blunt ends |
question
Ligase |
answer
Catalyze the formation of a phosphodiester bond between juxtaposed 5' phosphate and 3' hydroxyl termini of nucleotides. Act as paste for restriction nucleases. |
question
T4 Polynucleotide Kinase |
answer
Catalyzes the transfer and exchange of a phosphate group between the gamma position of rATP to the 5'OH terminus of ds/ss DNA/RNA. Also removes 3'P groups. |
question
Calf Intestinal Phosphatase |
answer
Catalyzes the removal of 5' phosphate groups from RNA and DNA. Treated DNA cannot self-ligate |
question
Endogenous (Natural) Plasmids |
answer
Self-replicating extrachromosomal DNA, contain mechanisms to maintain a stable copy number in their bacterial hosts and partition molecules accurately to daughter cells. |
question
If the molar ration of insert DNA to plasmid vector is too high or two low, then |
answer
Plasmids carrying tandem inserts of the DNA fragment or empty plasmids will be generated |
question
All cloning vectors contain |
answer
Origin of replication/replicon, Antibiotic resistance/selectable marker, multiple cloning site |
question
Plasmid replicon |
answer
Smallest piece of DNA that is able to replicate autonomously and maintain it's copy number |
question
Critical Factors in Electroporation |
answer
Conductivity (NaCl present), Field Intensity, Pulse Length, Temperature (cold) |
question
Transient Pores |
answer
Created by chemical and physical methods, allows DNA to pass through the cell |
question
Methods of Transformation |
answer
Electroporation, or Heatshock/Divalent Cation |
question
Competency |
answer
Appropriate physiological state that allows for chemical transformation |
question
Role of Ca++ in treatment of bacteria on ice |
answer
Crystallizes fluid membranes, stabilizes distribution of charged molecules in membrane |
question
Role of Cl2 in treatment of bacteria on ice |
answer
Causes the cells to swell with water, necessary for DNA uptake |
question
Role of heatshock in CaCl2 protocol |
answer
Increases permeability of cell membrane |
question
LacZ Gene |
answer
Encodes for beta-galactosidase, serves as an inductible reporter gene |
question
beta-galactosidase converts X-Gal into |
answer
Galactose and blue indigo |
question
1 OD Unit = |
answer
0.8 x 10^9 cells/ml |
question
Stationary phase is at a density of |
answer
2-3 x 10^9 cells/ml |
question
Phenol |
answer
Protein denaturant, facilitates protein removal from nucleic acids |
question
Chloroform |
answer
Protein denaturant, stabilizes interphase, increases density of mixture, removes lipids |
question
Isoamyl alcohol (IAA) |
answer
Prevents foaming of phenol/chloroform mixes during vortexing, enhances phase separation |
question
DNA Purification at pH<7 |
answer
DNA denatures into organic phase, RNA in aqueous phase |
question
DNA purification pH>7 |
answer
DNA and RNA partition in aqueous phase |
question
The purpose of adding salts to the precipitation |
answer
To neutralize the negative charge of DNA |
question
The purpose of adding ethanol to DNA precipitation |
answer
To remove water, increases electrostatic force between ions, facilitates formation of ion pairs that results in efficient precipitation of DNA |
question
Isoaccepting tRNAs |
answer
More than 1 tRNA molecule can be charged with the same amino acid |
question
Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetases |
answer
Activate amino acids and tRNA's by covalently linking them (charging tRNA), has effective proofreading activity |
question
What feature of Replication makes telomeres necessary? |
answer
Discontinous synthesis of the lagging strand |
question
Telomerase |
answer
Is a reverse transcriptase that serves to extend the 3' end of the lagging strand at a telomere during eukaryotic replication |
question
Features common to cloning vectors |
answer
Origin of replication, selectable marker, multiple cloning site |