Allergic Contact Dermatitis Flashcards, test questions and answers
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We've found 5 Allergic Contact Dermatitis tests
Allergic Contact Dermatitis
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Cosmetology-Licensing
Hands And Feet
Metaphysics
The Eye
Chapter 8: Skin Orders & Diseases – Flashcards 34 terms
34 terms
Preview
Chapter 8: Skin Orders & Diseases – Flashcards
question
Many scientists and dermatologists believe that extrinsic factors such as exposure to the sun or smoking are responsible for up to __________________ percent of skin aging. A. 50 B. 60 C. 75 D. 85
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D. 85
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It is recommended that you wear a broad spectrum sunscreen with an SPF of at least ________________ on a daily basis. A. 5 B. 8 C. 15 D. 30
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C. 15
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A _______________ is an abnormal, rounded, solid lump above, within, or under the skin that is larger than a papule. A. Tubercle B. Mole C. Macula D. Bulla
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A. Tubercle
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Which of these terms refers to thin, dry or oily plates of epidermal flakes? A. Fissures B. Keloids C. Pustules D. Scales
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D. Scales
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Benign, keratin filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and have no visible openings are ___________________. A. Milia B. Ulcers C. Crust D. Pustules
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A. Milia
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An open comedo is also known as __________________. A. Mole B. Birthmark C. Black head D. White head
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C. Black head
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Which of these is an inflammatory, uncomfortable and often chronic disease of the skin, characterized by moderate to severe inflammation, scaling and sometimes severe itching? A. Eczema B. Acne C. Psoriasis D. Herpes simplex
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A. Eczema
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A ______________ is an abnormal brown or wine colored skin discoloration with a circular or irregular shape. A. Mole B. Stain C. Cloasma D. Lentigo
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B. Stain
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The absence of melanin pigment in the body and skin sensitivity to light are signs of ___________________. A. Nevus B. Lentigness C. Asteatosis D. Albinism
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D. Albinism
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What is the most dangerous form of skin cancer, often characterized by black or brown patches on the skin that may appear uneven in texture, jagged or raised? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Malignant melanoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Verruca cell
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B. Malignant melanoma
question
A cosmetologist must not serve a client who is suffering from an inflamed skin disorder, regardless of whether it is infectious, unless the client ____________________. A. Needs a facial quickly for an important event such as a wedding B. Declares that he or she is practicing doctor prescribed home care C. Has a physicians note permitting the client to receive services D. Signs a waiver clearing the cosmetologist and the salon of liability
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C. Has a physcians note permitting the client to recieve services
question
A skin condition caused by an inflammation of the sebaceous glands that is often characterized by redness, dry or oily scaling, crusting and itchiness is ___________________. A. Contact dermatitis B. Irritant contact dermatitis C. Allergic contact dermatitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis
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D. Seborrheic dermatitis
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The term _________________ refers to a abnormal colorations than accompany skin disorders and are symptoms of many systemic disorders. A. Anhidrosis B. Bromhidrosis C. Dyschromias D. Conjunctivitis
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C. Dyschromias
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A _________________ is a type of keratoma. A. Callus B. Keloid C. Lesion D. Excoriation
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A. Callus
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Acne is a skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the ________________ glands. A. Sudoriferous B. Sebaceous C. Sweat D. Adrenaline
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B. Sebaceous
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A predisposition to acne is based on hereditary and _________________. A. Diet B. Age C. Use of noncomedogenic makeup D. Hormones
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D. Hormones
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Noncomedogenic products are specifically designed and proven not to clog the ___________________. A. Bullas B. Dyschromias C. Follicles D. Sebaceous glands
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C. Follicles
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People have _________________ over the intrinsic factors that affect skin aging. A. No control B. Little control C. Considerable control D. Total control
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B. Little control
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The best defense against pollutants is to __________________. A. Wear sunscreen whenever you are outside B. Avoid touching your face with your hands C. Follow a good daily skin care routine D. Wear long sleeved clothing when you are outdoors
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C. Follow a good daily skin care routine
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Irritant contact dermatitis occurs when irritating substances temporarily damage the _________________. A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Papillary layer D. Hair follicles
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B. Epidermis
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A pustule is a raised, inflamed papule with a white or yellow center containing ___________________ in the top of the lesion. A. Water B. Blood C. Pus D. Lymph
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C. Pus
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A ________________ is a large, protruding pocket like lesion filled with sebum. A. Closed comedo B. Sebaceous cyst C. Bulla D. Miliaria rubra
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B. Sebaceous cyst
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A flat spot or discoloration on the skin, also known as a "liver" spot, is a ___________________. A. Macule B. Leukoderma C. Milia D. Scale
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A. Macule
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Foul smelling perspiration, usually noticeable in the armpits or on the feet, that generally caused by bacteria is ___________________. A. Hyperhidrosis B. Miliaria rubra C. Anhidrosis D. Bromhidrosis
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D. Bromhidrosis
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A _____________________ is a slightly raised mark on the skin formed after an injury or lesion of the skin has healed. A. Mole B. Scar C. Scale D. Stain
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B. Scar
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A contagious bacterial skin infection characterized by weeping lesions is _____________________. A. Impetigo B. Conjunctivitis C. Eczema D. Herpes simplex
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A. Impetigo
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A ___________________ is an itchy, swollen lesion that lasts only a few hours. A. Wheal B. Vesicle C. Verruca D. Tubercle
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A. Wheal
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A ____________________ is a crack in the skin that penetrates the dermis. A. Ulcer B. Fissure C. Excoriation D. Crust
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B. Fissure
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A small blister or sac containing clear fluid, lying within or just beneath the epidermis is a ________________. A. A tubercle B. A macule C. A cyst D. A bulla
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D. A bulla
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In the ABCDE Cancer Checklist established by the American Cancer Society, what does the C stand for? A. Crust B. Color C. Caliber D. Circumference
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B. Color
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When bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, it is known as _____________________. A. Anaerobic B. Anesthetic C. Hyperkinetic D. Aerobic
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A. Anaerobic
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UVA rays, also known as ____________________, are deep penetrating rays that can even go through a glass window. A. Enhancing B. Tanning rays C. Aging rays D. Burning rays
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C. Aging rays
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An allergic reaction creates by repeated by exposure to a chemical or a substance is known as ______________________. A. Contact irritation B. Sensitization C. Non contact irritation D. Irritant contact dermatitis
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B. Sensitize
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An acute inflammatory disorder of the sweet glands, characterized by the eruption of small, red vesicles and accompanied by burning, itching skin is __________________. A. Hyperhidrosis B. Milaria rubra C. Anhidrosis D. Bromhidrosia
answer
B. Miliaria rubra
Abo Blood Group Antigens
Allergic Contact Dermatitis
Basophils And Mast Cells
Immunology
Microbiology
Microbiology For Health Sciences
South And Southeast Asia
Exam 6 Part 2 – Flashcards 37 terms
37 terms
Preview
Exam 6 Part 2 – Flashcards
question
It occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time
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All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT...
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Found in basophils and mast cells
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The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are...
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Bone Marrow Transplant
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Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)
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CTLs and activated macrophages
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A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with...
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Complement fixation
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The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to...
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Complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints
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Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of...
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Sensitized T cells
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Allergic contact dermatitis is due to...
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gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor
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Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on...
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They can detect antibodies but not antigens
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All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT...
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Antigen
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The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of...
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They involve helper T cells
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Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?
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Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example
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Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?
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It is used to treat some breast cancer patients
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All of the following are false regarding Herceptin EXCEPT...
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Immunotherapy
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Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin?
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Vaccines are not effective against viral infections
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All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccination has not been developed EXCEPT
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They express MHC II antigens
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Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is FALSE?
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Endothelial cells are damaged
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In immune complex reaction shown in the figure, what is the end result of the reaction?
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T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
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HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on
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Attenuated vaccine
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Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?
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Destruction of viral ribosomes
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Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
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Measuring viral RNA
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During asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by...
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IgE antibodies
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Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with...
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They include any tissue transplanted from a pig
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All of the following regarding "privileged sites" are true EXCEPT
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Transplant rejections
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All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT
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Drug binds to platelets
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All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first?
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Autoimmune diseases
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Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT
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Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens
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Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
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Cytokines
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Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to...
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IgG
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Which type of response does the process of desensitization produce?
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Trypan blue enters the cells
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The following events occur if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue. What step indicates the cells are HLA-I?
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Immune complex autoimmunity
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In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of...
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Phase 3
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The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?
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Lymphadenopathy
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The initial symptom of HIV infection is
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True
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True or False: Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV.
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False
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True or False: Vaccines against HIV have proven to be very effective in halting the spread of disease.
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False
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True or False: All hypersensitivities involve antibody-antigen reactions.
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True
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True or False: HIV is a retrovirus with single-stranded RNA.
Allergic Contact Dermatitis
Biology
Immunology
Mast Cells And Basophils
Microbiology
Microbiology For Health Sciences
Chapter 19 Micro hw – Flashcards 63 terms
63 terms
Preview
Chapter 19 Micro hw – Flashcards
question
Which of the following does histamine NOT directly cause? smooth muscle contraction anaphylactic shock vasodilation increased vascular permeability
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anaphylactic shock
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Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen? dust mites peanuts pollen hay fever
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hay fever
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A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________. localized; urticaria systemic; urticaria localized; asthma localized; anaphylaxis
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localized; urticaria
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When the wasps stung Sally, the injection of venom initiated a type I hypersensitivity reaction called anaphylaxis. Which of the following best describes a hypersensitivity reaction? an immune response characterized by an overproduction of T cytotoxic cells a hyperactive immune response generated upon initial exposure to antigen an immune response that results in an overproduction of IgG a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity
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reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity
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Which of the following mediators are involved in anaphylactic reactions? Select all that apply. mast cells B cells IgE T cells IgM basophils
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Mast cells IgE Basophils
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The hives that Sally is experiencing are a result of an anaphylactic reaction. This is a multistep reaction resulting from the interaction of the wasp venom and Sally's immune system. Each of the statements below is a step in the anaphylactic response. Arrange the following statements in the order that best represents the chronological order of events in generating an anaphylactic reaction.
answer
1.IgE molecules bind to mast cells and basophils. 2. Antigen molecules cross-link adjacent IgE molecules. 3. Degranulation occurs. 4. Chemical mediators such as histamine are released. 5. Capillary permeability and smooth muscle contractions increase. 6. Neutrophils and eosinophils move to the site.
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Which of the following is true regarding systemic anaphylactic reactions? Select all that apply. - Systemic reactions are commonly associated with antigens that are ingested or inhaled. - Systemic reactions can result in a dramatic decrease in blood pressure. - Systemic reactions are commonly associated with injected antigens. - A systemic reaction can be fatal in only a few minutes. - Systemic reactions can be treated only with an injection of epinephrine. - Systemic reactions always involve the respiratory system.
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- Systemic reactions can result in a dramatic decrease in blood pressure. - Systemic reactions are commonly associated with injected antigens. - A systemic reaction can be fatal in only a few minutes.
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Predict which of the following outcomes would result from taking an antihistamine. Select all that apply. - decreased contraction of respiratory smooth muscles - decreased stimulation of mast cells - decreased histamine-based stimulation of cells - increased breakdown of the histamine molecule - decreased permeability of blood vessels - decreased mucus secretions
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- decreased histamine-based stimulation of cells - decreased permeability of blood vessels - decreased mucus secretions
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Sally decides to go through the desensitization program recommended by her doctor. What is the overall purpose/goal of this process? During the desensitization process, the number of wasp venom-reactive mast cells will decrease. The process will eliminate all of the wasp venom-specific IgE from Sally's body. Desensitization will decrease the overall sensitivity of Sally's immune responses, eliminating its hyperactivity. Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system.
answer
repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by sally's immune system
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The IgG molecules that are produced during desensitization function as blocking antibodies. These antibodies are extremely effective in providing protection from a hypersensitivity reaction. Why are blocking IgG antibodies so effective at protecting Sally from another anaphylactic response to wasp venom? The IgG molecules bind to mast cells and prevent IgE molecules from binding, thereby preventing degranulation. The IgG antibodies bind to the circulating IgE and block their binding to the mast cells. The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind. The IgG molecules bind to the mast cells; but when wasp venom binds, IgG blocks degranulation.
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The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind.
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Terry is a Physician Assistant. She is working under the supervision of Dr. Elizabeth Carroll. Terry trusts Dr. Carroll and knows she is an extremely competent and compassionate doctor. They have been a team for about two years, and it works out perfectly because Terry is a morning person and Dr. Carroll is not. Unless there is a difficult case, Terry makes all the early morning rounds of Dr. Carroll's patients at the two local hospitals, and then goes home for an early lunch with her kindergartner son. Later, she sees non-critical care patients at Dr. Carroll's office for a few hours. Unless there is a seriously ill patient, Dr. Carroll will start work a little later in the morning and end her day with the evening rounds at the hospital. This morning, Terry is checking in on a new patient, Mr. Lane, at St. John's Hospital. Mr. Lane has a history of acute myeloid leukemia (AML), and Dr. Carroll admitted him yesterday. According to the chart, Mr. Lane had a blood transfusion yesterday afternoon. Dr. Carroll noted on the chart that Mr. Lane was doing well at 7:00 p.m. However, she noted Mr. Lane may need an additional unit of blood if his blood oxygen values did not return to normal ranges soon. The chart indicates that Mr. Lane had just started receiving an additional unit. Terry enters the room and finds Mr. Lane experiencing chills and shortness of breath. Terry quickly takes the patient's vital signs. She notes that Mr. Lane's heart rate is high, his blood pressure low, and he has a fever. Mr. Lane is alert and complaining that he feels horrible. Terry talks to the floor nurse and finds that she has already stopped the transfusion and alerted the charge nurse, the doctor on call, and Dr. Carroll. The patient is most likely experiencing __________. Select the correct answer an autoimmune disease a type I hypersensitivity an immunodeficiency disease a transfusion reaction
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a tranfusion reaction
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Select the correct answer. True False If an anti-A serum is shown in this agglutination test, then the patient's blood contains A antigens.
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true
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t/f If an anti-A serum is shown in this agglutination test, then the patient's blood type must be A.
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false
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Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of IgD and IgE complexes in joints. IgG and IgA complexes in joints. IgA antibodies in joints. complement in joints. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
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complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints
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Assuming Rh compatibility is present, individuals with which of the following blood types would be able to receive donor blood from any of the four blood types (A, B, AB, and O)? AB A O B
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AB
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Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible? autograft xenotransplant allograft isograft All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.
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xenotranplant
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Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause immunotherapy. autoimmunity. immunosuppression. immunologic surveillance. immunologic enhancement.
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immunesuppression
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All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT they do not have lymphatic vessels. they include corneal and brain tissue. they are rarely rejected. they include any tissue transplanted from a pig. they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus
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they include any tissue transplanted from a pig
question
A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with tumor-specific antigens. CD+ T cells. CTLs and activated macrophages. CTLs. activated macrophages.
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CTLs and activated macrophages
question
Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor. CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor. gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.
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p120 combining with the CD4+ receptor
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Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is intravenous drug use. homosexual intercourse. heterosexual intercourse. blood transfusions. nosocomial.
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heterosexual intercourse
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Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT blockage of viral attachment. termination of viral DNA. inhibition of viral proteases. prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. destruction of viral ribosomes.
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destruction of viral ribosomes
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HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. True False
answer
true
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All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT it is synonymous with "allergy." it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time. it occurs in the presence of an antigen. it is due to an altered immune response. it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
answer
it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time
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The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are antigens. found in basophils and mast cells. antigen-antibody complexes. the proteins of the complement system. antibodies.
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found in basophils and mast cells
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Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? immunodeficiency shock hives hay fever asthma
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shock
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Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? anti-A anti-A, anti-Rh anti-B, anti-Rh anti-B anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
answer
anti-A
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When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood lacks HLA and MHC antigens. will lack A and B red blood cell antigens. will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens. has O type antigens on their red blood cells. will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.
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will lack A and Bred blood cell antigens
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A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of psoriasis. innate immunity. delayed cell-mediated immunity. acute contact dermatitis. autoimmunity.
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delayed cell-mediated immunity
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The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to antibodies against self. phagocytosis. destruction of the antigen. complement activation. cytokines.
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complement activation
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Allergic contact dermatitis is due to sensitized T cells. activated macrophages. IgG antibodies. IgE antibodies. IgM antibodies.
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sensitized T cells
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The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of antigen. antihistamine. RhoGAM. IgG. IgE.
answer
antigen
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Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE? The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen. They involve helper T cells. The symptoms are due to histamine. Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. They involve IgE antibodies.
answer
they involve helper T cells
question
Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE? Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation. Reactions are not apparent for a day or more. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example. Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
answer
hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example
question
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus. Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus. Rh- mother and an A fetus. AB mother with an O fetus. AB mother with a B fetus.
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Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus
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In immune complex reaction shown in the figure, what is the small, circular/spherical structure labeled "a"? antigen complement antibody neutrophil mast cell
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antigen
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In immune complex reaction shown in the figure, what is the end result of the reaction? Complement is activated. Endothelial cells are damaged. IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens. Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes. Antibodies destroy neutrophils.
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endothelial cells are damaged
question
Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with macrophages. IgE antibodies. histamine. IgG antibodies. complement.
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IgE antibodies
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All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT transplant rejections. asthma. penicillin allergic reactions. dust allergies. pollen allergies.
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Transplant rejections
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All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first? Drug binds to platelets. Antibodies against haptens are formed. Purpura occurs on the skin. Platelets are destroyed. Antibodies and complement react with platelets
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drug binds to platelets
question
Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to IgG antibodies. antigens. cytokines. neutrophils. IgE antibodies.
answer
cytokines
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Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies. True False
answer
false
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Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? Immune complexes form. Antibodies are not made. Cells are killed. Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens. Mediate by T cells.
answer
antibodies react to cell-surface antigens
question
Which of the following is FALSE concerning type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions? IgE binds to mast cells or basophils. Macrophage activity may lead to additional cellular damage. They are responsible for transfusion reactions. IgM and IgG antibodies bind to antigens on foreign cells.
answer
IgE binds to mast cells or basophils
question
Which type of hypersensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis? type I reaction type II reaction type III reaction type IV reaction
answer
type IV reaction
question
Which of the following is true concerning systemic anaphylaxis? Systemic anaphylaxis frequently occurs as a result of exposure to inhaled allergens. Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators. Anaphylactic shock results from an increase in blood pressure, which is caused by blood vessel constriction. Asthma is a type of systemic anaphylaxis.
answer
Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators.
question
Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n) bone marrow transplant. Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. skin graft. corneal transplant. blood transfusion.
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bone marrow transplant
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All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes. they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation. they can be used to diagnose various diseases. they can detect antibodies but not antigens. reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.
answer
they can detect antibodies but not antigens
question
Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE? They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns. They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development. They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development. They express no MHC II antigens. They are pluripotent.
answer
they are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development
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All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells. True False
answer
false
question
Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin? immunotherapy immunosuppression immunologic enhancement immune complex immunologic surveillance
answer
immune therapy
question
Which of the following best describes graft-versus-host disease? The cells of a host reject transplanted bone marrow. Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host. A tissue transplant is rejected because the host's T cytotoxic cells are activated and kill the transplanted tissue. Immune cells attack transplanted tissue in a privileged site.
answer
immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host
question
Which of the following is a xenotransplantation product? transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her twin sister the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her older brother transplantation of tissue from one area on a person's body to another
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the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve
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Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the body's defenses. True False
answer
true
question
HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on T helper cells. macrophages. dendritic cells. T helper cells and macrophages. T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
answer
T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
question
Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? Infection may initially be asymptomatic. The disease does not progress to AIDS. There may be persistent yeast infections. Virions may remain latent. All of the answers are correct.
answer
all
question
During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by the Western blot test. counting CD4+ T cells. counting CD8+ T cells. detecting viral RNA. detecting antibodies against HIV.
answer
detecting viral RNA.
question
HIV can evade host antibodies by virions remaining latent in vacuoles. remaining an inactive provirus. remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles. lowering the CD4+ cell count. causing cell-to-cell fusion.
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remaining an inactive proves, causing cell to cell fusion, and visions remaining latent in vacuoles
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The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection? phase 2 initial phase phase 1 phase 3 asymptomatic phase
answer
phase 3
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Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV. True False
answer
True
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Which statement regarding the infectiveness and pathogenicity of HIV is FALSE? Some cells that do not carry the CD4 molecule can become infected with HIV. During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses. Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on the glycoprotein spike (gp120) combining with the CD4+ receptor. The ability of the HIV to remain as a provirus shelters it from the immune system.
answer
During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses
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HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa. True False
answer
true
question
The hives that Sally is experiencing are a result of an anaphylactic reaction. This is a multistep reaction resulting from the interaction of the wasp venom and Sally's immune system. Each of the statements below is a step in the anaphylactic response. Arrange the following statements in the order that best represents the chronological order of events in generating an anaphylactic reaction.
answer
Advanced Health Assessment
Allergic Contact Dermatitis
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal Cell Carcinomas
Dermatology
Gram Positive Cocci In Clusters
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin
Scribe Dermatology Terms UTHSCSA – Flashcards 67 terms
67 terms
Preview
Scribe Dermatology Terms UTHSCSA – Flashcards
question
Macules
answer
FLAT, distinct, discolored area of skin that is usually less than 1 cent wide. It usually does not include change in skin texture of thickness.
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Papule
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solid or cystic RAISED spot on the skin that is less than one cent wide. Papules may be acuminate (pointed), dome-shaped, filifrom (thread-like), flat topped, oval or round, pedunculated (with a stalk), sessile (without a stalk), umbilicated (with a central depression), or verrucus (warty)
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Pedunculated vs. sessile
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Pedunculated = with a stalk, Sessile = without a stalk
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Nodule
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raised solid lesion MORE than 1 cm and may be in the epidermis, dermis, or subcutaneous
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Vesicle
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raised lesions LESS than 1 cm in diameter that are filled with clear fluid
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Bullae
answer
circumscribed fluid-filled lesions that are MORE than 1 cm in diameter
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Pustule
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circumscribed elevated lesions that contain pus. They are most commonly infected (as in folliculitis) by may be sterile (as in pustular psoriasis)
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Talengiectsia
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permanent dilatation of superficial blood vessels in the skin and may occur as isolated phenomena or as a part of a generalized disorder, such as Ataxia Telangiectsia
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Cyst
answer
papule or nodule that contains fluid so is fluctant
question
Abscess
answer
localized collection of pus
question
Scale (secondary lesion)
answer
flakes or plates that represent compacted desquamated layers of stratus corneum. Desquamation occurs when there are peeling sheets of scale following acute injury to the skin.
question
Crust (secondary lesion)
answer
result of the drying of plasma or exudate on the skin. Remember that crusting is different from scaling. The two terms refer to different phenomena and are NOT INTERCHANGEABLE. One can usually be distinguished from the other by appearance alone.
question
Atrophy (secondary lesion)
answer
thinning or absence of the epidermis or subcutaneous fat
question
Lichenification (secondary lesion)
answer
thickening of the epidermis seen with exaggeration of normal skin lines. It is usually due to chronic rubbing or scratching of an area
question
Erosion (secondary lesion)
answer
slightly depressed areas in which part or all of the epidermis has been lost
question
Fissure (secondary lesion)
answer
linear cleavage of skin which extends into the dermis
question
Ulceration (secondary lesion)
answer
necrosis of the epidermis and dermis and sometimes of the underlying subcutaneous tissue
question
Eschar (secondary lesion)
answer
hard, usually darkened, plaque convering an ulcer implying extensive tissue necrosis, infarcts or gangrene
question
keloid (secondary lesion)
answer
exagerated connective tissue response of injured skin that extend beyond the edges of the original wound. Type of scar that is firm, rubbery lesions or shiny, fibrous nodules, and can vary from pink to the color of the patient's flesh or red to dark brown.
question
Petechiae and papura (secondary lesion)
answer
refers to bleeding that occurs in the skin, petechiae usually refers to smaller lesions, while papura and ecchymoses are terms that refer to larger lesions. None of these blanch when pressed.
question
Granuloma (secondary lesion)
answer
histological term referring to chronic inflammation in which there are several types of inflammatory cells, including giant cells. Granulomas form in response to foreign bodies, certain infections (tuberculosis, leprosy) and inflammatory skin diseases (granuloma annulare, granuloma faciale, sarcoidosis)
question
Annular
answer
lesions that are seen in a ring shape
question
Confluent
answer
lesions that tend to run together
question
Guttate
answer
lesions that looks as though someone took a dropper and dropped this lesion on the skin. Characteristic of psoriasis
question
Multiform
answer
lesions that occur in a variety of shapes
question
Univesalis
answer
widespread disorder that affects the entire skin
question
Morbiliform
answer
rash that looks like measles. Patients with measles will have the rash but patients with Kawasaki disease, drug rxn, or other conditions may also present with this. The rash consists of macular lesions that are red and are usually 2-10 mm in diameter but may be confluent in places.
question
Consistency may be described as....
answer
soft, firm, hard, fluctuant or sclerosed
question
Verruca
answer
a wart, may present on skin or mucus membrane
question
Pruritis
answer
severe itching of the skin
question
Ephelids
answer
freckles, which are concentrations of melanized cells
question
Solar lentigo/Ink spot lentigo
answer
harmless patch of darkened skin which results from UV exposure that causes proliferation of melanocytes. These are common in people over the age of 40 years. "Age spots"
question
Globules
answer
large dots that represent localized pigment
question
Heberdon's nodes
answer
hard or bony swellings that can develop in the distal interphalangeal joints (DIP). They are a sign of osteoarthritis and are caused by formation of osteophytes of the articular cartilage in response to repeated trauma of the joint.
question
Leukonychia
answer
white nails or milk spots that appear due to white discoloration from injury to the base of the nail
question
Nevus
answer
a mole, benign by deffinition
question
Impetigo
answer
caused by strep or staph strain bacteria. Impetigo is caused when there is a break in the skin and the bacteria that already exist on the skin, enter the body and grow. Breaks in the skin may occur from injury or trauma to the skin or from insect, animal or human bites.
question
Impetiginized
answer
impetigo in addition to an underlying dermatological condition
question
Violaceous
answer
of violet color
question
Angioma
answer
common skin growths that can grow on most areas of the body
question
Hypomelanosis
answer
a rare condition characterized by areas of the body that lack skin color and can present as patches, steaks, or spiral-shaped (whorled) areas.
question
Acneiform eruption
answer
these are dermatosus that resemble acne vulgaris. Lesions may be papulopustular, nodular or cystic. They are follicular eruptions characterized by papules and pustules resembling acne
question
Urticaria
answer
hives
question
Malar
answer
relating to the zygomatic bone or the cheek
question
Alar crease
answer
side wall creases of the nose
question
Canthus
answer
outer or inner corner of the eye, where the upper and lower lids meet
question
Electrodessication and Curretage (ED&C)
answer
scraping or burning off skin growths, this can be used for LESS SERIOUS skin cancers, pre-cancers and benign growths. A local anesthetic is injected, and then the abnormal tissue is scraped off with a special tool. The area is then cauterized until bleeding stops
question
Shave biopsy
answer
slices a surface growth off using a blade. A "curette" does a similar task with a special scraping tool. Often performed to remove a small growth and confirm its nature at the same time.
question
Punch biopsy
answer
typically used by dermatologists to sample skin rashes and small growths. After a local anesthetic is injected, a biopsy punch is used to cut out a cylindrical piece of skin. The hole may be closed with a suture and heals with minimal scarring.
question
UVB Phototherapy
answer
tx for skin eruptions using artificial UV light
question
Intralesional Injections
answer
Direct placement of a medication into a problem skin area through a very fine needle. Most often, a dilute solution of triamcinalone (Kenalog) is used. Acne cysts, psoriasis and chronic forms of eczema are treated this way. If too much medication is used, a white spot or dent develops, but usually goes away.
question
Pared and Cryo'd
answer
pared means to trim or cut away its outer edges. Cryo'd is short for something that has endured cryotherapy. Most commonly used to treat a number of disease and disorders, most especially skin conditions like warts, moles, skin tags and solar keratoses.
question
Squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCCis)
answer
refers to stage 0 squamous cell carcinoma, cancer discovered in this stage is ONLY PRESENT in the epidermis and has not spread deeper to the dermis.
question
Pitting edema
answer
this is observable swelling of body tissues due to fluid accumulation that may be demonstrated by applying pressure to the swollen area. If the pressing causes and indentation that persists for some time after the release of the pressure, the edema is referred to as pitting.
question
Stasis dermatitis
answer
A condition that develops in people who have poor circulation. This is most common in the lower legs because leg veins have one-way valves. As people age, these valves can weaken and stop working properly. Some blood can leak out and pool in the legs.
question
Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)
answer
Most common form of skin cancer; caused by unprotected exposure to UV rays. Often small, dome-shaped, pimple-like growth that has pearly color. Blood vessels may be seen on the surface.
question
Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma
answer
This occurs when malignant T cells are attracted to the skin and can appear anywhere on the body surface. Can present as a rash or thick lesion depending on severity
question
Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)
answer
2nd most common type of cancer (nonmelanoma); usually presents as red crusted or scaly patch on the skin, a nonhealing ulcer, or a firm red nodule
question
Actinic Keratosis (AK)
answer
Common skin lesions caused by years of UV exposure; also referred to as "sun spots"; considered the earliest stage in the development of skin cancer
question
Alopecia Areata (AA)
answer
Causes hair loss in small, round patches that may go away on their own, or last for years. 5% with AA may lose all scalp hair (alopecia totalis) and body hair (alopecia universalis); caused by autoimmune rxn with attacks hair roots
question
Melasma
answer
Skin discoloration that appears dark, irregular-shaped patches with well-defined edges.
question
Eczema/Atopic Dermititis
answer
Common condition described as the "itch that rashes"; scratching often leads to redness, swelling, cracking, "weeping" of clear fluid, crusting and scaling of the skin. 10-20% of children and 1-2% of adults develop this condition
question
16 types of common benign growths
answer
dermatofibroma prurigo nodularis keratoacanthoma pyogenic granuloma cysts (epidermoid and pilar) milia sebaceous gland hyperplasia digital mucinous pseudocyst lipoma xanthelasma skin tag syringoma neurofibroma cherry angioma seborrheic nevus (mole)
question
Rosacea
answer
Common skin condition that develops in people of all races; often small, red, pus-filled bumps on the face. Most commonly affects middle-aged women with fair skin. Key symptoms: facial redness, swollen red bumps and visible blood vessels
question
Psoriasis/ Psoriatic Arthritis
answer
A chronic condition that develops when the immune system causes hyperproliferation of skin cells. Typically, new skin cells form over several weeks but in psoriasis pts the skin cells form in days
question
Seborrheic Keratosis (SK)
answer
Common, benign skin growth; Can occur almost anywhere on skin; often associated with older age and can be easily mistaken for other common skin growth such as warts or nevus
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis
answer
Common skin disease that causes a red, itchy rash with scales; most often affects the scalp, sides of the nose, eyebrows, ears, eyelids and middle of the chest. Chronic condition but easily treated
Allergic Contact Dermatitis
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Dermatology
Microbiology
Microbiology For Health Sciences
Derm Pics (Fitzpatrick’s 6/7th ed & Bates) – Flashcards 289 terms
289 terms
Preview
Derm Pics (Fitzpatrick’s 6/7th ed & Bates) – Flashcards
question
Impetigo (BViral PP5)
answer
Identify
question
Impetigo (BViral PP6)
answer
Identify
question
Impetigo (BViral PP6)
answer
Identify
question
Streptococcal Pyoderma (ecthyma) (BViral PP7)
answer
Identify
question
Impetigo (BViral PP8)
answer
Identify
question
Impetigo (BViral PP 9)
answer
Identify
question
Bullous Impetigo (BViral PP11)
answer
Identify
question
Bullous Impetigo (BViral PP12)
answer
Identify
question
Bullous Impetigo (BViral PP12a)
answer
Identify
question
Bullous Impetigo blistering dactylitis (BViral PP13)
answer
Identify
question
Scalded Skin Syndrome (BViral PP15)
answer
Identify
question
Scalded Skin Syndrome (BViral PP16)
answer
Identify
question
Scalded Skin Syndrome (BViral PP16)
answer
Identify
question
Folliculitis (BViral PP18)
answer
Identify
question
Folliculitis (BViral PP18)
answer
Identify
question
Furuncle (BViral PP20)
answer
Identify
question
Furuncle (BViral PP21)
answer
Identify
question
Furuncle (BViral PP21)
answer
Identify
question
Abscess (BViral PP22)
answer
Identify
question
Multiple furuncles (BViral PP23)
answer
Identify
question
Carbuncle (BViral PP24)
answer
Identify
question
Cellulitis (BViral PP28)
answer
Identify
question
Cellulitis Traditionally, simple cellulitis not requiring hospital admission has most commonly been treated with a penicillinase-resistant penicillin (e.g., dicloxacillin), or an oral cephalosporin (e.g., cephalexin) (see Box 178-2). Cephalexin Dicloxacillin (Fitzpatricks 8e Box 178-2; BViral PP29)
answer
How is this out patient condition treated
question
Cellulitis (BViral PP29)
answer
Identify
question
Cellulitis Legend: Surgical excision wound infection: MSSA Surgical wound became painful and tender 7 days after excision of squamous cell carcinoma; soft tissue (cellulitis) is seen adjacent to the wound margin. Necrotic tissue is seen in the base (BViral PP30)
answer
Identify
question
Acute lymphangitis of forearm - Cellulitis Acute lymphangitis of forearm: S. aureus A small area of the cellulitis on the volar wrist with a tender linear streak extending proximally up the arm; the infection spreads from the portal of entry within the superficial lymphatic vessels (BViral PP31)
answer
Identify
question
Cellulitis 1st drug of choice: Ampicillin/sulbactam Ticarcillin/clavulanate Piperacillin/tazobactam Imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem Alternative: Vancomycin Clindamycin Linezolid (Fitzpatricks 8e Box 178-2; BViral PP32)
answer
How are hospitalized patients with this condition treated?
question
Cellulitis Refractory, high likelihood of MRSA infection: Vancomycin Linezolid (Fitzpatricks 8e Box 178-2; BViral PP32)
answer
How are patients with this condition and with a high likelihood of MRSA treated?
question
Cellulitis (BViral PP32)
answer
Identify
question
Erysipelas Penicillin Va Intramuscular procaine penicillin Amoxicillin Vancomycin (Fitzpatricks 8e Box 178-2; BViral PP35)
answer
Treatment for this condition
question
Erysipelas Penicillin Va Intramuscular procaine penicillin Amoxicillin Vancomycin (Fitzpatricks 8e Box 178-2; BViral PP35)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Infectious Intertrigo (BViral PP35)
answer
Identify
question
Infectious Intertrigo (BViral PP35)
answer
Identify
question
Infectious Intertrigo Legend: Intergluteal intertrigo: group A streptococcus A painful moist erythematous plaque in a male with intertriginous psoriasis, with foul odor. Infection resolved with penicillin VK. (BViral Lecture PP38)
answer
Identify
question
Erythrasma (BViral Lecture PP40)
answer
Identify
question
Necrotizing Fasciitis Short of open exploration, no test is specific for necrotizing infection, but several laboratory, microbiologic, histopathologic, and imaging studies have been shown to be useful in differentiating bacterial necrotizing SSTI from non-necrotizing infections or noninfectious causes of soft-tissue necrosis (see Box 179-1) (Fitzpatricks 8e CH 179; BViral Lecture PP41)
answer
How is this condition diagnosed
question
Atopic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP20)
answer
What condition has this distribution pattern?
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP22;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP22;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP23;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Legend: Childhood atopic dermatitis A typical localization of atopic dermatitis in children is the region around the mouth. **In this child, there is lichenification and fissuring and crusting. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP23)
answer
What unique feature** is identifiable in this condition?
question
Infant Atopic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP 24)
answer
Identify
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP25;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP25;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP26;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Atopic Dermatitis is treated with: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP27;28)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Dyshidrosis is treated with: Burrows solution (Domeboro) Topical high potency steroids Antibiotic Tx for infection Systemic steriods Intralesional Triamcinolone (Marlin D&E Lecture PP49;53)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Dyshidrosis is treated with: Burrows solution (Domeboro) Topical high potency steroids Antibiotic Tx for infection Systemic steriods Intralesional Triamcinolone (Marlin D&E Lecture PP50;53)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Dyshidrosis is treated with: Burrows solution (Domeboro) Topical high potency steroids Antibiotic Tx for infection Systemic steriods Intralesional Triamcinolone (Marlin D&E Lecture PP50;53)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Dyshidrosis is treated with: Burrows solution (Domeboro) Topical high potency steroids Antibiotic Tx for infection Systemic steriods Intralesional Triamcinolone (Marlin D&E Lecture PP51;53)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Dyshidrosis is treated with: Burrows solution (Domeboro) Topical high potency steroids Antibiotic Tx for infection Systemic steriods Intralesional Triamcinolone (Marlin D&E Lecture PP52;53)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Lichen Simplex Chronicus Treatment: Interrupt the Scratch Itch cycle Topical steroids Intralesional Triamcinolone Antihistamines- particularly at night (Marlin D&E Lecture PP56;57)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Lichen Simplex Chronicus Treatment: Interrupt the Scratch Itch cycle Topical steroids Intralesional Triamcinolone Antihistamines- particularly at night (Marlin D&E Lecture PP56;58)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Lichen Simplex Chronicus Treatment: Interrupt the Scratch Itch cycle Topical steroids Intralesional Triamcinolone Antihistamines- particularly at night (Marlin D&E Lecture PP56;59)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Atopic Dermatitis: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP28; Bates pg 197)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Infected Atopic Dermatitis: Minimize skin irritation Soaps, clothing Lukewarm baths Corticosteroids-topical/oral Control pruritis-antihistamines Skin lubrication Treat 2dary bacterial infection Avoidance of food allergens Referral to Allergist (Marlin D&E Lecture PP28; Bates pg 197)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Autosensitization "id Reaction" Treatment with corticosteroids (Marlin D&E Lecture PP54;55)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Autosensitization "id Reaction" Caused by release of cytokines as a result of sensitization a primary site Lesions persist until primary problem resolved (Remember treatment: corticosteroids) (Marlin D&E Lecture PP54;55)
answer
Cause of condition? How is it resolved?
question
Lichen Simplex Chronicus Development of epidermal hyperplasia Secondary to physical trauma Skin becomes highly sensitive to touch (Marlin D&E Lecture PP56;57)
answer
What can this condition be secondary to and what cell condition is developed? Is the skin sensitive? If so to what? If not why?
question
Lichen Simplex Chronicus Development of epidermal hyperplasia; Secondary to physical trauma Skin becomes highly sensitive to touch (Marlin D&E Lecture PP56;57)
answer
What can this condition be secondary to and what cell condition is developed? Is the skin sensitive? If so, to what? If not why?
question
Lichen Simplex Chronicus Development of epidermal hyperplasia; Secondary to physical trauma Skin becomes highly sensitive to touch (Marlin D&E Lecture PP56;57)
answer
What can this condition be secondary to and what cell condition is developed? Is the skin sensitive? If so, to what? If not why?
question
Autosensitization "id Reaction" Corticosteroids Legend: Prednisone was given for 2 weeks; pruritus and vesiculation resolved.
answer
What can be Rx'd and for what duration?
question
Lesions maculopapular or papulovesicular. Legend: Autosensitization dermatitis ("id" reaction): Bullous (inflammatory) tinea pedis was present and was associated with dermatophytid reaction. Prednisone was given for 2 weeks; pruritus and vesiculation resolved. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP54;55)
answer
What is another name for this condition?
question
Autosensitization "id Reaction": Legend: Bullous (inflammatory) tinea pedis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP54;55)
answer
Describe the larger vesicle
question
Irritant Dermatitis Prevention of Irritant Dermatitis Removal of the irritant If exposed, wash with water or a neutralizing solution (Marlin D&E Lecture PP5;16)
answer
Identify
question
Irritant Contact Dermatitis Tx: topical or IM corticosteroids Prednisone-tapering dose Antihistamines Wet dressings-Domeboro Soothing baths- Aveeno Watch for 2ary bacterial ifxn (Marlin D&E Lecture PP6;16)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Irritant Contact Dermatitis Tx: topical or IM corticosteroids Prednisone-tapering dose Antihistamines Wet dressings-Domeboro Soothing baths- Aveeno Watch for 2ary bacterial ifxn (Marlin D&E Lecture PP7;16)
answer
What is the treatment for this condition?
question
Acute allergic contact dermatitis Legend: Note bright erythema, microvesiculation. At close inspection, a papular component can be discerned. At this stage, there is still sharp margination. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP10)
answer
How can this condition be described?
question
Acute allergic contact dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP10)
answer
Identify
question
Legend: Acute allergic contact dermatitis on the lips due to lipstick (Marlin D&E Lecture PP10)
answer
The patient was hypersensitive to eosin so at this stage what is this condition called?
question
Allergic phytodermatitis of leg (Marlin D&E Lecture PP12)
answer
Identify
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP13)
answer
Identify
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis Prevention of Irritant Dermatitis Removal of the irritant If exposed, wash with water or a neutralizing solution (Marlin D&E Lecture PP13;16)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Allergic phytodermatitis of leg Legend: Linear vesicular lesions with erythema and edema on the calf at sites of direct contact of the skin 5 days after exposure with the poison ivy leaf. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP12;16)
answer
How can this condition be described?
question
Allergic phytodermatitis of leg Prevention of Irritant Dermatitis Removal of the irritant If exposed, wash with water or a neutralizing solution (Marlin D&E Lecture PP12;16)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis Prevention of Irritant Dermatitis Removal of the irritant If exposed, wash with water or a neutralizing solution (Marlin D&E Lecture PP14;16)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP14;16)
answer
Identify
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis Prevention of Irritant Dermatitis Removal of the irritant If exposed, wash with water or a neutralizing solution (Marlin D&E Lecture PP15;16)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP15;16)
answer
Identify
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP15;16)
answer
Identify
question
Allergic Contact Dermatitis Prevention of Irritant Dermatitis Removal of the irritant If exposed, wash with water or a neutralizing solution (Marlin D&E Lecture PP15;16)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
answer
Identify
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis Tx: Acute & Maintenance OTC dandruff shampoo x 5-10 mins.-Head & Shoulders or Selsun Cold Tar shampoos-T-Gel, Zetar Ketoconazole cream 2% or shampoo(Nizoral) Topical corticosteroids Oral antibiotics if infection (Staph) Removal of crusts in infants using warm oil then shampoo with sulfur shampoo (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis Tx: Topical corticosteroids Oral antibiotics if infection (Staph) (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
answer
Identify
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP32;34)
answer
Identify
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis Tx: Removal of crusts in infants using warm oil then shampoo with sulfur shampoo (Marlin D&E Lecture PP32;34)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis Tx: Acute & Maintenance OTC dandruff shampoo x 5-10 mins.-Head & Shoulders or Selsun Cold Tar shampoos-T-Gel, Zetar Ketoconazole cream 2% or shampoo(Nizoral) Topical corticosteroids Oral antibiotics if infection (Staph) (Marlin D&E Lecture PP33;34)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Seborrheic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP33;34)
answer
Identify
question
Stasis Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP37;38)
answer
Identify
question
Stasis Dermatitis: Manage the edema!!! Topical Corticosteroids Wet compresses-Domeboro for oozing & crusting Be concerned about the development of ulcers (Marlin D&E Lecture PP37;38)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP42;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP42;47)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP43;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP43;47)
answer
Identify treatment for this skin condition
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP44;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP44;47)
answer
How is this condition treated
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP45;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP45;47)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP45;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP45;47)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP46;47)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP46;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema (Marlin D&E Lecture PP46;47)
answer
Identify
question
Nummular Eczema Skin hydration Class I and II topical steroids Antibiotics if S. Aureus present Cold tar ointment in severe cases (Marlin D&E Lecture PP42;47)
answer
How is this condition treated?
question
Asteatotic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
answer
Identify
question
Asteatotic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
answer
Identify
question
Asteatotic Dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
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Identify
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Asteatotic Dermatitis Treatment- Avoid hot baths and showers with soap Tepid baths with bath oils, skin lubrication Corticosteroid ointments if lesions inflamed. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
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How is this condition treated?
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Asteatotic Dermatitis Treatment- Avoid hot baths and showers with soap Tepid baths with bath oils, skin lubrication Corticosteroid ointments if lesions inflamed. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
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How is this condition treated?
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Asteatotic Dermatitis Treatment- Avoid hot baths and showers with soap Tepid baths with bath oils, skin lubrication Corticosteroid ointments if lesions inflamed. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
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How is this condition treated?
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Frequently in elderly (Marlin D&E Lecture PP60-63)
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Who are more at risk for this condition?
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Dyshidrotic Eczema Acute, Chronic or recurrent pruritic vesicular dermatitis on palms and soles Acutely-vesicles deep within epidermis grouped in clusters Chronic-lichenification, papules, scaling, fissures. (Marlin D&E Lecture PP48;52)
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How is this condition described regardless of location?
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Dyshidrotic Eczema Complication- secondary bacterial infection W Staph (Marlin D&E Lecture PP48;51)
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What is a complication of this condition regardless of location?
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Nummular Eczema Coin-shaped chronic plaques consisting of grouped papules on an erythematous base (Marlin D&E Lecture PP41;43)
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Regardless of location how is this condition described?
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Nummular Eczema occurs in young adults or middle aged white males Common in atopic individuals (Marlin D&E Lecture PP41;44)
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Who are more at risk for this condition?
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Nummular Eczema Exact cause unknown (Marlin D&E Lecture PP41;46)
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What is the cause of this condition?
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Nummular Eczema Worse in fall and winter (Marlin D&E Lecture PP41;45)
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When is this condition exacerbated?
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Nummular Eczema Watch for secondary bacterial infection (Marlin D&E Lecture PP41;45)
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What should be monitored with this condition
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Stasis Dermatitis Secondary to venous insufficiency (Marlin D&E Lecture PP37;38)
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This condition is secondary to what?
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Occurs in middle aged and older individuals (Marlin D&E Lecture PP37;38)
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Among what population is this condition common?
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Stasis Dermatitis Occurs in middle aged and older individuals (Marlin D&E Lecture PP37;38)
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Who are at higher risk for this condition?
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Stasis Dermatitis Characteristics Edema of lower legs Brown pigmentation Petechiae Subacute and chronic dermatitis (Marlin D&E Lecture PP37;38)
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What are the characteristics of this condition?
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Seborrheic Dermatitis Subacute or chronic inflammation of areas with numerous sebaceous glands (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
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Describe this condition?
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Seborrheic Dermatitis Yeast-Pityrosporum Ovale causitive factor (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
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What causes this condition?
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Seborrheic Dermatitis Cradle cap in infants (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
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How is this condition described in infants?
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Seborrheic Dermatitis Fine or greasy yellow-red scaling macules and papules Location-forehead, chest, scalp, eyebrows, bodyfolds (Marlin D&E Lecture PP31;34)
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How is this condition described in adults?
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Infant Atopic Dermatitis IgE serum immunoglobulin levels Bacterial Culture- Often S. Aureus in nares & skin Viral Culture- R/O HSV in crusted lesions (Marlin D&E Lecture PP 21;24)
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What kind of labs can help identify this condition?
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Atopic Dermatitis Facial features- erythema, perioral pallor, Dennie-Morgan lines, allergic shiners (Marlin D&E Lecture PP19;27)
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Describe this condition
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Nummular Eczema Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-22
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Seborrheic dermatitis of face: adult type Erythema and yellow-orange scaling the forehead, cheeks, nasolabial folds. Scalp and retroauricular areas were also involved. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-24
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Acute irritant contact dermatitis following application of a cream containing nonylvanillamid and nicotinic acid butoxyethyl ester prescribed for lower back pain The "streaky pattern" indicates an outside job. The eruption is characterized by a massive erythema with vesiculation and blister formation and is confined to the sites exposed to the toxic agent. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-21
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Irritant contact dermatitis: in a construction worker who works with cement Note the hyperkeratoses, scaling, and fissuring. There is also minimal pustulation. Note that right (dominant working) hand is more severely affected than left hand. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-24
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Chronic irritant dermatitis: with acute exacerbation in a housewife The patient used turpentine to clean her hands after painting. Erythema, fissuring, and scaling. Differential diagnosis is allergic contact dermatitis and palmar psoriasis. Patch tests to turpentine were negative. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-24
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Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) Erythema, scaling, dry skin, and intense itching characterize this condition. Bates Pg 879
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Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) Erythema, scaling, dry skin, and intense itching characterize this condition. Bates Pg 879
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Identify
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Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) Erythema, scaling, dry skin, and intense itching characterize this condition. Bates Pg 879
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What characterizes this condition?
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Scabies Intensely itchy papules and vesicles, sometimes burrows, most often on extremities Bates pg 880
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Verruca Vulgaris Dry, rough warts on hands Bates pg 880
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Verruca Plana Small, flat warts Bates pg 880
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TEN, non-exanthematic diffuse presentation This 60-year-old man developed diffuse erythema over almost the entire body, which then resulted in epidermal crinkling, detachment, and shedding of epidermis leaving large erosions. This is reminiscent of extensive scalding. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 8-9
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TEN, exanthematic presentation A macular rash is starting to coalesce. Dislodgment and shedding of the necrotic epidermis has led to large, oozing, extremely painful erosions. The eruption was due to a sulfonamide. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 8-8
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TEN, exanthematic presentation There is a widespread confluent macular rash with crinkling of the epidermis in some areas. There is detachment of the epidermis at the site of pressure (Nikolsky sign) resulting in a red erosion. This eruption was due to allopurinol. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 8-7
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Bullous pemphigoid This 77-year-old male has a generalized eruption with confluent urticarial plaques and multiple tense blisters. The condition is severely pruritic. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 6-15
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Bullous pemphigoid Early lesions in a 75-year-old female. Note urticarial plaques and a small, tense blister with a clear serous content. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 6-14
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Psoriasis of the fingernails Pits have progressed to elkonyxis (holes in the nail plates), and there is transverse and longitudinal ridging. This patient also has paronychial psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis (for further images of nail involvement, see Section 34). Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 3-11
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Psoriasis, facial involvement Classic psoriatic plaque on the forehead of a 21-year-old male who also had massive scalp involvement. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 3-9
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Seborrheic dermatitis: Infantile type Erythema scales and crusting in the diaper region of an infant. This is difficult to distinguish in the diaper region from psoriasis and Candida has to be ruled out by KOH. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology 7e Figure 2-25
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This condition can be difficult to distinguish from what 2 other conditions?
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(A) Childhood atopic dermatitis This is a generalized eruption consisting of confluent, inflammatory papules that are erosive, excoriated, and crusted. (B) Generalized eruption of follicular papules that are more heavily pigmented than normal skin in a 53-year-old woman of African extraction. There is extensive lichenification. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-17
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Allergic phytodermatitis of the face: poison ivy Extremely pruritic, erythema, edema, and microvesiculation in the periorbital and perioral area in a previously sensitized young man, occurring 3 days after exposure. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 2-9
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www.riversideonline.com/source/images/image_popup/c7_skincancer.jpg
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Just FYI :-)
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Sites of these primary tumors include the lung, breast, skin, kidney, lymphomas, and Kaposi's sarcoma in patients with AIDS. (Step up to medicine pg 63)
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What are the primary tumors sites for Kaposi sarcoma?
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Kaposi sarcoma: penis Multiple nodules are seen on the glans and shaft of the penis, present for 8 months in a patient with HIV/AIDS. Massive swelling of the penis was caused by tumor infiltration and lymphatic obstruction, resulting in urinary obstruction. Similar obstruction caused edema of both legs. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology 7e Figure 34-28
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Kaposi Sarcoma Early in the HIV epidemic in the United States and Europe, 50% of men who have sex with men (MSM) had KS at the time of initial AIDS diagnosis. In persons with HIV disease, the risk for KS is 20,000 times that of the general population and 300 times that of other immunosuppressed individuals. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology 7e Figure 34-28
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Among what population is this condition common?
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Kaposi Sarcoma (KS) In untreated HIV disease, KS may progress rapidly with extensive mucocutaneous and systemic involvement. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology Figure 34-28
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In patients with this condition, what occurs in patients with untreated HIV disease?
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Classic Kaposi sarcoma Ecchymotic purple-brownish confluent macules and a 1-cm nodule on the dorsum of the hand of a 65-year-old male of Ashkenazi-Jewish extraction. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-16
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Describe this lesion
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Classic Kaposi sarcoma Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-16
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The lesion was originally mistaken for a bruise as were similar lesions on the feet and on the other hand. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-16
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What can this condition be mistaken for?
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Kaposi sarcoma The appearance of brownish nodules together with additional macules prompted a referral of this otherwise completely healthy patient to a dermatologist who diagnosed Kaposi sarcoma, which was verified by BIOPSY. There is also onychomycosis of all fingernails. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-16
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What test confirms the diagnosis of this condition?
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Classic Kaposi sarcoma Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-17
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Classic Kaposi sarcoma of the feet Brownish to blue nodules and plaques, partially hyperkeratotic on the soles and lateral aspects of the feet. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-18
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Identify this condition
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Classic Kaposi sarcoma of the feet This is a typical localization of early classic KS. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-18
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What is the appearance of this condition indicative of?
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HIV/AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma Bruiselike purplish macules, and nodules are present in the face of this 25-year-old male homosexual with AIDS. Early involvement of the face is typical for HIV/AIDS-associated KS. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-19
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Identify
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HIV/AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma Bruiselike purplish macules, and nodules are present in the face of this 25-year-old male homosexual with AIDS. Fitzpatrick's 7e FIGURE 21-19
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Describe the common appearance of this condition
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HIV/AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma Early involvement of the face is typical for HIV/AIDS-associated KS. Fitzpatrick's FIGURE 21-19
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Among what population is this condition common?
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HIV/AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma Multiple purplish plaques and nodules on the back of a homosexual AIDS patient. The patient had CD4+ T cell counts <200/μL and marked mucous membrane involvement, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, and Candida. Fitzpatrick's FIGURE 21-16
<img src="https://chmanchacentro.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/hiv-aids-associated-kaposi-sarcomamultiple-purplish-plaques-and-nodules-on-the-back-of-a-homosexual-aids-patient-the-patient-had-cd4-t-cell-counts.png" title="HIV/AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma Multiple purplish plaques and nodules on the back of a homosexual AIDS patient. The patient had CD4+ T cell counts <200/μL and marked mucous membrane involvement, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, and Candida. Fitzpatrick's FIGURE 21-16" alt="HIV/AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma Multiple purplish plaques and nodules on the back of a homosexual AIDS patient. The patient had CD4+ T cell counts
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Identify
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Basal cell carcinoma (BCC), pigmented (A) A nodule with irregular borders and variegation of melanin hues easily confused with a malignant melanoma. Only histology will yield the correct diagnosis. (B) A similar black nodule but with central ulceration. This pigmented BCC is clinically also indistinguishable from nodular melanoma. Fitzpatrick FIGURE 11-24
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Identify this condition?
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This condition is Basal Cell Carcinoma but is indistinguishable from nodular melanoma (B) A similar black nodule but with central ulceration. This pigmented BCC is clinically also indistinguishable from nodular melanoma. Fitzpatrick FIGURE 11-24
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This condition is indistinguishable from what?
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Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) Excision; Cryosurgery and electrosurgery are options, but only for very small lesions and not in the danger sites or on scalp. Mohs surgery; Radiation therapy Topical 5-fluorouracil ointment and imiquimod cream for superficial BCC, 5 times a week, for 6 weeks, are effective, do not cause visible scars, Fitzpatrick FIGURE 11-24
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How is this condition treated
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Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) BCC does not metastasize. The reason for this is the tumor's growth dependency on its stroma, When tumor cells lodge at distant sites, they do not multiply and grow because of the absence of growth factors derived from their stroma
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Does Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) including the type above, metastasize?
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Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) There are 5 clinical types: nodular, pigmented, ulcerating, sclerosing (cicatricial), and superficial. Fitzpatrick Figure 11-21 (I remember it as: Nodular P.U.S.S)
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Although not all are seen in this picture, what are the different types of this condition?
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FYI
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FYI: Common sites of BCC
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Squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCCIS): Bowen disease and invasive SCC: 1. Topical Chemotherapy 5-Fluorouracil, 2. Cryosurgery 3. Photodynamic Therapy 4. Surgical Excision Including Mohs Micrographic Surgery Fitzpatrick 11-5
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What is the treatment for this condition?
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Squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCCIS): Bowen disease and invasive SCC: Bowen carcinoma A red to orange plaque on the back, sharply defined, with irregular outlines and psoriasiform scale represents SCCIS, or Bowen disease. The red nodule on this plaque indicates that here the lesion is not anymore an in situ lesion but that invasive carcinoma has developed. Fitzpatrick 11-5
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Identify
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Squamous cell carcinoma in situ: Bowen disease (A) A large, sharply demarcated, scaly, and erythematous plaque simulating a psoriatic lesion. (B) A similar psoriasiform plaque with a mix of scales, hyperkeratosis, and hemorrhagic crusts on the surface. Fitzpatrick 11-4
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Identify
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Candida Diaper Dermatitis Bates Pg 879
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Identify this condition
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Metastatic melanoma: recurring in excision scar (B) Two papules are seen around the excision site scar, one of which has a blue-brown color. The histology from the excised lesion was reviewed and revised as a superficial spreading melanoma, and the histopathology of the two papules seen here was metastatic melanoma. Fitzpatrick FIGURE 12-19
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Identify
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The only curative treatment of melanoma is early surgical excision. Fitzpatrick - CH 12: Management of Melanoma
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Is there curative treatment for melanoma? If so, what is it? If not, why not?
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Fitzpatrick FIGURE 88-5
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Alopecia Pattern hair loss in women. A. Different phenotypic expressions. B. Characteristic frontal accentuation (widened hair part).
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Androgenetic Alopecia (AGA) Currently two pharmaceutical treatments are approved for the therapy of AGA in men: oral finasteride and topical minoxidil. Dutasteride However, dutasteride is not FDA approved for use in androgenetic alopecia. More studies are necessary for the evaluation of the safety profile of this drug. Low-Level Light Therapy Hair Restoration Surgery Fitzpatrick CH 88 "Etiology and Pathogenesis"
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What is the treatment for Androgenetic Alopecia (AGA) in men?
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Cyproterone Acetate Spironolactone 17α- or 17β-estradiol Low-Level Light Therapy Hair Restoration Surgery Fitzpatrick CH 88 "Etiology and Pathogenesis"
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What are the treatment options for Androgenetic Alopecia (AGA) in women
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TE differs from AGA in that it is not androgen-sensitive, does not appear to be inherited and, since it does not involve a terminal- to vellus-hair transition, does not decrease matrix cell volumes or hair shaft diameters. TE also tends to be related to external causes and is often reversed when the exogenous stimuli are removed. Fitzpatrick CH 88 "Telogen Effluvium"
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How does Telogen Effluvium (TE) differ from Androgenetic Alopecia (AGA)?
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Telogen Effluvium (acute) The removal of the cause is the major goal in the treatment of TE. Iron supplementation is recommended if the ferritin level is less than 70 ng/mL Fitzpatrick FIGURE 88-10
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What is the treatment for this condition?
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Telogen Effluvium (acute) Diffuse thinning in a female patient with acute telogen effluvium. Fitzpatrick FIGURE 88-10
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Describe this condition
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Patient with patchy alopecia areata Fitzpatrick FIGURE 88-11
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Alopecia secondary to syphilis Hair loss is a common symptom of secondary or tertiary syphilis. In its classical form, the hair loss is an irregular, patchy loss of hair scattered throughout the scalp, which has been described as "moth eaten" (Fig. 88-15). Fitzpatrick CH 88 FIGURE 88-15
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Identify this condition
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Alopecia secondary to syphilis Syphilitic alopecia can be very difficult to distinguish from alopecia areata. Essential syphilitic alopecia occurs in the absence of any other cutaneous sign of secondary syphilis,and is characterized by a diffuse shedding, thereby resembling Telogen Effluvium (TE). Fitzpatrick CH 88 FIGURE 88-15
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What can this condition be confused with?
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Alopecia secondary to syphilis The presence of plasma cells, lack of peribulbar eosinophils, and abundant lymphocytes in the isthmus are histological features of syphilitic alopecia. Fitzpatrick CH 88 FIGURE 88-15
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What will the labs of this condition show?
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Alopecia areata Topical/Systemic Steroids Minoxidil Anthralin Immunotherapy Photo(chemo)Therapy Cyclosporine Fitzpatrick CH 88 FIGURE 88-11
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What are the treatment options for this patient?
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Chronic paronychia The distal fingers and periungual skin are red and scaling. The cuticle is absent; a pocket is present, formed as the proximal nail folds separate from the nail plate. The nail plates show trachonychia (rough surface with longitudinal ridging) and onychauxis (apparent nail plate thickening due to subungual hyperkeratosis of nail bed). Fitzpatrick Figure 32-2
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Describe this nail condition
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Chronic paronychia The underlying problem is psoriasis. Candida albicans or Staphylococcus aureus can cause space infection in the "pocket" with intermittent erythema and tenderness of the nail fold. Fitzpatrick Figure 32-2
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What are the causes of this nail condition?
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Onycholysis A 60-year-old female with distal onycholysis of fingernails, mild chronic paronychia, and loss of cuticle. Psoriasis is the likely underlying problem. Fitzpatrick Figure 32-3
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What can be the likely cause of this nail condition?
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Onycholysis with Pseudomonas colonization (A) Psoriasis has resulted in distal onycholysis of the thumbnail. Fitzpatrick Figure 32-4
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What can be the 2 causes of this condition?
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Onycholysis with Pseudomonas colonization Colonization with P. aeruginosa results in a biofilm on the undersurface of the onycholytic nail plate, causing a brown or greenish discoloration (Fig. 32-4). Fitzpatrick Figure 32-4
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Describe this condition
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Scleroderma (lSSc): acrosclerosis (B) Fingers show both bluish erythema and vasoconstriction (blue and white): Raynaud phenomenon. Fingers are edematous, the skin is bound down. Distal phalanges (index and third finger) are shortened, which is associated with bony resorption. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-45
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Identify
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Scleroderma (lSSc): acrosclerosis (A) Hands and fingers are edematous (nonpitting); skin is without skin folds and bound down. Distal fingers are tapered (Madonna fingers) Fitzpatrick Figure 14-45
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Scleroderma (lSSc): acrosclerosis (A) Typical "rat bite" necroses and ulcerations of fingertips. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-46
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Scleroderma (lSSc): acrosclerosis (B) Thinning of lips—microstomia (which would show better when patient attempts to open her mouth), radial perioral furrowing. Beaklike sharp nose. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-46
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Scleroderma (dSSc) Mask-like facies with stretched, shiny skin and loss of normal facial lines giving a younger appearance than actual age; the hair is dyed. Thinning of the lips and perioral sclerosis result in a small mouth. Sclerosis (whitish, glistening areas) and multiple telangiectases (not visible at this magnification) are also present. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-47
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Describe this condition
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Scleroderma: CREST syndrome Fitzpatrick Figure 14-48
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What is this condition associated with?
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Scleroderma: CREST syndrome Numerous macular or matlike telangiectases on the forehead. Complete features include calcinosis cutis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerosis, and telangiectasia. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-48
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Identify
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Sarcoptes scabiei—lesions. Note three arrows that point to linear track-like lesions on the hand. (Reproduced with permission from Wolff K, Johnson R. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology. 6th ed.
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Bacteria Spirochetes: Borrelia burgdorfer (Toronto notes 2014)
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What causes lyme disease
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serology: ELISA, Western Blot (Toronto notes 2014)
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Lyme disease diagnostics are...?
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stage 1: doxycycline amoxicillin cefuroxime stage 2-3: ceftriaxone (Toronto notes 2014)
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Lyme disease treatment
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Acute urticaria and angioedema Note that there are both superficial wheals and deep, diffuse edema. Occurred after the patient had eaten shellfish. He had similar episodes previously but never considered seafood as the cause. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-7
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Cholinergic urticaria Small urticarial papules on neck occurring within 30 min of vigorous exercise. Papular urticarial lesions are best seen under side lighting. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-10
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Urticaria: dermographism Urticaria as it appeared 5 min after the patient was scratched on the back. The patient had experienced generalized pruritus for several months with no spontaneously occurring urticaria. Fitzpatrick Figure 14-09
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Identify
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Acute urticaria 1. Antihistamines: H1-blockers, e.g., hydroxyzine, terfenadine; or loratadine, cetirizine, fexofenadine; 2. Prednisone 3. Danazol or Stanozolol Fitzpatrick's Figure 14-6
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What is the treatment for this condition?
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Chronic urticaria Chronic urticaria of 5-year duration in an otherwise healthy 35-year-old female. Eruptions occur on an almost daily basis and, as they are highly pruritic, greatly impair the patient's quality of life. Although suppressed by antihistamines, there is an immediate recurrence after treatment is stopped. Repeated laboratory and clinical examinations have not revealed an apparent cause. Fitzpatrick's Figure 14-8
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Identify
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Urticaria: dermographism Autoimmune urticaria is tested by the autologous serum skin test and determination of anti-FcϵRI antibody. If urticarial wheals do not disappear in ≤24 h, urticarial vasculitis should be suspected and a biopsy done. Fitzpatrick's Figure 14-9
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How is this condition diagnosed?
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Tinea Capitis: Dermatophyte infection To establish a diagnosis, hair shafts should be plugged out and cultured, as well as examined after KOH preparation. Fitzpatrick's Figure 88-22
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How is a diagnosis established for this condition?
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Tinea Capitis: Dermatophyte infection Trichophyton tonsurans accounts for around 90% of cases of tinea capitis in the United States and Unites Kingdom Fitzpatrick's Figure 88-22
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What causes this condition?
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Tinea Capitis: Dermatophyte infection The alopecic patches usually show signs of inflammation and scaling with brittle grayish hair stumps Fitzpatrick's Figure 88-22
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Describe this condtion
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Tinea Capitis: Dermatophyte infection The alopecic patches usually show signs of inflammation and scaling with brittle grayish hair stumps.The areas may show a yellow-green fluorescence under Wood's Light examination. Fitzpatrick's Figure 88-22
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What test is used to analyze the alopcic patches? And what is seen?
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Tinea Capitis: Dermatophyte infection Systemic antifungal treatment is indispensable to treat tinea capitis. Topical sporicidal agents, such as selenium or ketoconazole help to limit the spread of the infectious spores, but cannot be used without systemic antifungal treatment. Fitzpatrick's Figure 88-22
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What is first line treatment for this condition?
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Acanthosis nigricans Acanthosis nigricans involving the axilla with numerous acrochordons. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153
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Identify
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Acanthosis nigricans The clinical hallmark of acanthosis nigricans is development of gray-brown, velvety plaques that may start as a dirty appearance. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153
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What is the hallmark of this condition?
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Acanthosis nigricans Acanthosis nigricans: typical hyperpigmented, velvety, verrucous axillary plaques. (Reproduced, with permission, from Wolff K, Johnson RA, Suurmond D. Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology. 6th ed. New York: McGraw-Hill; 2005. Fig. 5-1.)
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Identify
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Acanthosis nigricans The most commonly involved locations are the axillae, neck, external genitalia, groin, face, inner thighs, antecubital and popliteal fossae, umbilicus, and perianal area. Acrochordons may develop, superimposed on the acanthosis nigricans or on other locations Fitzpatrick's Figure 153
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What are the most common sites for this condition?
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Acanthosis nigricans... A. Verrucous and papillomatous growths of the vermillion border of the lip. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153-2
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The growths seen in this picture are associated with what condition?
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Acanthosis nigricans... B. Velvety thickening of the tongue. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153-2
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The thickening of the tongue in this picture is associated with what condition?
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Malignant acanthosis nigricans Concerns for malignancy-associated acanthosis nigricans should arise when a rapid appearance of the lesions in an older individual along with atypical sites such as the oral mucosa is involved Fitzpatrick's Figure 153-2
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When someone is diagnosed with __________ _________ and sites noted in the picture are involved, what is of concern?
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Acanthosis nigricans. Although the precise etiology of benign acanthosis nigricans remains unclear, there is evidence that insulin plays a significant role (see Chapter 151) Fitzpatrick's Figure 153
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What is the cause of this condition?
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Malignant acanthosis nigricans Malignant acanthosis nigricans typically occurs in older patients and frequently coexists with other paraneoplastic dermatoses such as tripe palms and the sign of Leser-Trélat. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153-2
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What population is more at risk for the condition that involves these atypical sites (oral mucosa)?
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Acanthosis nigricans The lesions of malignant and benign acanthosis nigricans are indistinguishable. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153
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How are malignant and benign acanthosis nigricans distinguished?
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Fitzpatrick's Figure 153 Management of any co-occurring disease or malignancy often improves and may even resolve acanthosis nigricans. Topical keratolytics, including the retinoids, and oral retinoids can reduce the appearance of acanthosis nigricans. Other oral medications reported to show improvement include dietary fish oil, metformin, and cyproheptadine, possibly by inhibition of tumor secreted growth factors in the case of the latter. Fitzpatrick's Figure 153
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How is this condition treated?
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Melasma Well-demarcated, hyperpigmented macules are seen on the cheek, nose, and upper lip. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-10
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Melasma Management: hydroquinone 3% solution and 4% cream; azelaic acid 20% cream; and a combination of fluocinolone 0.01%, hydroquinone 4%, and tretinoin 0.05%. Hydroquinone 4% cream can be compounded with 0.05% tretinoin cream or glycolic acid by the pharmacist. Prevention: Opaque sun blocks. Synonyms: Chloasma (Greek: "a green spot"), mask of pregnancy. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-10
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What are the treatment options for this condition?
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It may be associated with pregnancy, with ingestion of contraceptive hormones, or possibly with certain medications such as diphenylhydantoin, or it may be idiopathic. Very common, especially among persons with constitutive brown skin taking contraceptive pills and living in sunny climates; 10% of patients are men. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-10
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What is this condition associated with?
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Vitiligo Vitiligo: face Extensive depigmentation of the central face. Involved vitiliginous skin has convex borders, extending into the normal pigmented skin. Note the chalk-white color and sharp margination. Note also that the dermal nevomelanocytic nevus on the upper lip has retained its pigmentation. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-2
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Vitiligo 1. Inheritance 2. Family history of thyroid disease, diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo appear to be at increased risk for development of vitiligo. 3. Many patients attribute the onset of their vitiligo to physical trauma (where vitiligo appears at the site of trauma—Koebner phenomenon), illness, or emotional stress. Onset after the death of a relative or after severe physical injury is often mentioned. A sunburn reaction may precipitate vitiligo. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-3
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What are the possible causes for this condition?
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Three principal theories have been presented about the mechanism of destruction of melanocytes in vitiligo: 1. The autoimmune theory holds that selected melanocytes are destroyed by certain lymphocytes that have somehow been activated. 2. The neurogenic hypothesis is based on an interaction of the melanocytes and nerve cells. 3. The self-destruct hypothesis suggests that melanocytes are destroyed by toxic substances formed as part of normal melanin biosynthesis. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-2
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What are the 3 possible ways melanocytes are destroyed in this condition?
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Universal vitiligo Vitiliginous macules have coalesced to involve all skin sites with complete depigmentation of skin and hair in a female. The patient is wearing a black wig and has darkened the brows with eyebrow pencil and eyelid margins with eye liner. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-5
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Vitiligo: predilection sites. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-4
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FYI Vitiligo: predilection sites.
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Vitiligo: Treatment: Excimer laser (308 nm) Best results in the face. Topical glucocorticoids: Monitor for signs of early steroid atrophy. Topical calcineurin inhibitors: Tacrolimus and pimecrolimus. They are reported to be most effective when combined with UVB or excimer laser therapy. Topical photochemotherapy [topical 8-methoxypsoralen (8-MOP) and UVA] Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-2
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What are the treatment options for this condition?
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Generalized Vitiligo Systemic photochemotherapy: Narrow-band UVB, 311 nm: This is just as effective as PUVA and does not require psoralens. It is the treatment of choice in children <6 years of age. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-3
<img src="https://chmanchacentro.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/generalized-vitiligosystemic-photochemotherapy-narrow-band-uvb-311-nm-this-is-just-as-effective-as-puva-and-does-not-require-psoralens-it-is-the-treatment-of-choice-in-children.png" title="Generalized Vitiligo Systemic photochemotherapy: Narrow-band UVB, 311 nm: This is just as effective as PUVA and does not require psoralens. It is the treatment of choice in children <6 years of age. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-3" alt="Generalized Vitiligo Systemic photochemotherapy: Narrow-band UVB, 311 nm: This is just as effective as PUVA and does not require psoralens. It is the treatment of choice in children
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What is the treatment option for the "generalized" version of this condition?
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Vitiligo Topical calcineurin inhibitors: Tacrolimus and pimecrolimus. They are reported to be most effective when combined with UVB or excimer laser therapy. Fitzpatrick's Figure 13-2
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What is the MOST EFFECTIVE topical treatment for this condition, when combined with laser therapy?
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Psoriasis A-F. Chronic plaque psoriasis located at typical sites. Note marked symmetry of lesions. Cutaneous Lesions: The classic lesion of psoriasis is a well-demarcated, raised, red plaque with a white scaly surface (Fig. 18-7). Lesions can vary in size from pinpoint papules to plaques that cover large areas of the body. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-7
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Psoriasis A-F. Chronic plaque psoriasis Cutaneous Lesions: The classic lesion of psoriasis is a well-demarcated, raised, red plaque with a white scaly surface (Fig. 18-7). Lesions can vary in size from pinpoint papules to plaques that cover large areas of the body. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-7
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Describe the classical lesion of this condition
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Psoriasis Auspitz sign. Note point of bleeding after scale is removed. Under the scale, the skin has a glossy homogeneous erythema, and bleeding points appear when the scale is removed, traumatizing the dilated capillaries below (the Auspitz sign) (Fig. 18-8). Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-8
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The appearance of punctate bleeding spots in this condition is called what?
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Psoriasis Vulgaris Psoriasis vulgaris is the most common form of psoriasis, seen in approximately 90% of patients. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-7
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What is the most common type of this condition?
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Guttate psoriasis Guttate psoriasis, involving thigh (A), hands (B), and back (C and D). The patient in D went on to develop chronic plaque psoriasis. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-11
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Erythrodermic psoriasis. Erythrodermic psoriasis: The patient shown in panel A rapidly developed near-complete involvement and complained of fatigue and malaise. Note islands of sparing. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-13
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Erythrodermic psoriasis. The patient shown in panels B and C had total body involvement with marked hyperkeratosis and desquamation. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-13
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Nail psoriasis. Panel C demonstrates subungual hyperkeratosis. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-15
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Nail psoriasis. Panel B demonstrates nail pitting. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-15
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Nail psoriasis. Panel A demonstrates distal onycholysis and oil drop spotting. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-15
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Nail psoriasis. Panel D demonstrates onychodystrophy and loss of nails in a patient with psoriatic arthritis. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-15
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Chronic plaque psoriasis Methotrexate MTX is highly effective for chronic plaque psoriasis and is also indicated for the long-term management of severe forms of psoriasis, including psoriatic erythroderma and pustular psoriasis. Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-7
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What are the treatment options for this SPECIFIC condition?
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Psoriasis Corticosteroids Vitamin D3 and Analogs Anthralin (Dithranol) Coal Tar Tazarotene Topical Calcineurin Inhibitors And many more Fitzpatrick's Figure 18-7 CH 18 "Treatment" section
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What are the treatment options for this condition?
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Chronic plaque psoriasis There is no known prevention for psoriasis. CH 18 "Prevention" section
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How is this condition prevented?
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Pressure ulcers Common sites of pressure ulcer development. Figure 100-2
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Just FYI
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Pressure ulcer Pressure ulcer, stage III, complicated by fecal incontinence. Fitzpatrick's Figure 100-2
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Thrush on the Palate (Candidiasis) Thrush is a yeast infection from Candida species. Shown here on the palate, it may appear elsewhere in the mouth (see p. 289). Thick, white plaques are somewhat adherent to the underlying mucosa. Bates pg 285
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Thrush on the Palate (Candidiasis) Predisposing factors include (1) prolonged treatment with antibiotics or corticosteroids and (2) AIDS. Bates pg 285
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What are the predisposing factors for this condition?
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Candidiasis. Note the thick white coating from Candida infection. The raw red surface is where the coat was scraped off. Infection may also occur without the white coating. Bates pg 289
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Candidiasis It is seen in immunosuppression from chemotherapy or prednisone therapy. Bates pg 289
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Who are at risk for this condition
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Molluscum Contagiosum Dome-shaped, fleshy lesions Bates pg 880
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Tinea Capitis Scaling, crusting, and hair loss are seen in the scalp, along with a painful plaque (kerion) and occipital lymph node (arrow). Bates pg 880
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Urticaria Wheals (urticaria) in a drug eruption in an infant Bates pg 197
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Kaposi's sarcoma in AIDS: This malignant tumor may appear in many forms: macules, papules, plaques, or nodules almost anywhere on the body. Lesions are often multiple and may involve internal structures. On left: ovoid, pinkish red plaques that typically lengthen along the skin line may become pigmented. On right: a purplish red nodule on the foot. Bates pg 197
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Kaposi's sarcoma in AIDS: This malignant tumor may appear in many forms: macules, papules, plaques, or nodules almost anywhere on the body. Lesions are often multiple and may involve internal structures. On left: ovoid, pinkish red plaques that typically lengthen along the skin line may become pigmented. On right: a purplish red nodule on the foot. Bates pg 197
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Kaposi's sarcoma: Several chemotherapeutic regimens For patients with anthracycline-refractory AIDS KS paclitaxel Interferon-α, which has been a mainstay therapeutic approach for AIDS KS during the 1980s and early 1990s, still holds some promise for AIDS patients with early disseminated KS who simultaneously receive HAART. Fitzpatrick's Figure 128-1
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What are the treatment options
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Kaposi's sarcoma: Classic variant. Plaques and papules localized on the dorsum of the foot, a site of predilection of classic KS. Fitzpatrick's Figure 128-1
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Kaposi's sarcoma: Tumor nodules of advanced classic KS with severe involvement of extremities. Fitzpatrick's Figure 128-2
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Kaposi's sarcoma: KS lesions on the hard palate are typical manifestations of AIDS-associated KS. Fitzpatrick's Figure 128-4
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Psoriasis Bates pg 197
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Tinea Captits ("Ringworm") Round scaling patches of alopecia. Hairs are broken off close to the surface of the scalp. Usually caused by fungal infection from Trichophyton tonsurans from humans, less commonly from microsporum canis from dogs or cats. Bates pg 201
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Tinea Captits ("Ringworm") Mimics seborrheic dermatitis. Bates pg 201
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What other condition does the one in this picture mimic?
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Crusted scabies. Hyperkeratotic plaques populated with thousands of mites. Fitzpatrick's 8e Figure 208-1
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Molluscum contagiosum Molluscum contagiosum infection. A patient with advanced HIV/AIDS presented with multiple large facial mollusca causing significant cosmetic disfigurement. Fitzpatrick's 8e Figure 198-13
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Scabies Scabies. Several thread-like burrows are present in the web spaces of the fingers and on the knuckles, a common location for these lesions in scabies. Longitudinal scraping of a burrow will often reveal the mite or mite products under microscopic examination. Fitzpatrick's 8e Figure 208-2
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Crusted scabies Crusted scabies. Close-up showing erosions, lakes of pus, scales, and crusts. Figure 208-3.2
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Scabies The itching experienced during this time period is commonly referred to as "postscabetic itch." Fitzpatrick's 8e Figure 208-2
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What is another term for the itching/pruritis associated with this condition?
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Lice: Pediculosis pubis Pediculosis pubis. Several lice and their dot-like nits attached to the hair shafts can be seen in the pubic area of this patient. Fitzpatrick's 8e Figure 208-6
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Lice Pediculosis pubis. Eyelash infestation with Pthirus pubis. Nits can be seen attached to the eyelashes. (Used with permission from D.A. Burns, MD.) Fitzpatrick's 8e Figure 208-7
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Lice (crab) Shaving is not curative as the louse will seek another hairy area of the body to reside. Crab lice are treated with the same topical therapy as that for pediculosis capitis (Box 208-4). Permethrin 1%a (Nix) Permethrin 5% Malathion 0.5% Carbaryl 0.5% Lindane 1% Topical ivermectin Ivermectin, oral 200 μg/kg Fitzpatrick's 8e Box 208-4 Treatment of Head Lice and Crab Lice
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How is this condition treated?
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Staphylococcus aureus: bullous impetigo. Local treatment with mupirocin ointment or cream, removal of crusts, and good hygiene is sufficient to cure most mild to moderate cases. Retapamulin 1% ointment Fusidic acid Systemic antibiotics may be required in extensive cases. Fitzpatrick 8e Figure 176-8
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How is this condition treated?
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Furuncle Simple furunculosis may be aided by local application of moist heat. A carbuncle or a furuncle with surrounding cellulitis, or one with associated fever, should be treated with a systemic antibiotic (as for MRSA impetigo; see Box 176-4). Fitzpatrick 8e Figure 176-8
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This condition with surrounding cellulitis is treated with what?
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Multiple furuncles B. Multiple furuncles. Multiple abscesses on the buttocks of long standing in a young man with inflammatory bowel disease. The lesions healed with scarring after a prolonged course of dicloxacillin Vancomycin (1.0-2.0 g intravenously daily in divided doses) or other systemic parenteral agents that have anti-CA-MRSA activity are indicated for these patients. Antibiotic treatment should be continued for at least 1 week. Fitzpatrick 8e Figure 176-8
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What is the treatment for this condition
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Staphylococcus aureus whitlow (felon). A pyogenic granuloma arose 1 week after trauma to the bulb of the thumb. A week later, the bulb became swollen, erythematous, and very tender. Abscess formation is seen with loculation of pus. X-ray films showed early osteomyelitis complicating the whitlow. Fitzpatrick's FIGURE 176-13
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Three types of skin eruptions can be produced by phage group II S. aureus, particularly strains and: (1) bullous impetigo, (2) exfoliative disease (SSSS), and (3) nonstreptococcal scarlatiniform eruption (staphylococcal scarlet fever). All three represent varying cutaneous responses to extracellular exfoliative toxins ("exfoliatin") types A and B produced by these Staphylococci (see Chapter 177). Fitzpatrick's CH 176
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What are the 3 eruption produced by S. aureus phage group II?
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Varicella. A. A full spectrum of lesions—that is, erythematous papules, vesicles ("dewdrops on rose petals"), crusts, and erosions at sites of excoriation—is seen in a child with a typical case of varicella. Fitzpatrick's 8e FIGURE 194-3
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Varicella: In normal children, varicella is generally benign and self-limited. Cool compresses or calamine lotion locally, tepid baths with baking soda or colloidal oatmeal (three cups per tub of water) and oral antihistamines may relieve itching. The nucleoside analogues acyclovir, famciclovir, valacyclovir, and brivudin and the pyrophosphate analog foscarnet show efficacy in treating VZV infections. Fitzpatrick's 8e FIGURE 194-3
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Varicella. B. A wider range of lesions, including many large pustules, is seen in a 21-year-old female who was febrile as well as "toxic" and had varicella pneumonitis. Fitzpatrick's 8e FIGURE 194-3
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Erysipelas. Painful, edematous erythema with sharp margination on both cheeks and the nose. There is tenderness, and the patient has fever and chills. Fitzpatricks 8e Figure 178-4
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Necrotizing fasciitis Treatment of all necrotizing SSTI involves a combination of urgent debridement, antibiotics, and often, adjunctive therapies. (Fitzpatricks 8e Figure 179-1)
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How is this condition treated?
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Necrotizing fasciitis Fournier's gangrene (type 1 necrotizing fasciitis of genitalia) with progressive necrosis of the pubic, perigenital, and perianal tissue. (Fitzpatricks 8e Figure 179-1)
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