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Bio test 3

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Genetic determinism states that the expression of an inherited trait cannot be modified by the environment.
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True
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An example of a genetic disorder governed by a single gene that includes a behavioral component is:
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Huntington disease
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Behavioral disorders may result from mutations in genes affecting:
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neurotransmission signal transduction neuron variation
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Which of the following statements is true in the U.S. population?
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Eating disorders are less prevalent than Alzheimer disease.
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An individual with familial advanced sleep phase syndrome (FASPS) is likely to:
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promptly fall asleep at the same time each night.
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Twin and adoptive studies suggest that the heritability of IQ is approximately
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increases with age.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding IQ?
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The gene for a neural adhesion molecule may be associated with intelligence.
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Tolerance:
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is a characteristic of drug addiction.
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There are no legal addictive drugs.
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False
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Alcoholism variants may be associated with the A1 allele of a ____ receptor gene.
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dopamine
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Endorphins
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bind to receptors on human neurons, are the human equivalent of opiates, provide pain relief.
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Bipolar affective disorder
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Is likely caused by deficits of serotonin or norepinephrine.
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A genetic contribution to schizophrenia is suggested by the
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increased risk of recurrence, high concordance between identical twins.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding behavioral traits and disorders?
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Addiction may be related to myelin synthesis.
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The genes in a population comprise its
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gene pool
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Consider a gene in a population where the dominant allele G occurs in 56% of the gametes. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?
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44%
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In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele will ____ over time.
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remain the same
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mutation
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____ is the source of new alleles in a population.
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Genetic determinism
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attributing a trait entirely to a gene or genes
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A highly variable gene variant or DNA sequence present in more than 1% of a population is called a
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polymorphism.
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The differences in DNA fragment sizes resulting from differences in restriction enzyme cutting sites are called
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RFLPs.
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RFLPs.
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Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism; differences in restriction enzyme cutting sites among individuals at the same site among the chromosomes, resulting in different patterns of DNA fragment sizes.
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SNP
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Single nucleotide polymorphism; change of base of single DNA nucleotide, makes up 90% of all human genetic variation
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Short sequences of DNA can be amplified by _____ before they are analyzed
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PCR
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PCR
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polymerase chain reaction,- DNA is copied multiple times to produce many copies of the original molecules helpful when there’s only a small DNA sample technique in which a specific sequence of DNA is replicated in a test tube
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The ____ rule of probability is used to calculate the likelihood that someone other than the suspect in a forensic case may have left the crime scene sample.
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Product
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Electrophoresis separates DNA fragments of different sizes with ____ fragments moving closer to the ____ pole.
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Shorter; positive
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The chance of carrying the cystic fibrosis allele is 1/23 in the Caucasian population. The risk for two unrelated Caucasian individuals, neither of whom have a family history of CF, of having an affected child is
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1/23 x 1/23 x 1/4.
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Approximately 1/2000 individuals have a recessive genetic disorder. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?
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0.022
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Which of the following represents the proportion of individuals within a population displaying a dominant phenotype?
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p2 + 2pq
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mutation
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____ is the source of new alleles in a population.
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The Mennonite and Amish populations have many autosomal recessive illnesses that are extremely rare elsewhere. This is not because
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spontaneous mutations occur at a very high rate.
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In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele will ____ over time.
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remain the same
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Albinism is uncommon in the United States but affects 1/200 Hopi Indians. A contributing factor for this high increase is
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non-random mating
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A classic example of ____ is the Dunker community of Germantown, Pennsylvania.
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a founder effect
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population bottleneck
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decrease in allele diversity resulting from an event that kills many members of a population, followed by restoration of population numbers
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founder effect
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Genetic drift that occurs when a few individuals become isolated from a larger population and form a new population whose gene pool composition is not reflective of that of the original population.
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geographical isolation
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type of reproductive isolation in which two different species live in different habitats, a physical barrier divides a population separate groups no longer able to mate, over time populations may become very different
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A ____ occurs when many members of a group die and only a few are left, by chance, to replenish the numbers.
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a population bottleneck
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The collection of deleterious alleles in populations is called
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genetic load
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Most mutations do not alter the phenotype
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true
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Deleterious alleles can be maintained in a population when heterozygotes have a reproductive advantage. This situation is described as
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a balanced polymorphism.
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Which factor has the least influence on disrupting Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
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mutation
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Frequencies of different mutations in different populations provide information on the natural history of alleles.
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true
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Genetic drift is a random process.
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true
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Consanguinity
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related by blood
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Consanguinity increases the proportion of heterozygotes in the population.
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false
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Different allele frequencies from one geographic area to an adjacent area constitute
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clines
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clines
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allele frequencies that change from one area to another; a distribution wherein biological traits vary in a specific pattern across geography.
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For Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be maintained, mutation must be
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absent
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STRs
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Short Tandem Repeats, regions of a DNA molecule that contain short segments consisting of three to seven repeating base pairs
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CNVs
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copy number variations, alterations of the DNA of a genome that reults in the cell having an abnormal number of copies of one or more sections of the DNA
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A 180-base sequence of DNA found in the genome of many species that controls body formation is called a
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homeobox.
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What genetic information can be used to trace maternal lineage?
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mitochondrial genes
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The rate of DNA hybridization reflects the degree of evolutionary relatedness.
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true
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Molecular evolution is based on the assumption that the more recently two species shared a common ancestor, the more alike their
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stained chromosome bands. DNA sequences. protein sequences.
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Parsimony analysis
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____ is a statistical method used to identify an evolutionary tree likely to represent what really happened.
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Genes in the same order on chromosomes in different species are
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syntenic.
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A(n) ____ is a multisubunit protein produced by B cells that binds to foreign substances and alters components of the immune system.
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antibody
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T cells (without B cells) are responsible for the ______ response.
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cellular immune
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A transplant that occurs between species, such as a human and a pig, is called a(n)
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xenograft.
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autograft
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graft of tissue from one’s own body
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allograft
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transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person; also called homograft
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isograft
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Tissue graft from identical twin
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Which blood type can be transfused to an individual whose blood type is unknown?
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O-
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A couple expecting their second child is worried about Rh incompatibility. Their first child was Rh +. They have their blood typed. Which result would be cause for alarm?
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man Rh + and woman Rh –
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Allergens stimulate the production of ____ antibodies that bind to mast cells, causing them to release allergy mediators.
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lgE
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Which antibody type protects against bacteria, viruses, and toxins, especially in secondary immune responses?
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IgG
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IgA
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Exocrine gland secretion that defends against bacterialcells and viruses; Secretions, topical defense
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IgD
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What class of AB are found as secondary identifiers on B cells?, antigen receptor found on B cells membranes, Immunoglobulin. Less than 3%. Found only as a receptor on B cell membrane, Doesn’t allow antigens to get into the body, Not secreted, stays attached to B cell
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Severe combined immune deficiencies affect which branch of the immune system?
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humoral and cellular
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Humoral immunity can be boosted using
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monoclonal antibody technology.
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Antigen presenting cells are typically
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macrophages.
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Which of the following is not part of the nonspecific, innate defense?
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unbroken skin
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Interleukins
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______ are cytokines that cause fever, temporarily maintaining a higher body temperature.
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Interferons
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antiviral proteins secreted by T cells; they also stimulate macrophages to ingest bacteria fight viral infections and cancers
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Collectins
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proteins with broad protection against bacteria, yeast and some viruses cause clumping; Produced and secreted by the lung. Help cells of the innate system recognize and kill microorganisms
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idiotypes
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part of an antibodies antigen binding site that fits around a particular foreign antigen
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antigen binding sites
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Y shaped; the region of an antibody molecule that includes the idiotype, where foreign antigens bind
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interleukins
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proteins (cytokines) that stimulate the growth of B and T lymphocytes differentiation and growth
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____ cells coordinate acquired immune responses.
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Helper T
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Mutations encoding ____ cause inherited immune deficiencies.
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cytokine genes T cell receptors antibody genes
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Which of the below provide evidence suggesting that allergies may be a holdover of an immune function that was important in the past?
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people with allergies have higher levels of eosinophils
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The polio vaccine uses
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an attenuated pathogen.
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Monoclonal antibodies are produced by a fused cell consisting of
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a B cell and a cancer cell.
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macrophage
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a large scavenger cell that alerts the immune system by binding foreign antibodies; , a large white blood cell that can engulf bacteria and pathogens
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mast cell
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cells that have IgE receptors. they release allergy mediators when IgE binds to receptors on their surfaces. This causes allergy symptoms.
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B cells secrete
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antibodies
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cytokines
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chemicals released by T helper cells that stimulate B cells
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Graft-versus-host disease
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involves a rejection of recipient tissues by transplanted bone marrow.
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HLA
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markers of donor and recipient analyzed, if least a 75% match, usually successful; T cells determine if an antigen is non self; unique; the hairiness on cells recognizing self
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Recombinant DNA (gene cloning)
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is made by linking foreign DNA with the DNA of a cloning vector such as a plasmid or virus.; is most often amplified by introducing it into a bacterium or other single cell host by first inserting the gene of interest into a vector and then putting into a host cell. cut open a plasmid then cut human DNA, combine them together you get ______.
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The use or alteration of cells or biochemicals to provide a useful product describes
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biotechnology.
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Which of the technologies listed below is a valuable method for mass-producing drugs and other useful proteins?
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Recombinant DNA
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Manufacturing recombinant DNA molecules involves cutting a gene from its normal location, inserting it into a circular piece of DNA from a bacterial cell, and then transferring the circle of DNA to cells of another species. Which of the tools below is used to cut the gene from its normal location?
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restriction enzyme
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Manufacturing recombinant DNA molecules involves cutting a gene from its normal location, inserting it into a circular piece of DNA from a bacterial cell, and then transferring the circle of DNA to cells of another species. Which of the below describe the circular piece of DNA from a bacterial cell?
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plasmid
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vector
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in biology, any agent, such as a plasmid or a virus, that can incorporate foreign DNA and transfer that DNA from one organism to another; an intermediate host that transfers a pathogen or a parasite to another organism for delivering genes include liposomes and viruses.
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gene targeting
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The process of ____ involves the introduction of a gene into a cell where it exchanges places with its counterpart in the host cell.; A biotechnology in which an introduced gene exchanges places with its counterpart on a host cell’s chromosome by homologous recombination.
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A multicellular organism that carries a specific genetic change in each cell because of an intervention at the fertilized egg stage is a
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transgenic.
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Palindromic sequences in DNA
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reflect the same sequence on either strand.
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A cDNA version of a gene includes
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codons for a mature mRNA.
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Gene targeting is done on a(n)
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early embryonic cell.
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Antisense technology
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selectively blocks expression of a gene.
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Genomic libraries
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___ consist of recombinant cells containing different fragments of a foreign genome.
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For the same gene, it is possible to patent
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expressed sequence tags, cDNA, SNPs
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Ex vivo gene
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therapy involves injection of engineered cells into patients., cloned gene goes into extracted cells from patient, cell cultured, cells with gene selected, returned to patient
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In vivo gene
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therapy involves injecting the vector directly into the body.
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In situ gene
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delivers a gene directly to an accessible body part.
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Germline gene therapy is
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heritable
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Which of the following is not a vector used in gene therapy?
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HIV
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somatic gene therapy
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changes to malfunctioning genes in somatic or body cells. These changes will not be passed to offspring
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heritable gene therapy
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introduce genetic change into a sperm, egg, or zygote (not done on humans)
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Germline gene therapy could potentially correct a genetic defect in a(n)
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affected individual and all of his or her descendants.
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Which cell type would not be a direct target for gene therapy?
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red blood
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A lack of T cells, as seen in ADA deficiency can
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lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).
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A mechanism of gene therapy involving the alteration of myoblasts could be used to treat
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muscular dystrophy
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myoblasts
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embryonic cells that fuse to form muscle fibers
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Why are neurons difficult targets for gene therapy?
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they do not divide
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Which vector used in gene therapy infects nerve cells and can be used to treat brain tumors?
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herpes virus
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Which of the following is a preferred vector for transferring genes to nerve cells?
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herpes
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Which vector used in gene therapy has proved useful in the treatment of sickle cell disease?
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adeno-associated virus
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Gene therapy would have to “fix” ____ % of the cells in the liver to be effective.
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5
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What type of genetic screening tests would focus on the breast and ovarian cancer genes BRCA1 and BRCA2?
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inherited predisposition
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Which assisted reproductive technology places collected oocytes and sperm in the woman’s fallopian tubes?
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gamete intrafallopian transfer
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Oocytes can be frozen in liquid nitrogen. At which phase of the cell cycle are these cells at the time of freezing?
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meiosis, metaphase II
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A gestational mother provides only her ____ .
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uterus
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Approximately what fraction of couples have difficulty conceiving or giving birth?
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1 in 6
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Many couples now delay parenthood until they are in their 30’s. This delay contributes to which cause of infertility?
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more oocytes being produced with abnormal chromosome numbers
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azoospermia
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Men who have ____ lack sperm.
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ICSI
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Which technology would allow men with spinal cord injuries to become fathers?; Intracytoplasmicsperm injection, when one sperm is injected into one egg
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IVF
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a technique in which eggs are surgically removed from a woman and fertilized with sperm in the laboratory and then put into a women’s uterus
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GIFT
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treatment in which sperm and oocytes are placed in a women’s fallopian tube
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ZIFT
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Fertilization takes place in a dish. then zygote is placed into the fallopian tube.
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Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
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is a technique used to identify genetic defects in embryos created through in vitro fertilization (IVF) before transferring them into the uterus
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In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, DNA synthesis ____ when a dideoxy base is encountered.
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stops
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RFLP’s
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different lengths of DNA produced when cut with restriction enzyme
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microbiome
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A________________ is the totality of microbes, their genetic elements(genomes), and environmental interactions in a defined environment. An example would be the totality of all microbes occupying the gut of a mammal.
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Pharmacogenomics
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study of how genetic inheritance affects the body’s response to drugs in order to produce safer and more specific drug dosing.
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Two main types of antigen-presenting cells are:
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Macrophages T-cells (or T-Lymphocytes)
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O blood type individuals:
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universal donors
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AB blood type:
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universal recipients
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blood type AB safe to transfuse from
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AB, A, B, O
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blood type AB safe to transfuse to
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AB
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blood type A safe to transfuse to
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A,AB
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Polymerase chain reaction
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A technique for amplifying DNA in vitro by incubating it with specific primers, a heat-resistant DNA polymerase, and nucleotides.
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heterozygote advantage
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greater reproductive success of heterogenous individuals compared with homozygotes; tends to preserve variation in a gene pool
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_____come from foreign virus, ______ are our tags that go destroy
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antigens; antibodies
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bacteria makes ______ b/c they have no immune systems, bacteria also carries _______, how they share genetic material
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restrictive enzymes; plasmids