96) Which statement below is true about Web 4.0? A) it failed to offer a multichannel communication system that would allow businesses and customers to speak to each other B) it included interactive company and brand websites, social media, blogs, and other communication formats C) it created online communities that connected buyers and sellers in new ways D) it allowed customers to visit bricks and mortar stores over the Internet in real time

B) it included interactive company and brand websites, social media, blogs, and other communication formats More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/imc-test-3/

The auditor’s objectives for the sales and cash collections activities when the client is primarily an e-commerce business as compared to a “bricks and mortar” business are: A) unchanged. B) expanded. C) mitigated. D) decreased.

a More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/actg-135-ch-14/

a key advantage that internet retailers like Amazon have over “bricks and mortar” retailers is called

the “long tail” More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/internet-16/

Bricks And Mortar test questions and answers | Get Access To Bricks And Mortar Flashcards and exam tests

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Applied Sociology Bricks And Mortar Brute Force Attack Discretionary Access Control Gramm Leach Bliley Act Personal Digital Assistants

NT2580 – Flashcard 60 terms

Lesly Lloyd

60 terms

Preview

NT2580 – Flashcard

question

Gram-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

answer

Requires all types of financial institution to protect customer's private financial information.

question

Health insurance portability and accountability

answer

Requires health care organizations to secure patient information, and organizations must adhere to the minimum necessary rule.

question

Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX)

answer

requires publicly traded companies to submit accurate and reliable financial reporting.

question

Children's internet protection act (CIPA)

answer

requires public schools and public libraries to use the internet safety policy to prevent children's access to inappropriate matter on the internet.

question

Payment card industry data security standard

answer

standard that handles transactions involving payment cards, and requires to build and maintain security,implement strong access controls, and test + monitor networks.

question

Family educational rights and privacy act (FERPA)

answer

Protect the private information of students and their records.

question

confidentiality

answer

means guarding information from everyone except those with rights.Protecting private data is the process of ensuring data confidentiality.

question

Data classification standards

answer

To provide a consistent and detailed definition for how an organization should handle different types of data,software, and hardware.

question

U.S federal data classification

answer

Top secret, secret, and confidential.

question

Security gap

answer

The difference between the security controls you have in place and all the controls you need to address all the vulnerabilities is called a security gap.

question

Gap analysis

answer

identify the applicable elements of the security policy,assembling policy,standard,procedure, and guideline documents.

question

Black-hat attacker

answer

Tries to break IT security for the challenge and to prove technical prowess.

question

White-hat hacker

answer

is an information security or network professional who uses various penetration tools to uncover vulnerabilities so that can be fixed.

question

Gray-hat attacker

answer

Is a hacker with average abilities who may one day become a black-hat or white-hat attacker.

question

Access control

answer

Are methods used to restrict and allow access to certain computers,etc...

question

The four parts of access controls

answer

Authorization,identification,authentication, and accountability.

question

Authorization

answer

who is approved for access and what,exactly can they use.

question

Identification

answer

Who is the user,workstation, and services identified.

question

Authentication

answer

How to verify identities,something you know,have, and something unique.

question

Accountability

answer

Process of associating actions with users for latter reporting and research.

question

Physical access control

answer

Access to buildings,parking lots, and protected areas.

question

Logical access controls

answer

Access to a computer system or a network. Username,password,token,smart card, etc...

question

Discretionary Access controls (DAC) (Unix/Linux)

answer

the owner of the resource decides who gets in, and changes permission as needed. The owner can give that owner can give that job to others.

question

Mandatory Access controls (MAC) (SELinux)

answer

Permissions to enter a system is kept by the owner. It cannot be given to someone else.(makes MAC tronger than DAC)

question

Non-discretionary access control

answer

closely monitored by the security administrator , not the system admin.

question

Ruled-based access control

answer

A list of rules, maintained by the data owner, determines which users have access to objects.

question

Bell-La Padula model (access control model)

answer

Focuses on the confidentiality of the data and the control of access to classified information.

question

Bilba integrity model

answer

fixes a weakness in the Bell-la padula model, which addresses only the confidentiality of the data.

question

Clark & Wilson integrity model

answer

Focuses on what happens when users allowed into a system try to do things they are not allowed to do.

question

Brewer & Nash integrity model

answer

Based on mathematical theory published in 1989 to ensure competition. It is used to apply dynamically changing access permissions.

question

Security program addresses these directives

answer

Standards, procedures,baselines, and guidelines.

question

Limiting access

answer

the idea that users should be granted only the levels of permissions they need in order to perform their duties.

question

configuration control

answer

Is the management of baseline settings for a system device.

question

Change control

answer

is the management of changes to configuration. it ensures that any changes to a production system are tested,documented, and approved.

question

SLC (system life cycle) and SDLC (system development life cycle

answer

describe the entire change and maintenance process for applications and system hardware.

question

tools and techniques for security monitoring

answer

baselines,alarms,closed circuitTV,andsystems that spot irregular behavior.

question

Black-box testing

answer

Uses test methods that aren't based directly on knowledge of a programs design.

question

White-box testing

answer

is based on the knowledge of the applications design and source code.

question

gray-box testing

answer

lies somewhere between black and white box testing.

question

Risk mitigation

answer

uses various controls to mitigate or reduce risk. (anti-virus software)

question

Risk assignment

answer

allows the organization to transfer risk to another entity. (insurance)

question

Risk acceptance

answer

the organization has decided to accept the risk. ( the cost of reducing it is higher than the loss)

question

Asset value (AV)

answer

Value of the asset

question

Exposure factor (EF)

answer

percentage of asset value that will be lost

question

annualized rate of occurance (ARO)

answer

How many times the is is expected to occur

question

annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

answer

This is calculated by ,multiplying SLE by the ARO.

question

Business continuity plan BCP

answer

Helps keep critical business processes running in a disaster.

question

Disaster recovery plan

answer

helps recover the infrastructure necessary for normal business operations.

question

Risk avoidance

answer

deciding not to take the risk

question

Business impact analysis (BIA)

answer

determines the extent of the impact that a particular incident would have on business operations over time.

question

Cryptography

answer

encoding data so that it can only be decoded by specific individuals.

question

Cipher algorithm

answer

Shifts each letter in the english alphabet

question

Symmetric key cipher

answer

the key is send out of band letters

question

Asymmetric key cipher

answer

use private and public keys.

question

border firewall

answer

they separate the protected network from the internet

question

screened subnets or DMZ firewall

answer

the dmz is a semiprivate network used to hosts services that the public can access.

question

worms

answer

they propagate through the network service

question

Trojan horses

answer

know as the backdoor

question

logic bombs

answer

executes a malicious function of some kind when it detects certwin conditions.

question

choke points

answer

firewalls,routers,IDSs,IPSs

STUDY

Anatomy Anatomy And Physiology Bricks And Mortar Human Anatomy And Physiology 1

The Integumentary System – Flashcards 61 terms

Owen Clarke

61 terms

Preview

The Integumentary System – Flashcards

question

The skin, sweat and oil glands, hairs, and nails all work together to form this.

answer

Integumentary System

question

The subcutaneous tissue just deep to the skin.

answer

Hypodermis

question

Another name for "hypodermis" because it is superficial to the tough connective tissue wrapping of the skeletal muscles, consists mostly of adipose tissue.

answer

Superficial Facscia

question

Is a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium consisting of four distinct cell types and four or five distinct layers.

answer

Epidermis

question

Role is to produce keratin.

answer

Keratinocytes

question

The fibrous protein that helps give the epidermis its protective properties.

answer

Keratin

question

The spider-shaped epithelial cells that synthesize the pigment melanin, are found in the deepest layer of the epidermis.

answer

Melanocytes

question

Arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis.

answer

Epidermal Dendritic Cells

question

Another name for epidermal dendritic cells; named after a German anatomist; they ingest foreign substances and are key activators of our immune system.

answer

Langerhancs Cells

question

Are present at the epidermal junction.

answer

Tactile (Merkel) Cells

question

The deepest epidermal layer, is attached to the underlying dermis.

answer

Stratum Basale

question

Is several cell layers thick; contain a weblike system of intermediate filaments, mainly tension-resisting bundles of pre-keratin filaments, which span their cytosol to attach to desmosomes.

answer

Stratum Spinosum

question

Consists of three to five cell layers in which keratinocyte appearance changes drastically, and the process of keratinization

answer

Stratum Granulosum

question

In which the cells fill with the protein keratin.

answer

Keratinization

question

Appears as a thin translucent band just above the stratum granulosum.

answer

Stratum Lucidum

question

Is a broad zone 20 to 30 cell layers thick that accounts for up to three-quarters of the epidermal thickness.

answer

Stratum Corneum

question

Name the layers the nail pierced from the superficial skin surface to the junction with the dermis.

answer

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale.

question

Why are the desmosomes connecting the keratinocytes so important?

answer

The skin is subjected to a lot of abrasion and physical trauma. The desmosomes, which are connecting junctions, help to hold the cells together during such stress.

question

Given that epithelia are avascular, what layer would be expected to have the best-nourished cells?

answer

The stratum basale, which abuts the dermis where the blood suply is, has the best nourished cells.

question

The second major skin region, is strong, flexible connective tissue.

answer

Dermis

question

Is areolar connective tissue in which fine interlacing collagen and elastic fibers form a loosely woven mat that is heavily invested with small blood

answer

Papillary Layer

question

Peglike projections that indent the overlying epidermis.

answer

Dermal Papillae

question

What layer of the dermis is responsible for producing fingerprint patterns?

answer

The papillary layer of the dermis gives rise to finerprint patterns.

question

What cell componsent of the hypodermis makes it a good shock absorber?

answer

Fatty tissue in the hypodermis gives it insulating and shock-absorbing properties.

question

You have just gotten a paper cut. It is very painful, but doesn't bleed. Has the cut penetrated into the dermis or just the epidermis?

answer

Because there is no bleeding, the cut has penetrated into the avascular epidermis only.

question

Oxygenated pigment in the red blood cells circulating through the dermal capillaries.

answer

Hemoglobin

question

Melanin and carotene are two pigments that contribute to skin color. What is the third and where is it found?

answer

The third pigment contributing to skin color is hemoglobin, the pigment found in red blood cells found in blood vessels of the dermis.

question

What is cyanosis and what does it indicate?

answer

Cyanosis is a bluish cast of the skin that indicates that hemoglobin in the red blood cells in the dermal capillaries is poorly oxygenated.

question

What alteration in skin color may indicate a liver disorder?

answer

Jaundice or a yellow cast to the skin due to the deposit of yellow bile pigments in body tissues may indicate a liver disorder.

question

Include the nails, sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, and hair follicles and hair.

answer

Skin Appendages

question

Are distributed over the entire skin surface except the nipples and parts of the external genitalia.

answer

Sweat Glands

question

Are far more numerous and are particularly abundant on the palms, soles of the feet, and forehead.

answer

Eccrine Sweat Glands

question

Found in the axillary and anogenital areas.

answer

Apocrine Sweat gland

question

Are modified apocrine glands found in the lining of the external ear canal.

answer

Ceruminous Gland

question

Mammary Glands

answer

Secrete milk.

question

Are simple branched alveolar glands that are found all over the body except in the thick skin of the palms and soles.

answer

Sebaceous Glands

question

Oily substances secreted by sebaceous glands.

answer

Sebum

question

Which cutaneous glands are associated with hair follicles?

answer

Sebaceous (oil) glands and apocrine glands are associated with the hair follicles.

question

When Anthony returned home from a run in 85 degree weather, his face was dripping with sweat. Why?

answer

His sympathetic nervous system activated his eccrine sweat glands and caused heat-induced sweating in order to cool the body.

question

What is the difference between heat-induced sweating and a "cold sweat," and which variety of sweat glands is involved?

answer

Heat-induced sweating occurs all over the body when we are over-heated. A cold sweat is emotionally induced sweating that begins on the palms, soles, and armpits and then spreads to other body areas. Both types of sweating are produced by the eccrine sweat glands, but activity of apocrine sweat glands is also likely during a cold sweat.

question

Sebaceous glands are not found in thick skin. Why is their absence in those body regions desirable?

answer

The palms of the hands and soles of the feet are thick skin areas. It would be dangerous to have oily soles, and oily palms would decrease the ability of the hands to hang onto things.

question

A knot of sensory nerve endings which wraps around each hair bulb.

answer

Hair Follicle Receptor or Root Hair Plexus

question

Connective Tissue Root Sheath

answer

The wall of a hair follicle is composed of an outer layer derived from the dermis.

question

Epithelial Root Sheath

answer

Inner layer derived mainly from an invagination of the epidermis.

question

A bundle of smooth muscle cells

answer

Arrector Pili

question

What are the concentric regions of a hair shaft, from the outside in?

answer

The regions of a hair from outside in are the cuticle, cortex and medulla.

question

Why is having your hair cut painless?

answer

There are no nerves in a hair, so cutting hair is painless.

question

What is the role of an arrector pili muscle?

answer

The arrector pili muscles pull the hair (normally slanted) to the upright position (when cold or scared).

question

What is the function of the hair papilla?

answer

The hair papilla contains a knot of capillaries that supplies nutrients to cells of the hair bulb.

question

Why is the lunule of a nail white instead of pink like the rest of the nail?

answer

The lunule of the nail is white because the thick nail matrix that underlies it blocks the rosy color of the dermal blood supply from showing through.

question

Why are nails so hard?

answer

Nails are hard because the keratin they contain is the hard keratin variety.

question

Acid Mantle

answer

The low pH of skin secretions.

question

Cutaneous Sensory Receptors

answer

Which are actually part of the nervous system; respond to stimuli arising outside the body.

question

What chemicals produced in the skin help provide barriers to bacteria? List at least three and explain how the chemicals are protective.

answer

The low pH of skin secretions (acid mantle) inhibits division of bacteria, and many bacteria are killed by bactericidal substances in sebum or by natural antibiotics called defensins. Damaged skin secretes cathelicidins that are effective against a certain strain of strep bacteria.

question

What epidermal cells play a role in body immunity?

answer

The epidermal dendritic cells play a role in body immunity.

question

How is sunlight important to bone health?

answer

Sunlight causes the skin to produce a precursor of vitamin D from cholesterol.

question

How does the skin contribute to body metabolism?

answer

The skin carries out chemical conversions that supplement some of the protective conversions carried out by the liver, convert some chemicals into carcinogens, activate some steroid hormones, an dsynthesize the vitamin D precursor.

question

Is the least malignant and most common skin cancer.

answer

Basal Cell Carcinoma

question

The second most common skin cancer, arises from the keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum.

answer

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

question

Cancer of melanocytes, is the most dangerous skin cancer because it is highly metastatic and resistant to

answer

Melanoma

question

Which type of skin cancer develops from the youngest epidermal cells?

answer

Basal cell carcinoma develops from the youngest epidermal cells.

STUDY

Advertising Bricks And Mortar Marketing Principles Of Marketing Social Networking Site Social Networking Sites

mktg ch 10 – Flashcards 82 terms

Joseph Fraser

82 terms

Preview

mktg ch 10 – Flashcards

question

Digital media have created opportunities for companies to

answer

target specific markets

question

Electronic media that function using digital codes are called

answer

digital media

question

Consumers are changing ______ and consumption behaviors as a result of emerging technologies

answer

their information searches

question

Which of the following refers to the strategic process of distributing, promoting, pricing products, and discovering the desires of customers using digital marketing.

answer

electronic marketing

question

The Internet has changed the way the managers at Chick-fil-A communicate and develop relationships with their customers and their

answer

employees

question

According to Nielsen Marketing Research, consumers spend more time on ________ than e-mail

answer

social networking sites

question

As digital communication technologies have advanced, it possible for marketers to

answer

reach markets that were previously inaccessible

question

Which of the following characteristics distinguish online media from traditional marketing?

answer

Addressability, interactivity, accessibility, connectivity, and control

question

JC Penney's website encourages visitors to register in order to maximize their use of the site. By gathering information about a consumer before a purchase is made, JC Penney is practicing

answer

addressability

question

The ability of a marketer to identify customers before they make a purchase is called

answer

addressability

question

A(n) ________ channel provides the opportunity for a marketer to customize promotions.

answer

Addressable

question

_______ facilitates _______, as it enables customer engagement to facilitate product innovation.

answer

Addressability / relationship marketing

question

_______ allows customers to express their needs and wants directly to a company in response to its marketing communications

answer

interactivity

question

Blockbuster has set up a website that enables customers to converse with the company. This is an example of a(n) ______ website.

answer

interactive

question

Digital media such as blogs allow marketers to interact with prospective customers in

answer

real time

question

The ability to obtain digital information is referred to as

answer

accessibility

question

Interactive links on websites can help advertising move away from being an intrusion to

answer

developing relationships

question

_______ involves the use of digital networks to provide linkages between information providers and users.

answer

connectivity

question

______ refers to customers' ability to regulate the information they view and the rate and sequence of their exposure to that information.

answer

control

question

The Internet can be referred to as a ______ medium because users determine which websites they are going to view.

answer

pull

question

Coca-Cola entices consumers to their website through contests and games, but they cannot force people to visit their website due to the ______ characteristic of online media.

answer

control

question

Using cutting-edge technology in association with social networks and blogs in order to assist in workplace connections is referred to as

answer

Enterprise 2.0

question

__________ are free online publicity that helps the company

answer

positive customer reviews

question

Hobby Lobby encourages customers to post feedback on their company website because customer-generated content appears more ________ than corporate messages.

answer

authentic

question

Toyota encourages customers to post reviews on their company website in the hopes of increasing the company's

answer

credibility

question

Parker Brothers has posted on-line cash rewards for consumer reviews of their games. In doing so, Parker Brothers is striving to utilize

answer

consumer-generated marketing

question

______ are more consumer-driven than traditional media.

answer

digital media

question

One trend that has caused consumer-generated information to gain importance is

answer

the increase of consumers using digital media to publicize their own product reviews.

question

One trend that has caused consumer-generated information to gain importance is

answer

consumers' tendencies to trust other consumers over corporations.

question

Marketing strategists say businesses ________ consumers via social media

answer

should connect to

question

The average Facebook user becomes a fan of several ______ each month

answer

fan pages

question

Fan pages use _____ to help companies keep track of information on who is becoming a fan of their page.

answer

widgets

question

Which of the following statements is true regarding Fan Pages on Facebook?

answer

They have no benefit for the company, but are still essential because the consumer demands it.

question

Fan Pages are a(n) _______ way for companies to advertise their goods and services while also garnering information about consumers.

answer

inexpensive

question

The first modern social network was shut down due to

answer

lack of interest

question

The fastest-growing group on Facebook is

answer

women aged 55 and over

question

MySpace has experienced difficulties competing with Facebook, in part because of its reputation as more of a ______ site than one for keeping in touch with friends.

answer

dating

question

IHOP is active on Facebook for the purpose of engaging in ______ marketing

answer

relationship

question

Which social networking site asks its members "What are you doing?"

answer

twitter

question

Toys-R-Us is almost finished building a new store and will soon be having a grand opening celebration. Management wants to build excitement and anticipation for the event. Which social networking site would Toys-R-Us use to post multiple updates each day on the store's progress?

answer

twitter

question

A ______ is a type of software that creates an interface that enables users to add or edit the content of some types of websites

answer

wiki

question

Some companies use ______ as internal tools for teams working on a project requiring lots of documentation.

answer

wikis

question

______ is a popular photosharing site on the Internet.

answer

Flickr

question

Crate and Barrel uses ________ to market themselves visually by displaying snapshots of company events, staff, and products.

answer

Flickr

question

_______ are audio or video files that can be downloaded from the Internet with a subscription that automatically delivers new content to listening devices or personal computers.

answer

podcasts

question

Due to increasing consumer demand, many television networks are creating ______ of their shows.

answer

podcasts

question

Redbox has established outlets in the simulated environment of Second Life. Your _____ is able to rent a movie from a Redbox.

answer

avatar

question

As a result of the increasing usage of digital media, some of the marketer's control over dispensing product information has been placed

answer

in the hands of the consumer

question

The attrition rate for digital media channels is

answer

very high

question

______ are those consumers who construct their own media outlets, such as blogs, podcasts, consumer-generated videos, and wikis.

answer

creators

question

Consumers who act as ______ are becoming increasingly important to online marketers as a conduit for addressing consumers directly.

answer

creators

question

Of the online user segments in The Social Technographics Profile, the largest group is most countries is

answer

spectators

question

______ usually constitute a smaller part of the online population than the other groups.

answer

collectors

question

Anyone who becomes a member of MySpace, Twitter, Facebook, or other social networking sites is a

answer

joiner

question

______ are online users who do not participate in any digital online media.

answer

inactives

question

Walmart has stores in China where Spectators make up the majority of the online population. To match their marketing efforts with the characteristics of the population, Walmart should

answer

post its own promotional messages on blogs and websites.

question

Pizza hut has restaurants in India where Joiners make up the majority of the online population. To match their marketing efforts with the characteristics of the population, Pizza Hut should

answer

create a Fan Page and invite consumers to post their thoughts.

question

KFC has restaurants in Mexico where Inactives make up the majority of the online population. To match their marketing efforts with the characteristics of the population, KFC should

answer

focus more on traditional promotions rather than social networking

question

Sears sells online through its website, while also selling through physical store locations. This type of retailing is referred to as

answer

bricks-and-clicks

question

The ability to process orders electronically and increase the speed of communications via the Internet reduces

answer

distribution costs

question

Online surveys can serve as an alternative to

answer

mail surveys, telephone surveys, or personal interviews

question

______ is a term that refers to the use of digital media to obtain opinions on the needs of potential markets

answer

Crowdsourcing

question

Johnson & Johnson learns about consumer needs by understanding the environment in which a product is used and the different applications of the product. The company uses _______ as a research tool to gain this information.

answer

social networking

question

About ______ of Americans participate in online discussion forums

answer

30%

question

______ of online shoppers read ratings and reviews before making a purchasing decision.

answer

over 3/4

question

Northface launched a promotional campaign using various forms of digital media. In order to evaluate the success of the campaign, Northface should

answer

compare sales before and after the campaign was launched.

question

Sony launched an online campaign that prompted people to visit the Sony website. In order to evaluate the success of the campaign, Sony should

answer

monitor the website to see if web traffic increased after the launch of the campaign

question

Craigslist wants to know which social networking sites drive the most traffic to the Craigslist website. The best way to gain this information is through

answer

a digital media measurement system

question

Due to consumer concerns over privacy, the _______ is considering regulations that would limit the amount of consumer information that marketers can gather online

answer

Federal Trade Commission

question

______ includes any attempt to intentionally conduct dishonest activities online

answer

online fraud

question

______ monitors social networks for fraudulent accounts and assist their clients in removing the deceptive accounts.

answer

a brand-protection firm

question

The Disney website has a special link for educators that allows them to download educational videos pertaining to various subjects and grade levels. Educators are asked to register online with further information about their needs. This is an example of

answer

addressability.

question

This is an example of one of the characteristics that distinguish online media from traditional marketing, namely

answer

accessibility

question

The Disney website is missing _______, because the website does not offer the opportunity for customers to directly communicate with Disney employees. Customers cannot express their needs and wants directly to the company.

answer

interactivity

question

Visitors to the Disney website have the ability to regulate the information they view and the activities they participate in. This is an example of

answer

control

question

The Disney website offers users the ability to create a character or a comic. You have the option of allowing other people to view and comment on your new creation. Which characteristic of e-marketing is being utilized here?

answer

connectivity

question

Google can give instructions on how to construct almost anything, from a house to a science experiment. As for online applications, you can learn anything from developing your own website to starring in a video. Google's "how to" features would most likely appeal to

answer

creators

question

Through Google, people can comment on someone else's blog, post product reviews, or contribute to a wiki. ______ would most likely participate in this kind of activity.

answer

critics

question

Google offers people the opportunity to join a variety of groups, ranging from different religions to nationalities to hobbies. There are nearly half a million groups from which to choose and connect with other members. Which online user would be most likely be interested in these groups?

answer

joiners

question

Google is the ultimate website for people who want to collect information. Google started out as a search engine and then expanded into offering many other services. ______ were Google's initial target market.

answer

collectors

question

If you want to read what other people think about products, movies, or world events, Google has online forums and blogs that are readily accessible. ______ would most likely want to simply read the opinions of others.

answer

Spectators

question

____ relates to perceptions of value and is the most flexible element of the marketing mix.

answer

pricing

STUDY

Bricks And Mortar Brute Force Attack Hypertext Transfer Protocol Network Security Personal Digital Assistants Store And Forward

ISEC 5305 test 1 – Flashcards 86 terms

Mary Moore

86 terms

Preview

ISEC 5305 test 1 – Flashcards

question

True or False: Cars that have Wi-Fi access and onboard computers require software patches and upgrades from the manufacturer.

answer

True

question

Which law governs the use of the IoT by healthcare providers, such as physicians and hospitals

answer

HIPPA

question

Jody would like to find a solution that allows realtime document sharing and editing between teams. Which technology would best suit her needs?

answer

Collaboration

question

What do organizations expect to occur with the growth of the IoT?

answer

Higher Risks

question

In Mobile IP, what term describes a device that would like to communicate with a mobile node(MN)?

answer

Correspondent node (CN)

question

Bob recently accepted a position as the information security and compliance manager for a medical practice. Which regulation is likely to most directly apply to Bob's employer?

answer

HIPPA

question

True or False: An IT security policy framework is like an outline that identifies where security controls should be used

answer

True

question

True or False: Authorization is the process of granting rights to use an organizations IT assets, systems, applications, and data to a specific user.

answer

True

question

Which organization pursues standards for the IoT devices and is widely recognized as the authority for creating standards of the Internet?

answer

Internet Society

question

True or False: Store-and-Forward communications should be used when you need to talk to someone immediately.

answer

False

question

True or False: IoT technology has a significant impact on developing economies, given that it can transform countries into e-commerce-ready nations

answer

True

question

True or False: Metadata of IoT devices can be sold to companies seeking demographic marketing data about users and their spending habits

answer

True

question

True or False: Bring your own device (BYOD) opens the door to considerable security risks

answer

True

question

Which IoT challenge involves the difficulty of developing and implementing protocols that allow devices to communicate in a standard fashion?

answer

Interoperability

question

Which tool can capture the packets transmitted between systems over a network?

answer

Protocol analyzer

question

True or False: Denial of service (DoS) attacks are larger in scope than Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks

answer

False

question

Which type of attack involves the creation of some deception in order to trick unsuspecting users?

answer

Fabrication

question

True or False: Rootkits are malicious software programs designed to be hidden from normal methods of detection

answer

True

question

True or False: When servers need operating system upgrades or patches, administrators take them offline intentionally so they can perform the necessary work without risking malicious attacks

answer

True

question

True or False: Cryptography is the process of transforming data from cleartext to ciphertext.

answer

False (Encryption not Cryptography)

question

True or False: The Director of IT security is generally in charge of ensuring that the Workstation Domain conforms to Policy

answer

True

question

True or False: The most critical aspect of a WAN services contract is how the service provider supplies troubleshooting, network management, and security management services

answer

True

question

?True or False: Networks, routers, and equipment require continuous monitoring and management to keep WAN service available

answer

True

question

Which element of the security policy framework requires approval from upper management and applies to the entire organization?

answer

Policy

question

Which element of the IT security policy framework provides detailed written definitions for hardware and software and how they are to be used?

answer

Standard

question

Rachel is investigating an information security incident that took place at the high school where she works. She suspects that students may have broken into the student records system and altered their grades. If correct, which one of the tenets of information security did this attack violate?

answer

Integrity

question

True or False: The system/application domain holds all the mission critical systems, applications, and data.

answer

True

question

True or False: Each 4g device has a unique Internet Protocol (IP) address and appears just like any other wired device on a network.

answer

True

question

True or False: One of the first industries to adopt and widely use mobile applications was the healthcare industry

answer

True

question

Which type of denial of service attack exploits the existence of software flaws to disrupt a service?

answer

Logic attack

question

? Bob is using a port scanner to identify open ports on a server in his environment. He is scanning a web server that uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Which port should Bob expect to be open to support this service?

answer

443

question

Users throughout Alison's organization have been receiving unwanted commercial messages over the organization's instant messaging program. What type of attack is taking place?

answer

Spim

question

True or False: A rootkit uses a directed broadcast to create a flood of network traffic for the victim computer.

answer

False

question

True or False: Cryptography is the process of transforming data from cleartext into ciphertext

answer

False: Encryption

question

Which risk is most effectively mitigated by an upstream Internet Service Provider (ISP)?

answer

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

question

True or False: Organizations should start defining their IT security policy framework by defining as asset classification policy

answer

True

question

True or False: Encrypting the data within databases and storage devices gives an added layer of security

answer

True

question

True or False: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the communications protocol between web browsers and websites with data in cleartext.

answer

True

question

? Which network device is capable of blocking network connections that are identified as potentially malicious?

answer

Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

question

True or False: Authorization is the process of granting rights to use an organization's IT assets, systems, applications, and data to a specific user.

answer

True

question

True or False: In the Remote Access Domain, if private data or confidential data is compromised remotely, you should set automatic blocking for attempted logon retries.

answer

False: Apply first level and second level tokens and biometrics

question

Which element of the security policy framework offers suggestions rather than mandatory actions?

answer

Guideline

question

?True or False: A VPN router is a security appliance that is used to filter IP packets

answer

False

question

Which of the following is NOT an area of critical infrastructure where the Internet of Things (IOT) is likely to spur economic development in less developed countries? a) Water Supply management b) Agriculture c) Wastewater Treatment d) E-commerce

answer

d) e-commerce

question

True or False: Bricks-and-mortar stores are completely obsolete now.

answer

False: They have global reach

question

True or False: Devices that combine the capabilities of mobile phones and personal digital assistants (PDAs) are commonly called smartphones

answer

True

question

True or False: E-commerce systems and applications demand strict confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) security controls.

answer

True

question

Jody would like to find a solution that allows real-time document sharing and editing between teams. Which technology would best suit her needs?

answer

Collaboration

question

In Mobile IP, what term describes a device that would like to communicate with a mobile node (MN)?

answer

Correspondent node

question

True or False: A bricks-and-mortar strategy includes marketing and selling goods and services on the Internet

answer

false: e-commerce

question

? True or False: IoT devices cannot share and communicate you IoT device data to other systems and applications without your authorization or knowledge

answer

True

question

Which act governs the use of Internet of Things (IoT) by healthcare providers, such as physicians and hospitals?

answer

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

question

Which term describes an action that can damage or compromise an asset?

answer

Threat

question

True or False: The anti-malware utility is one of the most popular backdoor tools in use today

answer

False: Netcat

question

Which password attack is typically used specifically against password files that contain cryptographic hashes?

answer

Birthday attacks

question

What type of malicious software masquerades as legitimate software to entice the user to run it?

answer

Trojan Horse

question

Maria's company recently experienced a major system outage due to the failure of a critical component. During that time period, the company did not register any sales through it's online site. Which type of loss did the company experience as a result of lost sales?

answer

opportunity cost

question

Bob is using a port scanner to identify open ports on a server in his environment. He is scanning a web server that uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Which port should Bob expect to be open to support the service?

answer

question

True or False: A phishing attack "poisons" a domain name on a domain name server.

answer

False: Pharming

question

Florian recently purchased a set of domain names that are similar to those of legitimate websites and used the newly purchased sites to host malware. Which type of attack is Florian using?

answer

Typosquatting

question

True or False: Vishing is a type of wireless network attack

answer

False: Social Engineering attacks

question

True or False: A birthday attack is a type of cryptographic attack that is used to make brute-force attack of one-way hashes easier.

answer

True

question

True or False: A phishing email is a fake or bogus email intended to trick the recipient into clicking on an embedded URL link or opening an email attachment.

answer

True

question

True or False: Using a secure logon and authentication process is one of the six steps to prevent malware.

answer

True

question

True or False: Failing to prevent an attack all but invites an attack

answer

True

question

Which formula is typically used to describe the components of information security?

answer

Risk = Threat X Vulnerabilities

question

Holly would like to run an annual major disaster recovery test that is as thorough and realistic as possible. She also wants to ensure that there is no disruption of activity at the primary site. What option is best in this scenario?

answer

Simulation Test

question

?Tom is the IT manager for an organization that experienced a server failure that affected a single business function. What type of plan should guide the organization's recovery effort?

answer

question

True or False: The term risk management describes the process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and addressing risks.

answer

True

question

True or False: The tools for conducting a risk analysis can include the documents that define, categorize, and rank risks.

answer

True

question

True or False: A security policy is a comparison of the security controls you have in place and the controls you need in order to address all identified threats.

answer

False: Gap analysis

question

What is the first step in a disaster recovery effort?

answer

Ensure that everyone is safe

question

True or False: The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum amount of data loss that is acceptable.

answer

True

question

True or False: The Government Information Security Reform Act of 2000 focuses on management and evaluation of the security of unclassified and national security systems.

answer

True

question

What compliance regulation applies specifically to the educational records maintained by schools about students?

answer

Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

question

The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) restricts the collection of information online from children. What is the cutoff age for COPPA regulation?

answer

question

Earl is preparing a risk register for his organization's risk management program. Which data is LEAST likely to be included in a risk register?

answer

Risk Survey results

question

True or False: User-based permission levels limit a person to executing certain functions and often enforces mutual exclusivity

answer

False: Task-based

question

True or False: A Chinese wall security policy defines a barrier and develops a set of rules that makes sure no subject gets to objects on the other side of the wall

answer

True

question

Gary would like to choose an access control model in which the owner of a resource decides who may modify permissions on that resource. Which model fits that scenario?

answer

Rule-based access control

question

Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? a) personal identification number (PIN) and password b) token and smart card c) password and security questions d) smart card and personal identification number (PIN)

answer

question

Which of the following is an example of a hardware security control? a) Security Policy b) NTFS permission c) MAC filtering d) ID badge

answer

question

True or False: Content-dependent access control requires the access control mechanism to look at the data to decide who should get to see it

answer

True

question

True or False: Voice patter biometrics are accurate for authentication because voices can't easily be replicated by computer software

answer

False: easy to replicate

question

True or False: You should use easy-to-remember personal information to create secure passwords

answer

False

question

True or False: A trusted operating system (TOS) provides features that satisfy specific government requirements for security.

answer

True

STUDY

1980s And 1990s Bricks And Mortar Fair And Equitable Management Supply Chain Management

OPRE 6371 – Flashcard 105 terms

Marguerite Castillo

105 terms

Preview

OPRE 6371 – Flashcard

question

supply chain management

answer

The design and management of seamless, value-added processes across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end customer is called:

question

As supply chains have become more global, the risk of supply disruptions has:

answer

increased because of financial and exchange rate fluctuations.

question

Performance of the supply management function can be viewed in two contexts:

answer

operational and strategic

question

The return on assets effect (ROA) quantifies and measures

answer

the impact of supply actions on inventory and the balance sheet.

question

Supply has the potential to contribute to:

answer

cost management, profitability, return on assets, competitive position and corporate social policy.

question

In manufacturing organizations, the dollars spent with suppliers fall into what range as a percent of revenues?

answer

50 to 80

question

Supply management may indirectly contribute to the organization's competitive advantage by:

answer

improving process efficiency

question

Evidence of the growth and influence of supply management in an organization includes:

answer

involvement in strategic planning and mergers and acquisitions.

question

profit-leverage effect of supply savings means that:

answer

a reduction in purchase spend increases profit more than an equal sales increase.

question

use of the concepts of purchasing, procurement, supply, and supply chain management will vary from organization to organization depending on:

answer

a. the organization's stage of development and/or sophistication. b. the industry in which they operate c. the organization's competitive position.

question

supply's contribution

answer

reducing cost improving effieciency

question

Sustainability initiatives include

answer

the effective and efficient capture and disposition of downstream products from customers and the reduction of the impact of the organization's supply chains on the natural environment

question

True or false Terms such as purchasing, procurement, supply, supply chain and logistics do not have standard definitions that are widely used across sectors and industries.

answer

True

question

True of false Reductions in inventory investment primarily come from getting users to reduce their demand for inventoried items.

answer

False

question

Supply management has evolved from a transaction-based, tactical function to a process-oriented, strategic function.

answer

True

question

One of the most important steps in achieving the potential of the supply function in a company is elevation of the chief supply officer to executive status.

answer

True

question

The increase in outsourcing has resulted in an increase in the percentage of revenue paid out to suppliers.

answer

True

question

Since labor and other costs greatly exceed outlays for purchased materials and services in most service organizations, supply is of little consequence in most service organizations.

answer

True

question

Since labor and other costs greatly exceed outlays for purchased materials and services in most service organizations, supply is of little consequence in most service organizations.

answer

False

question

Supply makes a limited contribution to organizational risk management since most supply decisions have few downside risks that might impact the organization's strategy.

answer

False

question

The total purchase sales ratio (the percentage of sales dollars paid out to suppliers) varies little from industry to industry.

answer

False

question

contributions of supply

answer

information source efficiency competitive posit./customer satisfaction organizationa risk image training for new managers management strategy

question

An effective supply strategy primarily focuses on linking:

answer

current and future needs to current and future markets.

question

Organizational objectives and supply objectives typically are expressed:

answer

differently, making it difficult to translate organizational objectives into supply objectives.

question

Which one of the following is NOT one of the six major supply strategy areas:

answer

new-product design strategies.

question

When developing supply strategies related to "how to buy," decisions must be made about:

answer

systems and procedures

question

The key question in strategic supply management is

answer

How can supply and the supply chain contribute effectively to organizational objectives and strategy?

question

Three major challenges exist when setting supply objectives and strategies:

answer

effectively interpreting corporate and supply objectives, selecting appropriate actions to achieve objectives, and integrating supply information into organizational strategies.

question

To effectively manage supply risks, the supply manager must:

answer

identify and classify risks, assess the potential impact, and develop a risk mitigation strategy.

question

Linking supply strategy to corporate strategy is:

answer

essential in all organizations, and many lack the mechanisms to link them.

question

Strategic planning can be defined as:

answer

an action plan to achieve specific long-term goals and objectives.

question

Supply strategies that are based on changes in demand and supply are known as:

answer

assurance-of-supply strategies

question

True or False The three levels of strategic planning are: function, unit, and corporate.

answer

True

question

True or False Environmental-change strategies are designed to anticipate and recognize shifts in the natural world that affect supply availability.

answer

False

question

True or False Even if a supply manager identifies and eliminates the causes of uncertainty and risk in the supply chain, the organization may still need to carry the same amount of inventory.

answer

False

question

True or False Risks in the supply chain can be classified into three main categories: (1) operational, (2) financial, and (3) strategic.

answer

False

question

True or False There is a growing emphasis on strategic supply management processes and less on purchase transactions.

answer

True

question

True or False A corporate risk management group headed by a chief risk officer has emerged in many organizations to assess total risk exposure and develop strategies to best manage all risks.

answer

True

question

True or False Assurance-of-supply strategies emphasize quality over all other considerations

answer

False

question

True or False The most fundamental question facing an organization is whether to make or buy.

answer

True

question

True or False Supply managers may be able to provide information to identify risks to the organization and they can develop strategies to mitigate those risks.

answer

True

question

True or False Seldom do the actions of supply managers impact the organization's reputation either positively or negatively.

answer

False

question

Close to 70 percent of the value of any given requirement is established when needs are recognized and described. Therefore, the following functions should work together during need recognition and description:

answer

the primary user, design engineering, supply and all other relevant functional areas such as accounting/finance, marketing and operations.

question

A change in how supply is organized and structured is the result of:

answer

a change in the overall corporate organizational structure.

question

Which factors have a major influence on supply's level in the organization:

answer

1. the ratio of purchased material and services costs as a percentage of total costs or income. 2. the nature of the products or services acquired. 3. the extent to which supply and suppliers can provide competitive advantage.

question

Organizations commit resources to cross-functional team development to:

answer

achieve time, quality, or cost-reduction targets

question

Supply can provide an uninterrupted flow of materials, supplies and services by:

answer

holding large inventories. standardizing capital equipment, materials, MRO and services.

question

A purchasing consortium:

answer

consists of two or more independent organizations that combine requirements for materials, services and capital goods to gain better pricing, service and technology from suppliers.

question

Hybrid supply structures typically:

answer

capture the benefits of both centralized and decentralized structures.

question

The organizational structure (centralized, decentralized, or hybrid) of the supply function:

answer

influences supply processes, internal cross-functional relationships, and the procedures and systems employed.

question

Supply's contribution to the organization's competitive position depends on its ability to:

answer

reduce costs enhance revenue manage assets

question

Specialization within the supply function:

answer

allows staff to develop expertise in particular areas.

question

The greatest opportunity to affect value in the purchasing process is when:

answer

needs are recognized and described.

question

If the buyer does not have a clear and unambiguous description or specification and wants to find out which suppliers can deliver the best value when and where needed, he or she will typically issue a:

answer

request for proposal (RFP).

question

The benefit(s) of participation in an e-marketplace include:

answer

the ability to aggregate spend the advantages from economies of scale. visibility up- and downstream in the supply chain. the ability to automate and facilitate transactions.

question

One purpose of a requisition is:

answer

to clarify the description of need before communicating with potential suppliers.

question

Radio frequency identification (RFID) will:

answer

eliminate bar coding and manual counting.

question

Efficient and effective supply processes are needed because of:

answer

the need for an audit trail. the large volume of items and dollar value. severe consequences of poor performance. the potential contribution to organizational objectives.

question

Online auctions have been most effective when:

answer

the market conditions favor buyers.

question

Electronic data interchange (EDI) provides:

answer

secure transmission, greater accuracy and shorter process cycle time for all data.

question

Application software for the procurement process is available:

answer

from an ERP system, a systems developer, or an ASP.

question

ERP

answer

Enterprise Resource Planning

question

ASP

answer

application software provider

question

Effectively and efficiently applying technology to the supply management process will result in:

answer

an ability to reduce the total cost of doing business by enabling just-in-time systems, bar-coding applications, integrated manufacturing, and electronic funds transfers.

question

One of the most fundamental and critical decisions in any organization is, should we:

answer

make or buy the needed good or service?

question

When a team has decided that a task or function currently performed by company employees is not a core competency, the team will probably recommend:

answer

outsourcing

question

Deciding what represents a core competency in an organization is:

answer

often a fairly complex decision and a function of many factors

question

Outsourcing of services is:

answer

realistic if the internal users and the buyer can carefully define service requirements and quality expectations

question

Currently, managements tend toward

answer

outsourcing entire operations

question

Outsourcing:

answer

is often chosen as a way for the organization to reduce or control operating costs, improve company focus, and gain access to world-class capabilities.

question

In the outsourcing decisions in many organizations, supply has had:

answer

relatively moderate involvement

question

Supply managers believe they can add the most value to the outsourcing decision by:

answer

providing a comprehensive, competitive process

question

Supply management:

answer

is seldom outsourced in its entirety, but activities such as inventory monitoring, order placement, and order receiving are outsourced.

question

Subcontracting refers to the practice of:

answer

a prime contractor bidding out part of a job to another contractor.

question

Loss of control is:

answer

c. a concern within the buying organization when considering outsourcing

question

An advantage of buying by performance or function over other specification methods is that it provides:

answer

the opportunity for the potential supplier to establish how to make the most suitable product.

question

Supply's growing involvement in the acquisition of services may be explained by:

answer

the high dollars spent on services and the opportunities to reduce costs

question

Capital assets are long-term assets that:

answer

have an ongoing effect on the organization's operations

question

When a specification is widely known, commonly recognized and readily available to every buyer, it is called a:

answer

standard specification.

question

Early supply involvement can be accomplished by:

answer

using cross-functional teams on new product development.

question

Description by brand:

answer

may be a necessity because the manufacturing process is secret.

question

The purpose of identifying the function of an item to be required is:

answer

to assist in the determination of what represents acceptable value.

question

A buyer may be compelled to purchase by specification when:

answer

means agreement on definite sizes, design, and quality

question

Standardization:

answer

means agreement on definite sizes, design, and quality

question

Supply chain risks include:

answer

interruptions to the flow of goods or services. actions that lower the company's attractiveness to the investment community. lack of regulatory compliance.

question

Determination of the "best buy" is based on:

answer

a balance of requirements of marketing, engineering, operations, and supply

question

ISO 9001:2008 provides a tested framework for a systematic approach to consistently delivering product that satisfies customers' expectations by managing:

answer

process capability.

question

A sampling technique that is based on the cumulative effect of information that every additional item in the sample adds as it is inspected is called:

answer

cumulative sampling.

question

A process is capable when:

answer

it averages a set number of standard deviations within the specifications.

question

The role and responsibilities of supply may contribute to the containment of the cost of poor quality by addressing:

answer

a. prevention costs b. appraisal costs c. internal costs d. external costs

question

A six sigma (6σ) approach to quality:

answer

means there are no more than 6 defects per million opportunities.

question

Upper (UCL) and lower control limits (LCL):

answer

require operator action when the process is outside normal operating range

question

Quality control in services is:

answer

relatively difficult compared to quality control of goods

question

A supplier certification program

answer

may enable the buyer and seller to lower costs and improve quality.

question

Deming's 14 points stress the importance of:

answer

minimizing total cost with a single source.

question

Inventory use that is determined directly by customer orders is called:

answer

independent demand.

question

"A" items in ABC analysis are

answer

particularly critical in financial terms

question

When the carrying cost of inventory is expressed as a percentage:

answer

it is multiplied by the material unit cost to calculate the per unit carrying cost.

question

On an annual requirement of 100 items spread evenly throughout the year, any purchaser has an opportunity of buying all 100 units at a price of $100 each, or buying 10 units at a time at a price of $120. If the inventory carrying cost is 25 percent per year and assuming no ordering costs:

answer

buying 100 at a time will save the company $900 per year.

question

Closed-loop MRP:

answer

provides a feedback loop between capacity and the master production schedule.

question

A buffer inventory

answer

protects against uncertainties in supply and demand.

question

Stockout costs

answer

can vary depending on whether it is a seller's or a buyer's market.

question

Which statement is most accurate when thinking about deciding how much to buy::

answer

balancing price, volume, carrying cost, and the cost of stockouts is key to successfully determining how much to buy at any point in time.

question

When a retailer uses daily sales of each product to identify patterns and to forecast inventory requirements, this is an example of:

answer

a time series forecasting technique.

question

The three main inputs of a material requirements planning (MRP) system are:

answer

an accurate bill of material, a master production schedule, and the inventory record.

STUDY

Bricks And Mortar Growing Middle Class Principles Of Marketing Product Liability Laws

retail management book terms – Flashcards 140 terms

Daniel Hardy

140 terms

Preview

retail management book terms – Flashcards

question

retailing

answer

encompasses the business activities involved in selling goods and services to consumers for their personal, family, or household use. ex. outlets

question

channel of distribution

answer

all of the businesses and people involved in the physical movement and transfer of ownership of goods and services from product to consumer.

question

sorting process

answer

retailers collect an assortment from various sources, buy in large quantities, and sell in small amounts

question

multi-channel retailing

answer

whereby a retailer sells to consumers through multiple retail formats( points of contact) ex. online, toll free phone, mail order Walmart.

question

exclusive distribution

answer

whereby suppliers make agreements with one or a few retailers that designate the latter as the only ones in specified geographic areas to carry certain brands or products. helps both parties to work together to maintain image, assign shelf space, etc. ex.lambagini, designer

question

intensive distribution

answer

whereby suppliers sell through as many retailers as possible retailers will have more products but that can also create little self space, lack of ads, and set high prices. most volatile to channel relation ex. tea shops, cigarettes.

question

selective distribution

answer

suppliers sell through a moderate number of retailers. combines both previous suppliers. have higher sales than exclusive and intensive. retailers carry some competing brands. ex.????

question

retail strategy

answer

overall plan guiding a retail firm. it influences the firm's business activities and its response to market forces. 1. customer orientation 2. coordinated effort 3. value driven 4. goal orientation

question

total retail experience

answer

includes all the elements in a retail offering that encourage or inhibit consumers during their contact with a retailer. ex. sales taxes can't be controlled, people can. build-a-bear

question

customer service

answer

refers to the identifiable but sometimes intangible activities undertaken by a retailer in conjunction with basic goods and services it sells.

question

relationship retailing

answer

whereby they seek to establish and maintain long term bonds with customers rather than act as if each sales transaction is a completely new encounter.

question

canned sales presentation

answer

memorized, reptitive speech given to all customers interested in an particular item. works great if little assistance is required

question

need-satisfaction approach

answer

based on the principle that each customer has different wants; thus, a sales presentation should be geared to the demands of the individual customer.

question

sales promotion

answer

encompasses the paid communication activities other than advertising, PR, and personal selling that stimulate consumer purchases and dealer effectiveness. ex. contests, sweepstakes, coupons

question

situation analysis

answer

candid evaluation of the opportunities and threats facing a prospective or existing retailer. what is the firm's current status? what direction should we be heading?

question

opportunities

answer

are marketplace openings that exist because other retailers have not yet capitalized on them. ex. IKEA huge selection at discount

question

threats

answer

environmental and marketplace that can adversely affect retailers if they don't react to them and sometimes even if they do. ex. single screen movie theaters

question

organizational mission

answer

retailer's commitment to a type of business and to a distinctive role in the marketplace should have clear mission

question

sole proprietorship

answer

unincorporated retail firm owned by on person all risks, profits, and costs accrue to that individual.- 75% retail

question

partnership

answer

unincorporated retail firm owned by two or more persons, each with fiancial interest. partners share everything. 5% of all retail firms

question

corporation

answer

retail firm that is formally incorporated under state law. it is a large entity apart from individual officers( stockholders) have more government rules. 20% of US retail firms.ex. Coke

question

goods/service category

answer

the line of business- in which to operate ex. Jaguar dealers luxury auto cater to upscale customers

question

objectives

answer

long run and short run performance targets it hopes to attain profit may be expressed in dollars or as a percentage of sales.

question

caveat emptor

answer

let the buyer beware

question

image

answer

represents how a given retailer is percieved by consumers and others ex. brand seen as conservative

question

positioning

answer

retailer devises its strategy in a way that projects an image relative to its retail category and its competitors and that elicits a positive consumers response. ex. Women's store has to position itself as an upscale or discount retailer

question

mass merchandising

answer

a positioning approach where by retailers offer a discount or value- oriented image, a wide/ deep merchandise selection and large store facilities. ex. Walmart has deep merchandise while Dicks has a narrower, deeper assortment.

question

niche retailing

answer

retailers identify specific customer segments and deploy unique strategies to address the desires of those segments rather than the mass market ex. Babies R Us appeals to young parents

question

bifurcated retailing

answer

the decline of middle-of-the market retailing. firms that are neither competitively priced nor particularly individualistic may have difficulty competing.

question

target market

answer

customer groups sought by a retailer

question

mass marketing

answer

selling goods and services to broaden spectrum of consumers

question

concentrated marketing

answer

zeroing in on a specific group

question

competitive advantage

answer

the distinct competencies of a retailer relative to competitors

question

controllable variables

answer

store location, merchandising and pricing, communicating with customers

question

uncontrollable variables

answer

consumers, competition, technology, economic conditions, legal restrictions

question

tactics

answer

short run decisions are now made and enacted for each controllable part of the strategy

question

control

answer

in this phrase a review takes place, retail audit.

question

feedback

answer

observant management receives signals or cues as to success or failure of that part of the strategy.

question

retail institution

answer

basic format or structure of a business

question

independent retailer

answer

owns one retail unit

question

ease of entry

answer

high number of independents is associated with that due to low capital requirements and no or relatively simple, licensing provisions for many small retail firms

question

chain retailer

answer

operates multiple outlets( store units) under common ownership; it usually engages in some level of centralized coordinated purchasing and decision making. corporate owns all stores ex. Steak and Shake

question

franchising

answer

involves a contractual agreement between a franchise( manufacturer, wholesaler, service sponsor) and a retail franchisee, which allows the franchisee to conduct business under an established name and according to a given pattern of business. ex. McDonalds

question

product/ trademark franchising

answer

a franchisee acquires the identity of a franchiser by agreeing to sell the latter's products and/or operate under the latter's name ex. auto/gasoline dealers

question

business format franchising

answer

more interactive relationship, franchisee receives assistance on site location, quality control, accounting systems, start-up practices, management practices, and responding to problems besides the right to sell goods and services. ex. McDonalds Hamburger U training, service manager visits, detailed operation guide

question

constrained decision making

answer

whereby franchisers limit franchisee involvement in the strategic planning process. ex. Federal Trade Commission

question

leased departments

answer

department in retail store usually a department discount or specialty store- that is rented to an outside party. ex. Medlisco Corp runs leased shoe department in Rite Aids and Kmarts

question

vertical marketing system

answer

consists of all levels of independently owned businesses along on a channel of distribution. are independent- stationary store, partially integrated- furniture store, fully integrated- Kroger

question

dual marketing

answer

engage in more than one type of distribution arrangement ex. Dunkin Donuts and Baskin Robbins share stores, Sherwin Williams sells Dutch Boy point

question

channel control

answer

one member of a distribution channel dominates the decisions made in that channel due to the power it possesses. ex.

question

consumer cooperative

answer

retail firm owned by its customer members a group of consumers invests, elect officers, manages operators, and shares the profits or savings that accrue.

question

strategy mix

answer

the firm's particular combination of store location, operating procedures, goods/services offered, price tactics, store atmosphere, and customer services, promotional methods.

question

destination retailer status

answer

whereby consumers view the company as distinctive enough to become loyal to it and go out of their way to shop there.

question

wheel of retailing

answer

retail innovators often first appear as low price operators with low costs and low profit margin requirements. then go to medium and then high

question

scambled merchandising

answer

occurs when a retailer adds good and services that may be unrelated to each other and to the firm's orginial business. ex. blockbuster adding online

question

retail life cycle

answer

states that retail institutions like the goods and services they sell- pass through identifible life stages: intro( growth), growth( accelrated development, maturity decline.

question

mergers

answer

involve the combination of separately owned retail firms. ex. Office Depot and Staples

question

diversification

answer

retailers become active in business outside their normal operations- add stores in different goods/service categories.

question

downsizing

answer

whereby unprofitable stores are closed or divisions are sold off- by retailers unhappy with their performance. ex. Sears

question

convenience store

answer

typically a well-located, food-oriented retailer that is open long hours and carries a moderate number of items ex. Circle K

question

supermarket

answer

self-service food store with grocery, meat, and produce departments and minimum annual sales of 2 million.

question

conventional supermarket

answer

departmentalized food store with a wide range of food and related products; sales of general merchandise are rather limited. ex. Kroger

question

food-based superstore

answer

larger and more diversified than a conventional supermarket but usually smaller and less diversified than a combination store. ex. Giant Eagle has a pharmacy

question

combination store

answer

unites supermarket and general merchandise in one facility, with general merchandise accounting 25-40% of sales. ex. Fred Meyer

question

supercenter

answer

combo store blending on economy, supermarket with a discount department store. ex. Wal-mart, Target

question

box( limited line) store

answer

food based discounter that focuses on a small selection of items, moderate hours of operation( compared with other supermarkets), few services, and limited manufactured brands. ex. Aldi's

question

warehouse store

answer

food-based discounter offering a moderate number of food items in a no-fills setting. ex.men's warehouse

question

specialty store

answer

concentrates on selling one goods or service line, such as young women apparel. ex. Harry and David

question

category killer ( power retailer)

answer

especially large specialty store ex. Sephora, Home Depot

question

department store

answer

large retail unit with extensive assortment( width and depth) of goods and services that is organized into separate departments for purposes of buying, promotion, customer service, and control

question

traditional department store

answer

merchandise quality ranges from average to quite good ex. Macy's, Bloomingdales

question

full line discount store

answer

has shopping carts, conveys image of high-volume low discount outlet selling broad product assortment. customer service is usually in a centralized area. less fashion-sensitive merchandise. operating costs are lower. ex. Target, Walmart

question

variety store

answer

handles an assortment of inexpensive and popularly priced goods and services, such as apparel and accessories, costume jewelry, notions and small wares, candy, and other items in price range. ex. Dollar Tree- dollar discount store closeout chain- Big Lots

question

off- price chain

answer

features brand name( sometimes designer) apparel and accessories, footwear, linens, fabrics, cosmetics, etc. sells them at every day low prices in an efficient, limited-service environment. ex. TJ Maxx, Marshalls

question

factory outlet

answer

manufacturer-owned store selling closeouts; discontinued merchandise; irregulars; cancelled orders, and sometimes in season first quality merchandise. ex. Grove City outlets

question

membership ( warehouse) clubs

answer

appeals to price- conscious customers, who must be members to shop there. ex. Sam's Club

question

flea market

answer

many retail vendors sell a range of products at discount prices in plain surroundings.

question

customer value

answer

perception the shopper has of a value chain

question

value chain

answer

represents the total bundle of benefits offered to consumers through a channel of distribution

question

core customers

answer

best customers

question

expected customer service

answer

service level that customers want to receive from any retailer, such as basic employee courtesy.

question

augmented customer service

answer

included the activities that enhance the shopping experience and give retailers a competitive advantage. ex. Autozone

question

employee empowerment

answer

whereby workers have the discretion to do what they believe is necessary - within reason- to satisfy the customer, even if it means bending the rules. Ex. Nordstorm make suggestions, be different, but be smart.

question

revolving credit account

answer

whereby a customer charges items and is billed monthly on the basis of outstanding cumulative balance.

question

option credit card

answer

form of revolving account; no interest is assessed if a person pays a bill in full when it's due.

question

open credit account

answer

a consumer must pay the bill in full when it's due. ex. Amex

question

customer satisfaction

answer

occurs when the value and customer service provided through a retailing experience meet or exceed customer expectations

question

value delivery system

answer

comprises all the parties that develop, produce deliver, and sell and service particular goods and services.

question

good retailing

answer

focuses on the sale of tangible ( physical products)

question

service retailing

answer

involves transactions in which consumers don't purchase or acquire ownership of tangible products. ex. travel agencies

question

rented- goods service

answer

whereby consumers lease and use goods for specified periods of time ex. Hertz car rentals

question

owned-goods service

answer

goods owned by consumers are repaired, improved, or maintained. ex. lawn care

question

nongood services

answer

intangible personal services are offered to consumers who often experience the services rather than possess them. ex. stockbroker

question

single- channel retailing

answer

whereby it sells to consumers though one retail format. ex. Web, catalog

question

direct marketing

answer

customer is first exposed to a good or service though a nonpersonal medium( TV, Web) orders it by phone, mail, or computer

question

data-base retailing

answer

way to collect, store, and use relevant information about customers. ex. Tommy

question

specialog

answer

retailer caters to a particular customer segments, emphasizes a limited number of items, and reduces production and postage costs. Ex. LL Bean's Christmas catalog

question

informerical

answer

program length TV commerical( 30 mins) for a specific good or service that airs on cable or broadcast TV, often at the fringe time.

question

direct selling

answer

includes both personal contact with consumers at their homes or offices and phone solitications

question

internet

answer

a global electronic super highway of computer networks that use common protocol and are linked by telecommunications lines and satellite.

question

World Wide Web

answer

is one way to acccess information on the Internet, whereby people work with easy-to-use Web addresses ( sites) and pages

question

video kiosk

answer

is a free standing, interactive, electronic computer terminal that displays products and related information on a video screen; it often has a touch screen for consumers to make selections. ex. Macy's

question

demographics

answer

objective, quantifiable, easily identifiable, and measurable population data.

question

lifestyles

answer

ways in which individual consumers and families live and spend time and money

question

culture

answer

distinctive heritage shared by a group of people that passes on a series of beliefs, norms, and customs

question

social class

answer

involves an informal ranking of people based on income, occupation, education, and other factors

question

reference groups

answer

influence people's thoughts and behaviors; aspirational groups- a person does not belong but wishes to join; membership groups- a person does belong, etc.

question

family life cycle

answer

describes how a traditional family moves from bachelorhood to children to solitary retirement.

question

household life cycle

answer

incorporates lifestages for both family and nonfamily households

question

personality

answer

a sum total of an individual's traits, which make that individual unique.

question

class consiousness

answer

is the extent to which a person desires and pursues social status.

question

attitudes( opinions)

answer

are the positive, neutral, or negative feelings a person has about different topics.

question

perceived risk

answer

level of risk a consumer believes exists regarding the purchase of a specific good or service from a given retailer, whether or not that belief is correct

question

motives

answer

reasons for customer behavior

question

cross shopping

answer

whereby 1. shop for a product category at more than one retail format during the year. 2. visit multiple retailers on one shopping trip. ex. people shop online and also in department stores

question

consumer behavior

answer

process by which people determine whether, what, when, where, how, from whom, and how often to purchase goods and services

question

consumer decision process

answer

2 parts: the process itself and the factors affecting the process. stimulus-problem awareness-info search-eval of alternatives-purchase-post purchase.

question

stimulus

answer

cue or drive meant to motivate or arouse a person to act.

question

problem awareness

answer

consumer not only been aroused, but also recognizes that the good the good or service may solve a problem

question

information search

answer

1. determining alternatives that will solve the problem at hand. 2. ascertaining the characteristics of each alternative

question

evaluation of alternatives

answer

if two or more options seem attractive, person determines the criteria to evaluate their importance

question

purchase act

answer

exchange of money or a promise to pay for the ownership of a good or service.

question

post purchase behavior

answer

further purchases or reevaluation

question

cognitive dissonance

answer

doubt that the correct choice has been made

question

extended decision making

answer

occurs when a consumer makes full use of the decision process

question

limited decision making

answer

a consumer uses each step in purchase process but does not spend a great deal of time on each of them

question

routine decision making

answer

takes place when consumer buys out of habit and skips steps in the purchase process.

question

impulse purchases

answer

arise when consumer buys product and brands they had not planned on when entering store

question

consumer loyalty

answer

a person regularly shops at a particular retailer that he or she knows, likes, or trusts

question

differentiated marketing

answer

aiming at 2 or more distinct consumer groups, with different retailing approaches for each group. ex. Budweiser has different campaigns for young and old

question

competitive advantages

answer

the distinct competencies of retailer relative to competitors. ex. Tiffanys

question

feedback

answer

when observant management receives signals or cues.

question

consumer cooperative

answer

retail firm owned by its customer members. a group of consumers invests, elects officers, manages operations, and shares the profits or savings that accrue. ex. REI sells recreational equipment.

question

destination retailer

answer

whereby consumers view the company as distinctive enough to become loyal to it and go out of their way to shop there.

question

strategy mix

answer

the firm's particular combination of store location, operating procedures, goods/services offered, pricing tactics, and store atmosphere, promotions, customer service.

question

nonstore retailing

answer

when they use strategy mixes that are not store based to reach consumers and complete transactions. ex. video kiosks, airport retailing

question

discretionary income

answer

money left over after paying taxes and buying neccessities

question

personality

answer

is the sum total of an individual's traits, which make that individual unique.

question

outshopping

answer

out of hometown shopping. important for both local and surrounding retailers. ex. Canadians coming to outlets

question

value

answer

from manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer: embodied by a series of activities and processes- a value chain- that provides a certain value for the consumer from customer: the perception the shopper has of a value chain.

STUDY

Bricks And Mortar Long Term Benefits Principles Of Marketing Problems And Issues Producing Goods And Services Strategic Planning Process

Intro. Business Chapter 4 – Flashcards 33 terms

Kolby Cobb

33 terms

Preview

Intro. Business Chapter 4 – Flashcards

question

Businesses can best meet their responsibility to society by: A. creating markets for domestic products. B. shifting the blame for product liability cases onto the legal system. C. supporting their preferred government officials. D. creating wealth for their stockholders.

answer

Creating wealth for their stockholders

question

Ethical problems and issues of social responsibility are: A. unique to firms involved in global trade. B. unique to Canada. C. not unique to Canada. D. less important now than in the past.

answer

not unique to canada

question

Top leaders in government and business today are: A. held to higher ethical standards than in the past. B. held to less strict moral standards than in the past. C. less interested in social responsibility than in the past. D. at odds with the general public in regard to ethical issues.

answer

held to higher ethical standards than the past

question

Issues of social responsibility and ethical behaviour are: A. the result of greed found in capitalist countries. B. found primarily in countries with a low standard of living. C. a concern only of business professors. D. found in many different countries.

answer

found in many different countries

question

All of the following are arguments in favor of social responsibility except A. businesses created many of the problems, so they should participate in finding solutions. B. businesses may lose their focus on profit-making. C. businesses that are socially responsible prevent more government regulation. D. the survival of a healthy economy depends on businesses being socially responsible. E. as members of society, businesses should do their fair share.

answer

Business may lose their focus on profit marking

question

Which of the following is NOT a reason why Great Britain and Europe, during the mid-to-late 1700's, began the shift from one of a largely agricultural-based dependent society to that of a market transitioning towards a production-based model: A. population growth B. increase in trade and inventiveness C. environmental stewardship D. growing emphasis on wealth creation E. mercantilism backed by the rise of business systems

answer

Environmental stewardship

question

What was a key factor in why Canadians use so much water, according to The Conference Board of Canada study? A. industrial usage B. agricultural usage C. a lack of water conservation practices D. deficient distribution system E. deficient water infrastructure system

answer

a lack of water conservation practices

question

Which of the following is NOT a goal of sustainable business strategy? A. design and redesign business processes B. allow for increased wealth and enhanced competitive advantage C. incorporate the principles of human mankind D. incorporate resource protection and sustainability for the future E. incorporate protection and respect for water resources

answer

incorporate protection and respect for water resources

question

According to statistics released by the Conference Board of Canada (2008), our country ranks 15th out of 16 (with 1 being the best) peer countries in terms of _________. A. environmental stewardship B. regulatory environmental compliance C. water conservation D. energy conservation E. deforestation

answer

Water conservation

question

Which of the following is NOT a successful economic development ratings that goes beyond production and consumption indices and include additional measures? A. protection of our biosphere B. sustainable use of global resources C. production-based productivity indexes D. energy conservation E. environmental restoration

answer

Production based productivity indexes

question

answer

A lack of water conversation practices

question

What is The United Nations' (U.N.) current estimate for the population growth of our planet in 2050? A. 25% B. 50% C. 30% D. 36% E. 40%

answer

36%

question

What is The United Nations' (U.N.) current estimate for the population of our planet in 2050? A. 6.8 billion B. 8.2 billion C. 9.2 billion D. 10.8 billion E. 15 billion

answer

9.2 billion

question

What percentage cuts to carbon-based emissions are needed to significantly reverse the downward spiral associated with climate change? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 10% E. 100%

answer

50%

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the five critical sustainability challenges? A. climate change B. pollution and health C. water depletion D. energy crunch E. resource depletion

answer

Water depletion

question

According to the World Health Organization (WHO), approximately how many people live in areas which do not have access to clean and safe drinking water? A. 3.1 billion B. 2.1 billion C. 1.1 billion D. 0.5 billion E. 3.6 billion

answer

1.1 billion

question

When working with international firms, Canadian businesses: A. tend to ignore the ethics of their international partners. B. expect socially responsible behaviour from their business partners. C. feel that their responsibility is limited to Canada. D. try to avoid judging our international business partners by Canadian standards.

answer

expect socially responsible behavior from their business partners

question

Which of the following is NOT a critical trading practice that global market participants must agree to in order to achieve environmental sustainability? A. pay for the social costs of environmental degradation B.support and accept pricing policies which reflect the full cost of expenses incurred in order to achieve environmental sustainability C block the ability of market players from obtaining and leveraging a competitive advantage as a result of . effortstoavoidenvironmentalcosts D. a), b) and c) E. None of the above

answer

D) a,b, and c

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the fundamental shifts in the thought process associated with waste according to The Resource Management model? A. resources are finite B. Waste disposal is an unavoidable cost C. resource efficiency can lead to lower overall costs in the long run D. Investments in reduce, reuse, recycle and recovery initiatives are yielding long-term cost savings E societal pressure, such as a company's waste reduction and waste prevention strategies, is becoming . closely linked to company image and brand reputation

answer

Waste disposal is an unavoidable cost

question

Emissions Management is focused on our ability, across the globe, to achieve a position of ________. A. phase out of hazardous inputs B. zero global emissions C. attacking pollution at the source D. cut carbon-based emissions E. environmental sustainability

answer

zero global emissions

question

Which of the following groups need NOT be involved to redefine the way in which we can achieve the required economic development which will result in an improvement in the standard of living for all global citizens while, at the same time, protect the planet which we call home? A. governments B. organizations C. businesses D. individuals E. None of the above

answer

E. none of the above

question

________ refers to the tactical shifts required within our business operations in order to maximize the efficiency of our resource utilization and minimize or eliminate the resulting current degradation to the planet which such operations bring. A. Environmental sustainability standards B. Eco-Efficiency management C. Environmental sustainability challenge D. Resource management E. Emissions management

answer

Eco-efficiency management

question

All else held equal, socially responsible firms: A. are viewed more favourably by consumers. B. enjoy significantly higher profits. C. often experience customer loyalty problems. D. fail to earn sufficient profits for their owners.

answer

Are viewed favorably by costumer

question

Determining what is involved for a firm to be socially responsible: A. is easy. B. varies even among those who are interested in corporate responsibility. C. helps government officials develop appropriate legislation. D. varies from industry to industry.

answer

Varies even among those who are interested in corporate responsibility

question

Corporate ___________ is the concern businesses have for the welfare of society. A. philanthropy B. responsibility C. policy D. social responsibility

answer

Social responsibility

question

In addressing social responsibility, managers must consider their firms' relations with A. employees. B. owners. C. customers. D. the community. E. all of the answers are correct.

answer

All of the answers are correct

question

Managers consider social responsibility A. on a weekly basis. B. on a daily basis. C. at annual planning meetings. D. during budget planning sessions. E. infrequently.

answer

On a daily basis

question

A business's responsibilities to its owners and investors include A. protecting the owners' rights and investments. B. maintaining proper accounting procedures. C. providing all relevant information about current and projected performance of the firm. D. maximizing their investment in the firm. E. all of the answers are correct.

answer

all of the answers are correct

question

___________, often driven by external groups and concerned citizens, has resulted in a greater awareness and understanding of the environmental challenge which we are now facing. A. Regulatory compliance B. Societal pressure C. Eco-management D. Environmental sustainability initiatives E. Environmental responsibilities

answer

Societal pressure

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the long-term benefits that results from the integration of environmental sustainability practices into an organization's A. Pricing power B. Enhanced efficiencies C. Stronger recruitment positioning D. Customer retention E. Stronger employee base

answer

Stronger recruitment position

question

The full emersion of environmental sustainability into the strategic planning process of an organization means integrating it throughout our _____, _______ and __________. A. principles; operations; environment B. culture; practices; processes C. management teams; operations; processes D. culture; operations; processes E. culture; operations; principles

answer

Culture, Operations, Process

question

___________ means that businesses need to see environmental sustainability as an integral part of value creation and that this creation includes sustaining and enhancing the resources which we depend on well into the future. A. Regulatory compliance B. Societal pressure C. Eco-management D. Environmental sustainability initiatives E. Strategic integration

answer

Strategic integration

question

For many businesses, environmental sustainability is focused which two short-term outcomes? A. Pricing power and Enhanced efficiencies B. Stronger recruitment positioning and Customer retention C. Stronger employee base and Strong environmental management D. New business options and Improved Corporate Image E. Improved Corporate Image and Regulatory Compliance

answer

Improved corporate image and regulatory compliance

STUDY

Bricks And Mortar Information Systems Mechanical Engineering Product Design Supply Chain

Multiple Choice DSCI 303 – Flashcards 85 terms

Maxim Beck

85 terms

Preview

Multiple Choice DSCI 303 – Flashcards

question

What are the two fundamental processes in all supply chains that are most affected by the Internet?

answer

B. Order fulfillment and order placement.

question

If a factory has 100,000 units of materials in the system and if the average flow rate of the system is 5000 units per day, then according to Little's Law, the average throughput time is:

answer

B. 20 days

question

The five measures of supply chain performance are:

answer

A. Cost, quality, flexibility, delivery, and time

question

The four major decision responsibilities of operations management are:

answer

D. Process, capacity, quality, and inventory

question

Which of the following is a way to improve the infrastructure in the supply chain?

answer

B. Setup time reduction

question

In the process view of business, which of the following should be identified when defining the system?

answer

A. Inter-connected processes across functional areas

question

An example of a prototype is:

answer

D. The original McDonald's restaurant

question

Analysis of the flow of information:

answer

C. Should always accompany an analysis of materials flow

question

A diamond symbol in a flowchart indicates:

answer

B. Decision

question

The first step in process flow analysis is:

answer

D. To select an appropriate transformation process for analysis

question

Which of the following is NOT a form of structural change of the supply chain?

answer

B. Creating cross-functional teams

question

The four decision areas in operations management are:

answer

B. Process, quality, capacity, and inventory

question

The master production schedule for Product A shows a need for 30 units, and Product B shows a need of 25 units. To manufacture a unit of Product A, three units of component C are required. To manufacture a unit of Product B, four units of component C are required. Determine the gross requirements for component C to complete production.

answer

B. 190.

question

The parts explosion results in the following outputs:

answer

C. Purchase orders and shop orders

question

Design for manufacturing involves:

answer

D. Both a and c

question

Which of the following is NOT true about supply chain dynamics?

answer

C. The best way to improve the supply chain is to increase the total replenishment time and to feed back actual demand information to all levels.

question

Which of the following is a form of infrastructure change?

answer

C. Changes in information systems

question

Quality Function Deployment includes which of the following: (1) relative importance of customer attributes, (2) tolerance stack-up, (3) a comparison to the competitor's product, (4) engineering characteristics, (5) customer perceptions, (6) customer attributes, (7) variation around a target, (8) value analysis.

answer

B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6

question

Materials handling, transportation, and warehousing are elements of:

answer

A. Logistics

question

Which of the following is NOT a prerequisite to process flowcharting?

answer

B. Identifying the manager overseeing the process

question

Which of the following statements about Little's Law is NOT include?

answer

A. Little's Law cannot be applied to service operations

question

The capacity of a process is determined by:

answer

A. The bottleneck

question

A replenishment-based system derives orders from:

answer

B. Forecast or customer request

question

Which of the following is NOT true of vertical integration?

answer

A. Leads to greater flexibility to changing technology.

question

Successful MRP implementation requires:

answer

C. Management support, accurate data, and adequate computer support

question

Which of the following statements is NOT true about process-flow analysis?

answer

C. Process flows must always be forward, and cannot 'loop back' to previous operations.

question

The design and management of seamless, value-added processes across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end customer is called:

answer

C. Supply chain management

question

A comprehensive decision-making framework for operations includes:

answer

A. Consideration of other organizational functions

question

Which of the following would NOT be changed due to process flow analysis?

answer

C. Job design

question

Capacity decisions:

answer

A. Include staffing and scheduling

question

Which of the following functions is responsible for the actual movement of goods and/or services across organizations?

answer

A. Logistics

question

The supply chain extends from:

answer

D. Supplier to customer

question

The gross requirements of a part in an MRP system are determined from:

answer

D. Planned order releases of the immediate parent item

question

Supply chain management includes all of the following except:

answer

C. Advertising

question

In MRP "scheduled receipts" are:

answer

D. Open orders not delivered yet

question

One step in process flow analysis is to describe the existing process. If a new system is being developed, (there is no existing system):

answer

A. This step is simply omitted

question

Why is operations management a more encompassing term than production management?

answer

B. Operations management refers to service as well as manufacturing organizations

question

The market-pull view of new product innovation is to:

answer

B. Develop products that the company can sell, based on customer needs

question

When marketing, engineering, and operations simultaneously develop a product, this approach is known as ________.

answer

C. Concurrent engineering

question

The contemporary operations themes signify that:

answer

B. Every operation should be externally directed to meet the customers' requirements

question

Planned lead times:

answer

A. Usually are longer than actual working times

question

The three major functions of business organizations:

answer

C. Interface with each other

question

Which of the following statements regarding business process reengineering (BPR) is NOT true?

answer

D. BPR is synonymous to the Total Quality Management approach of process improvement.

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the four principles of process redesign?

answer

D. Automate the remaining steps in the process

question

Which of the following is not a contemporary theme in operations?

answer

C. Quality Teams

question

Approximately, what percentage of the American workforce works in service industries?

answer

C. 80%

question

Which one of the following would not generally be classified as an input in a university system?

answer

D. Research

question

_______ system uses requirements order philosophy, while _____ system uses replenishment order philosophy.

answer

B. MRP, order point

question

In which phase of the new-product design process should considerations about tradeoffs among product cost, quality, and schedule be made?

answer

B. Product design

question

A numerically controlled machining center has an average processing capacity of 5000 units per day. It receives an average of 3000 units of inventory from another machining center and it has to supply an average of 1000 units of finished goods to the packaging section. Assuming that the company incurs a significant cost for carrying finished goods supplied to the packaging section, the flow rate of the machining process is:

answer

C. 1000 units per day

question

A Type II MRP system:

answer

B. Has feedback to control capacity

question

A restaurant offers a "customer's choice" sandwich for which the customer specifies the bread, meat, cheese and topping he or she wants. There are three types of bread, three types of meat, three types of cheese and four types of topping. How many different sandwiches can the restaurant make?

answer

C. 108

question

The three inputs for an MRP parts explosion are:

answer

A. Inventory, master schedule, and bill of materials

question

Which of the following is NOT a specific measure of supply chain performance?

answer

C. Innovation

question

The concept that a product should not only fit the market needs but have a technical advantage as well is known as the:

answer

C. Interfunctional view to new-product introduction

question

An MRP system is designed to deal with:

answer

A. Lumpy demand

question

Which of the following is NOT a type of e-procurement?

answer

D. B2B marketplaces

question

A requirements-based system derives orders from:

answer

D. Master schedule

question

Order placement via the Internet does NOT include:

answer

D. Use of an ERP system to schedule production

question

Which type of MRP system is used as an information system to plan and control inventories and capacities?

answer

B. Type II

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Which of the following is true about MRP Systems?

answer

D. Objective is to meet manufacturing needs

question

A productive systems approach:

answer

B. Must provide feedback information for control of process inputs and technology

question

The flow of materials from upstream nodes into a firm is called:

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A. Physical supply

question

All of the following help to handle uncertainty when operating an MRP system EXCEPT:

answer

D. Back-up suppliers

question

End item A requires three component parts: B, C, and D. The bill of materials indicates that for each completed A, one unit of B, 2 units of C, and 1 unit of D are required. Current inventory for the four items is as follows: There are 18 As, 40 Bs, 50 Cs and 35 Ds in stock. If the lead time for all items is one week and there are no scheduled receipts for any item, how many units of product A can be delivered to customers at the start of next week (week 2)?

answer

D. 43

question

The three primary functions that exist in most business organizations are:

answer

D. Operations, finance, and marketing

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Which of the following is not in the process category of the operations decision framework?

answer

D. Product or service inspection

question

The average cash-to-cash cycle is defined as:

answer

Days in inventory + Days in account receivable - Days in accounts payable

question

Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements in an MRP system?

answer

B. Gross requirements - (on-hand + scheduled receipts)

question

Bills of materials are kept current with changes using:

answer

B. Engineering change order systems

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Cycle counting:

answer

A. Is counting a fraction of inventory each day

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Quality Function Deployment:

answer

A. Links customer requirements to technical specifications

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Safety stock in an MRP system:

answer

B. Is used to provide flexibility to meet changing customer requirements

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Modular design involves:

answer

C. Dividing the products into their similar components

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The bill of materials:

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Is a list of all materials required to produce a part

question

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding supply chain operations?

answer

With perfect information at all levels of the supply chain, there will not be a bullwhip effect.

question

Which of the following is NOT part of the new-product development process?

answer

C. Development of the marketing strategy

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If I denotes the average inventory in the system, T denotes the average throughput time, and R denotes the average flow rate of the system, then by Little's Law:

answer

D. R = I/T

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Process design:

answer

D. Should occur at the same time as product design

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Three typical misalignments between product design and operations are:

answer

A. Technology, reward systems, and infrastructure

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The essence of operations management can be described by:

answer

B. Decisions, function, and process

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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of changes in structure?

answer

C. Lead to changes in information systems.

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Value analysis:

answer

C. Both a and b

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Which system specifies the output of the operations function?

answer

C. Master scheduling

question

What does a square or rectangle symbol indicate in a flowchart?

answer

A. Operation

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